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Anatomy and Physiology > Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Exam 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

maintenance of relatively stable internal conditions

Dynamic equilibrium

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2
Q

What are the components of a control mechanism (control system)?

A
  1. Receptor: monitors environment and responds to stimuli
  2. Control Center: Determines set point, receives receptor input, determines response
  3. Effector: receives input from control center, response either reduces or enhances stimulus
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3
Q

Explain what negative feedback is

A

The response reduces or shuts off the original stimulus

Most feedback in the body uses this

Ex: Regulating body temperature

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4
Q

Explain what positive feedback is

A

The response enhances or exaggerates the original stimulus

Ex: Enhancement of labor contractions due to oxytocin

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5
Q

What is the difference between autoregulation (intrinsic) and extrinsic regulation?

A

Autoregulation occurs automatically, wheras extrinsic regulation is controlled by the nervous and endocrine systems.

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6
Q

Define supine and prone

A

Both describe anatomical positions.

Supine is face-up

Prone is face-down

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7
Q

Define Ventral and Dorsal

A

Ventral means anterior (front)

Dorsal means posterior (back)

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8
Q

What are the three body planes?

A

Sagittal, Frontal (coronal), and Transverse (horizontal/axial)

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9
Q

What are the four abdominopelvic quadrants?

A
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10
Q

What are the nine abdominopelvic regions?

A
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11
Q

What are microvilli and what is their function?

A

Membranous extensions containing microfilaments

They increase the surface area available for absorption to occur

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12
Q

What are cilia and what is their functoin?

A

Cilia are long extensions containing microtubules

They help with the movement of material over the surface of the cell. Found in the respiratory and urinary tracts.

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13
Q

What are the functions of the plasma membrane?

A
  1. Physical Isolation
  2. Regulation of exchange with environment
  3. Sensitivity to the environment
  4. Structural support
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14
Q

What are the components of the cytoplasm?

A

Cytosol: the liquid component

Organelles: intracellular structures

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15
Q

What are the components of the cell membrane?

A
  1. Phospholipids
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Proteins
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16
Q

What is an integral protein?

A

A membrane protein whose removal will disrubt/destroy the cell membrane

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17
Q

What is a peripheral protein?

A

A protein found either on the intracellular or extracellular side of the plama membrane.

Removal of these proteins will not disrupt the membrane

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18
Q

Explain the purpose of microfilaments.

A

They are found in microvilli and are used for anchoring. They also determine the fluidity of the cytosol.

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19
Q

Explain the purpose of intermediate filaments.

A

They stbilize

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20
Q

What is the function of microtubules?

A

They help move vesicles and organelles throughout the cytoplasm

They also are crucial for mitosis due to their role in the formation of spindle aparatuses

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21
Q

How do cilia prevent resistence and maximize efficiency for movement?

A

They only beat one way with a power stroke, in which the cilia is stiff, and a return stroke where it is limp.

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22
Q

Describe a tight junction

A

They prevent movement between cells. They can vary in their degree of tightness.

Frequently found in epithelial cells.

Composed of peripheral proteins from each membrane

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23
Q

What is a desmosome?

A

A cellular structure that keeps cells bound together.

They help resist shearing forces

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24
Q

What is a gap junction?

A

Cell-cell junction made up of proteins called connexins. They allow ions to pass between neighboring cells.

Useful for synchronicity

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25
Q

Is the plasma membrane impermeable, freely permeable, or selectively permeable?

A

Selectively permeable

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26
Q

What does the selectively permeable membrane restirct materials based on?

A

Size, Electrical Charge, Molecular shape, and Lipid Solubility

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27
Q

Which has a more negative charge: intracellular fluid or extracellular fluid?

A

Intracellular fluid is negative because of the presence of many negatively charged proteins.

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28
Q

Explain diffusion

A

Diffusion is a passive process by which molecules move from high concentrations to low concentrations (down the concentration gradient)

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29
Q

What are the factors that affect diffusion?

A

Distance, Molecule Size, Temperature, Concentration Gradient, Electrical Forces

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30
Q

What materials are able to diffuse through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

A

Lipid soluble compounds and dissolved gases

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31
Q

How do water soluble molecules enter the cell?

A

By channel mediated diffusion

Ex: Aquaporins

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32
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Diffusion of water across the cell membrane. Water moves to equalize the concentration of solutes on either side of the membrane.

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33
Q

Does the concentration of one solute effect the diffusion of another similarly sized and charged solute?

A

No. Each solute diffuses as though it were the only material in the solution.

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34
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The force of a conceentartion gradient of water.

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35
Q

What is the difference between osmolarity and tonicity?

A

Osmolarity refers to the solute concentration of the solution, while tonicity is a description of how the solution affects the cell.

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36
Q

Describe Isotonic, Hypotonic, and Hypertonic.

A

Isotonic: no change in size

Hypotonic: cell will expand because it has more solutes, water diffuses into cell

Hypertonic: cell will shrivel because it has less solutes, water diffuses out of cell

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37
Q

What is crenation?

A

When a red blood cell in a heypertonic solution loses water and shrinks

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38
Q

Is vesicular transport active or passive?

A

Active

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39
Q

What is a uniport carrier? Give an example

A

They transport one kind of substrate across the membrane

Example: Glucose channel

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40
Q

What is a symport carrier? Give an example.

A

Move two or more substrates in the same direction across a membrane.

Example: Sodium-Glucose co-transporter

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41
Q

What is an antiport carrier?

A

Moves substrates in opposite directions across the membrane.

Example: Na/K pump

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42
Q

How is the concentration gradient for glucose maintained in the cell?

A

Glucose is converted to other products via glycogen and glycolosis so it doesn’t contribute to the concentration gradient any more once it is in the cell.

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43
Q

Explain secondary active transport?

A

When the gradient for one ion is used to drive the movement of another across the membrane.

Example: Na gradient allows glucose to enter the cell

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44
Q

Expllain how a primary active transporter is necessary for the functioning of secondary active transporters

A

The primary transport creates the concentration gradient that drives the secondary transport

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45
Q

What are the two types of endocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

Phago: usually to destroy something in immune response

Pino: intake of ECF

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46
Q

What are the four types of tissues?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Muscle
  4. Neural
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47
Q

Explain what epithelial tissue does

A

It covers exposed surfaces, lines internal passages and chambers, and forms glands

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48
Q

What are the characteristics of epithelia?

A

Cellularity

Polarity

Attachment

Avascularity

Regeneration

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49
Q

How are epithelial cells maintained and repaired?

A

They are replaced by the division of germinative cells in the basal layer

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50
Q

What are the 8 types of cells?

A
  1. Simple Squamous
  2. Simple Cuboidal
  3. Simple Columnar
  4. Stratified Squamous
  5. Stratified Cuboidal
  6. Stratified Columnar
  7. Transitional Epithelium
  8. Psuedostratified columnar epithelium
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51
Q

What is epithelium always attached to?

A

Connective tissue

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52
Q

What is the difference between endocrine glands and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands release hormones into the interstitial fluid whereas exocrine glands produce secretions onto epithelial surfaces through ducts

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53
Q

Explain the difference between paracrine and autocrine glands.

A

Paracrine glands secrete hormone that act on nearby tissues wheareas autocrine glands act on the gland/tissue that they are secreted from

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54
Q

Explain holocrine, apocrine and merocrine secretions

A

Holocrine: whole cell is released

Apocrine: part of the cell is released

Merocrine: vesicles are released

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55
Q

What are mucous (goblet) cells?

A

They are the only unicellular exocrine glands

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56
Q

Does connective tissue have contact with the environment?

A

No

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57
Q

What is the matrix (in connective tissue) made up of?

A

Fibers and ground substance

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58
Q

What are the three types of conective tissue?

A

CT Proper

Fluid CT

Supporting CT

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59
Q

What are the subtypes of Loose CT proper?

A

Areolar, adipose and reticular

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60
Q

What are the subtypes of Dense CT Proper?

A

Dense regular, dense irregular, elastic

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61
Q

What are the two components of a membrane?

A

Areolar and epithelial tissue

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62
Q

What is the primary function of a fibroblast?

A

They secrete hyaluronan and make ground substance viscous through the production of proteoglycans.

Their secretions also from large extracellular fibers

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63
Q

What are the three parts of connective tissue?

A

Matrix, fibers/ground substance, and cells

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64
Q

What is the origin of all connective tissues?

A

Mesenchymal stem cells

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65
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

They engulf damaged cells and pathogens through phagocytosis

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66
Q

What connective tissue cell type is associated with inflammation?

A

Mast cells release heparine (anticoagulant) and histamine, which cause an inflammatory response

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67
Q

What are the two types of microphages?

A

Eosinophils and neutrophils

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68
Q

What is the structural difference between collagin fibers and reticular fibers?

A

Collagen fibers are made of 3 coiled coils that are unbranched and resist tensile forces, whereas reticular fibers are made from just one coil and are branched. Reticlar fibers are able to withstand forces in many directions

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69
Q

Describe the structure of elastic fibers.

A

Elastic fibers are made mostly of elastin and have branched and wavy fibers. They allow stretching and returning to the original length.

70
Q

What is the purpose of reticular fibers?

A

They support organs and can also act as filters

ex: removal of old RBCs in the spleen

71
Q

Describe the structure and function of Ground Substance

A

Ground substance is clear, colorless, and viscous due to the presence of proteoglycans and glycoproteins.

It fills the spaces between cells and slows pathogen movement because of density

72
Q

What are the two types of embryonic connective tissue?

A
  1. Mesenchyme
  2. Mucous connective tissue
73
Q

What type of connective tissue is found only in the umbilical cord?

A

Mucus CT (Wharton’s Jelly)

74
Q

What are the two epidermal pigments?

A

Carotene: orange-yellow pigment

Melanin: brown, yellow-brown or black pigment; protects skin from UV radiation

75
Q

How long does it take for a cell to move from the stratum basale to the stratum corneum?

A

7-10 days

It remains in the stratum corneum ~2 weeks

76
Q

What is the body’s first line of defense from the environment?

A

The cutaneous membrane (skin)

77
Q

What are the general functions of the integumentary system?

A

1) Protection
2) Excretion
3) Maintenance of body temp
4) Production of melanin
5) Production of keratin
6) Production of vitamin D3
7) storage of lipids
8) detection of touch, pressure, pain and temperature

78
Q

What type of epithelial cells make up the epidermis?

A

Stratified squamous

79
Q

Describe to subcomponents of the integumentary system

A
80
Q

Is the subcutaneous layer considered a membrane?

A

No, because it does not have epithelial and connective tissue

81
Q

What is the difference between thin skin and thick skin?

A

Thin skin has 4 layers of keratinocytes, whereas thick skin has 5 layers.

Thick skin is only found on the palms of the hand and soles of the feet

82
Q

Describe the stratum basalel.

A

The innermost epidermal layer which is made up of stem cells and is attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes.

This layer forms the epidermal ridges that extend into the dermis.

83
Q

Describe the stratum spinosum.

A

8-10 layers of keratinocytes that are formed from the division of stem cells. Cells are still dividing in this region.

84
Q

Describe the stratum granulosum

A

3-5 layers of keratinocytes derived from the spinosum

these cells produce large amounts of heratin and keratohyalin

cells begin to die

85
Q

Describe the stratum lucidum

A

The layer that is found only in thick skin that contains flat densely packed cells

This layer stains clearly, “lucidum”

86
Q

Describe the stratum corneum

A

This layer is at the exposed surface and is composed of 15-30 layers of keratinized cells

87
Q

What are Merkel discs?

A

Sensory receptors found in the epidermis

88
Q

Describe the order of the layers found in the epidermis

A
89
Q

What are dermal papillae?

A

They are projections from the dermis into the basal lamina layer. These increase the surface area for increased diffusion, and are also the reason that we have fingerprints.

90
Q

What is insensible persperation, and how much is lost per day because of it?

A

Interstitial fluid is lost by evaporation throuogh the stratum corneum.

500 mL lost per day

91
Q

What is the difference in blood color between oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?

A

Oxygenated is bright red, whereas deoxygenated is scarlet (dark red)

92
Q

When does bile contribute to the color of an individual’s skin?

A

Only in pathological situations

Yellow skin = Jaundice

93
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Excess ACTH is produced from the pituitary gland which leads to the darkening of skin.

94
Q

What is Vitiligo?

A

A condition in which melanocytes are lost leading to a loss of skin color. This is not a medical condition, but causes many social problems

95
Q

What are the different type of skin cancers?

A

Basal Cell carcinoma: basal cells overgrow

Squamous: keratinocytes overgrow

Malanoma: melanocytes overgrowing (worst in terms of survival rates)

96
Q

What are the ABCDE’s of skin cancer detection?

A

Asymmetry

Border

Color

Diameter

Elevation

97
Q

What is cholecalciferol and what role does it play in the body?

A

Cholecalciferol is vitamin D3

Epidermal cells produce it in the presence of UV radiation.

It is converted into calitriol in the kidneys and the liver, which is used for the absorption of calcium and phosphate.

98
Q

What condition is caused by insufficient vitamin D3?

A

Rickets

99
Q

Describe the Dermis.

A

It is the layer between the epidermis and the subcutaneous layer.

It has 2 components:

  1. Outer papillary layer
  2. Deep reticular layer
100
Q

Describe the paillary layer of the dermis.

A

It contains areolar tissue which has small capillaries, lymphatics and sensory neurons.

It has dermal papillae which project between the epitermal ridges.

101
Q

Describe the reticular layer

A

Made of dense irregular connective tissue and ahs larger blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels than the papillary layer

It contains collagen and elastic fibers (CT proper)

102
Q

What is Dermatitis?

A

An inflammation of the papillary layer that usually causes itchiness and/or pain.

103
Q

What are cleavage lines?

A

lines representing the orientation of collagen and elastic fiber bundles

an incision parallel to these lines will heal easily, whereas an incision perpendicular to these lines will cause much more scarring

104
Q

What do nerve fibers in the skin primarily control?

A

Blood flow

Gland secretions

Sensory receptors

105
Q

Describe the hypodermis

A

Lies below the integument

Allows for separate movement of skin from underlying tissues

Made up of elastic areolar and adipose tissue

Has few capillaries and no vital organs

106
Q

What are considered accessory structures of the integumentary system?

A

Hair, Hair follicles, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and nails

107
Q

Where is there NO hair on the human body?

A

Palms, soles, lips, anterior surface of eyeball, and portions of external genitalia

108
Q

What are the primary functions of hair?

A

It protects and insulates and guards openings agains particles and insects. Also helps for sensation of touch.

109
Q

What are arrector pili muscles?

A

They are the muscles that stand up hair and are under the control of the autonomous nervous system.

110
Q

What are the two types of hair?

A

Vellus hair: soft, fine, covers most of body surface

Terminal hairs: heavy, pigmented; found on head, eyebrows and eyelashes

111
Q

Explain the difference between apocrine glands and merocrine glands.

A

Apocrine glands are found in the arm pits and groin and secrete thick odorous fluid. These glands are either on or off. Controlled by ANS

Merocrine glands are found on the palms and soles and are controlled independently (some by ANS)

112
Q

Describe the response to injury

A
  1. Bleeding occurs; mast cells trigger inflammatory response
  2. A scab stabilizes and protects the area. Granulation tissue forms from fibroblasts and endothelial cells
  3. Scab undermined by fibroblasts producing meshwork of new skin cells
  4. Scab is shed, epidermis is complete. Depression left behind until scar tissue forms enough
113
Q

What is the rule of nines?

A

A way of estimating the percentage of skin that is affected by burns.

114
Q

What are some of the effects of aging on the integument?

A

Decreased blood supply, function of hair follicles, elastic fibers, repair rate

Dermal thinning, wrinkling and reduced melanocyte activity

115
Q

What are the primary functions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. Support
  2. Storage of minerals
  3. Blood cell production (red marrow)
  4. Protection
  5. Leverage
116
Q

Describe the structure of a long bone

A

Diaphysis is the shaft: heavy wall of compact bone with a central space called the medullary cavity

Epiphysis is the wide part at each end; mostly spongy bone, coveret with compact bone

Metaphysis is where the diaphysis and epiphysis meet

117
Q

What is hydroxyapatite?

A

Calcium phosphate reacts with calcium hydroxide to form these crystals in the bone that give it

118
Q

What are the different types of bone cells?

A

Osteocyte: mature bone cell that maintains bone matrix

Osteoblast: immature bone cell that secretes organic components of the matrix

Osteoprogenitor: stem cell that divides to produce osteoblasts

Osteoclast: multinucleate cell that secretes acids and enzymes to dissolve bone matrix

119
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

Cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes

120
Q

How are osteons aligned in compact bone?

A

They are aligned all parallel with the long axis of the bone, making it very strong when compressed in that direction

121
Q

What are trabeculae?

A

The meshwork of supporting bundles and fibers in spongy bone

122
Q

Where is red bone marrow typically found?

A

In the spongy bone within the epiphyses of long bones such as the femur

123
Q

What is yellow bone marrow

A

Adipose tissue deposits within bones that are important energy reserves

124
Q

Describe the periosteum

A

Has a fibrous outer layer and a cellular inner layer. The collagen fibers of the periosteum are continuous with those of the bone, adjacent joint capusles, and attached tendons and ligaments

125
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

This incomplete cellular lauyer lines the medullary cavity and converfs the trabeculae of spongy bone. It is active in bone growth and repair because it contains osteoblasts, osteoprogenitor cells and osteoclasts

126
Q

What is the difference between ossification and calcification?

A

Ossification is the process of replacing other tissues with bone whereas calcification is the specific process of depositing calcium salts into a tissue.

Calcification occures during bone ossification

127
Q

What tissue do most bones originate as?

A

Hyaline cartilage

128
Q

Describe the steps of intramembraneous ossification

A

1) mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts and the bone expands w/ spicules into nearby tissues
2) Spicules interconnect, trapping blood vessels
3) Over time, spongy bone structure is formed. This can later be reformed into compact bone

129
Q

Describe the steps of endochondral ossification

A

1) enlarging chondrocytes within the calcifying matrix at center of shaft
2) blood vessels grow around the edges, cells of perichondrium turn into osteoblasts, leading to a superficial layer of bone
3) Blood vessels penetrate cartilage and reach central region, bringing with them osteoblasts that are able to begin to produce spongy bone in central region
4) As bone formation spreads from middle towards both ends, remodeling occurs creating the medullary cavity.
5) Capillaries and osteoblasts in epiphyses become secondary ossification centers
6) Articular cartilage remains exposed to joint cavity

130
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

Bone matrix is added to the outer surface of the bones, increasing the diameter

131
Q

What are the components of the cell membrane?

A
132
Q

Describe the process of membrane transport

A
133
Q
A

simple squamous

134
Q
A

Simple Cuboidal

135
Q
A

simple columnar

136
Q
A

stratified squamous

137
Q
A

stratified cuboidal

138
Q
A

stratified columnar

139
Q

What are the different types of connective tissues?

A
140
Q

What are the components of the integumentary system?

A
140
Q

What are the different types of glandular structures?

A
141
Q

What type of cells are found in all connective tissue proper?

A

Fibroblasts and fibrocytes

142
Q

What are aponeuroses?

A

Dense regular connective tissue that attach in sheets to large flat muscles

Similar histologically to tendons

143
Q

What are neuroglial cells?

A

Cells that maintain the physical structure of neural tissues and repair the tissue framework after injury

144
Q

What characteristic changes occur in tissue because of inflammation?

A

Inflammation leads to increased blood flow, increased vessel permeability and pain.

These cause increased temperature, O2 and nutrient deliver, activity and number of phagocytes and decreased toxins/waste products

145
Q

What is necrosis?

A

As cells break down, lysosomes release enzymes that destroy the injured cell and attack surrounding tissues

146
Q

What are Merkel cells?

A

tactile disks for sensory reception of touch

147
Q

What are Langerhans cells?

A

Fixed macrophages throughout the epithelia that are active in uptake and processing of antigens for immune response.

148
Q

What are melanosomes?

A

vesicles prodced by melanocytes that contain the melanin pigment

these vesicles enter the keratinocytes leading to skin pigmentation

149
Q

What is the function of myoepithelial cells?

A

They squeeze apocrine glands in response to nervous or hormonal signals

150
Q

Describe the structure of spongy bone

A

A matrix forms an open network of trabeculae with red marrow filling in the space in between.

Spongy bone is NOT organized into osteons

151
Q

What minerals are found in the bone matrix?

A

Calcium phosphate: Ca3(PO4)2

Calcium hydroxide: Ca(OH)2

combine to form:

hydroxyapatite: Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2

152
Q

What vitamins are crucial for healthy bones?

A

Vitamin C: collagen synthesis and osteoblast differentiation

Vitamin A: stimulates osteoblast activity

Vitamins K and B12: help synthesize bone proteins

Growth hormone, thyroxine, estrogens/androgens stimulate bone growth

153
Q

What is the most abundant mineral in the body?

A

Calcium

154
Q

How do PTH and calcitonin affect Ca2+ levels in the blood stream

A

PTH: increases Ca2+

Calcitonin: decreases Ca2+

155
Q

Describe the steps in the repair of a fracture

A

1) Bleeding: large blood clot forms
2) Calluses form internally (network of spongy bone) and externally (cartilage and bone)
3) The external callus hardens into bone, the spongy bone expands, joining together the fracture, and fragments of dead bone are removed
4) The external callus swelling slowly diminishes over time and the bone returns to normal

156
Q

What is a Pott’s fracture?

A

A common ankle fracture where one of the malleoli (end of tibia or fibula) break off

157
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

When a bone breaks in many places at once

158
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

A fracture of the distal radius

159
Q

What does cephalic mean?

A

Toward the head

160
Q

What does caudal mean?

A

Towards the tail

161
Q

In what abdominopelvic region is the spleen located?

A

Left hypochondriac

162
Q

In what abdominopelvic region is the appendix located?

A

Hypogastric

163
Q

Which plane separates superior from inferior?

A

Transverse plane

164
Q

Which plane separates right from left?

A

Sagittal plane

165
Q

Which plane separates anterior from posterior?

A

Frontal plane

166
Q

What are the components of the Ventral body cavity?

A

Thoracic Cavity

  • Pleural cavities (L and R)
  • Mediastinum: trachea, esophagus, vessels
  • Pericardium

Abdominopelvic cavity

  • Peritoneal Cavity
  • Abdominal cavity: digestive glands and organs
  • Pelvic cavity: bladder, reproductive organs, end of GI tract
167
Q

What are the two components of serous membranes?

A

Parietal layer lines the cavity

Visceral layer covers the organ

168
Q

What is the retroperitoneal space and what organs are found there?

A

It is the area posterior to the peritoneum and anterior to the muscular body wall

Holds the: pancreas, kidneys, ureters, and parts of the GI tract

169
Q

Can two fluids have the same osmolarity, but different tonicity?

A

Yes

170
Q

What makes up glycolipids? Glycoproteins?

A

Glycolipids: carbohydrates + phospholipids

Glycoproteins: carbohydrates + proteins

Anatomy and Physiology (4 decks)

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