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AP 2 > Final Exam Note Cards > Flashcards

Final Exam Note Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a function of blood:

a. produces plasma hormones
b. helps stabilize pH of extracellular fluids
c. helps regulate body temperature
d. participates in initiation of blood clotting
e. transports variety of nutrients

A

a. produces plasma hormones

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2
Q

A normal hematocrit is _____ of the total blood volume

A

37-52%

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3
Q

Which of the following proteins is the most abundant in plasma?

a. albumin
b. prothrombin
c. transferrin
d. hemoglobin
e. fibrinogen

A

albumin

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4
Q

the main function of erythrocytes is to__

*on test

A

transport oxygen

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5
Q

most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to ___

choose from:
alpha chains, heme groups, plasma membrane, beta chains, delta chains

A

heme groups in hemoglobin

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6
Q

A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type _____ and can receive RBCs from someone of type ____

*this is on test

A

AB; O

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7
Q

A person with type AB blood has ____ RBC antigen

A

A and B

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8
Q

The universal donor of RBCs is blood type

A

O, Rh-negative

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9
Q

An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has ____ antigen(s) and can produce anti-_____ antibodies

A

B and D; A

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10
Q

The number of _____ typically increases in response to bacterial infections

A

neutrophils

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11
Q

which cells aid in the body’s defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin

A

basophils

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12
Q

a patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than ____ WBCs

A

10,000

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13
Q

when a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by

A

plasmin

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14
Q

select the correct statement about heart valves:

a. the mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle
b. the atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction
c. the tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle
d. aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart

A

b. the atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction

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15
Q

The plateau in action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of _____

A

slow Ca2+ channels

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16
Q

What is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle

choices include sequences of:
isovolumetric contraction,
isovolumetric relaxation,
ventricular ejection,
ventricular filling

A

ventricular filling –> isovolumetric contraction —> ventricular ejection —> isovolumetric relaxation

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17
Q

What route of blood flow is correct?

Choices include sequences of:
aerteriole, capillary, venule, heart
conducting artery,
distributing artery,
heart, large vein,
medium vein

A

heart —> conducting artery —> distributing artery –> arteriole —> arteriole —> capillary —-> venule —-> medium vein —>large vein —> heart

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18
Q

permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ___

A

capillaries

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19
Q

the receiving chambers of the heart include the _____

A

right and left atria

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20
Q

the fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it _____

A

pumps blood against a greater resistance

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21
Q

which of the following receive blood during ventricular systole

Choices include:
aorta only, pulmonary arteries only, both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

A

both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

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22
Q

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

a. the heart chambers are lined by endomysium
b. connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential
c. fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart
d. myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts

A

d. myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts

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23
Q

Electrical signals pass between cardiomyocytes through the ____

Choices include the types of connections of adjacent cells.

A

gap junctions

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24
Q

The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the ____

A

cardiac output

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25
Q

congestive heart failure of the right ventricle _____

Choices include what it can result from it.

A

can cause systemic edema

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26
Q

isovolumetric contraction occurs during the _____ of the electrocardiogram

A

R- Wave

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27
Q

Where is the greatest volume of blood found in the body

A

veins

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28
Q

This has the most important effect on blood velocity (flow)

Choices include physical properties of the blood and vessels.

A

vessel radius

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29
Q

where is the vasomotor center located

A

medulla oblongata

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30
Q

what is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary

A

blood hydrostatic pressure

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31
Q

what is taken up by the capillaries at their venous end

A

waste products

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32
Q

the direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial ____

A

anastomosis

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33
Q

after the precapillary sphincter (closed), blood enters

A

thoroughfare channel

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34
Q

leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of _____

A

pluripotent stem cells

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35
Q

what are the most abundant agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes

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36
Q

what is the most abundant extracellular cation

A

Na

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37
Q

In the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the:

Choices include permeability of different segments.

A

thick segment is impermeable to water but permeable to NA and Cl ions

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38
Q

follicles are located in

A

ovarian cortex

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39
Q

a patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis due to diabetic ketoacidosis. His kidneys are damaged due to diabetes mellitus. What his body can do to normalize the blood pH.

A

hyperventilation

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40
Q

which hormone is most important for the development of secondary sex characteristics in females

A

estrogen

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41
Q

in which phase the functional layer of the endometrium is rebuilt

A

proliferative

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42
Q

this stage is associated with enrichment of blood supply and grandular secretion of nutrients which prepare the endometrium to receive the embryo

A

secretory

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43
Q

if fertilization occurs, the _____ is maintained because the embryo secretes ____

A

corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin

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44
Q

during which phase of ovarian hormones are at lowest levels

A

menstrual

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45
Q

which phase is more constant time wise

A

secretory

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46
Q

which one is the fully mature follicle

A

vesicular

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47
Q

inability to expel milk from breasts is due to;

A

low levels of oxytocin

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48
Q

during the follicular phase, granulosa cells produce and secrete_____. This results in stimulation and secretion of ______

A

estrogen; LH

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49
Q

which hormone is important for breast milk synthesis

A

prolactin

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50
Q

fertilization usually takes place in

A

ampulla of uterine tube

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51
Q

this structure contains theca folliculi, granulosa cells, zona pellucida, and a secondary oocyte

Choices include phases of the ovarian follicle.

A

secondary follicle

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52
Q

where exactly is the embryo’s attachment site

A

endometrium

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53
Q

the ovulated egg is found in this stage of meiosis

A

metaphase II

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54
Q

after ovulation, the follicle becomes ____ and secretes ___

A

corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone

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55
Q

which hormone triggers ovulation

A

LH

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56
Q

Regarding the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle, which of the following is correct:

a. follicle secretes progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation
b. increased levels of estrogen contribute to follicle development
c. increasing estrogen levels stimulate LH surge and release
d. LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte

A

c. increasing estrogen levels stimulate LH surge and release

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57
Q

three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. one comes from an unequal division of the ovum. Where do the other two arise from?

A

the first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies

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58
Q

True or False

the testis is divided into seminiferous tubules. These contain lobules. Lobules produce sperm and the ejaculatory duct that allows sperm to be ejected

A

False

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59
Q

which statement is false?

a. mitosis results in diploid cells. meiosis results in haploid cells.
b. mitosis produces genetically identical cells. meiosis produces genetically unique cells.
c. mitosis produces 4 cells. meiosis produces 2 cells.
d. mitosis occurs throughout the entire lifetime. meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty.

A

c. mitosis produces 4 cells. meiosis produces 2 cells.

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60
Q

which statement is NOT correct?

a. testosterone stimulates protein synthesis
b. testosterone stimulates the HPG axis
c. testosterone contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis
d. testosterone stimulates the male pattern of development

A

b. testosterone stimulates the HPG axis

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61
Q

what is the correct order of structures that sperm moves through from its development to ejaculation?

Choices include sequences of:
ductus deferns, epididymis,
ejaculatory duct,
rete testis, urethra,
seminiferous tubule

A

seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

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62
Q

the product of this gland serves as a lubricant and neutralizes any traces of acidity in urethra

A

bulbo-urethral

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63
Q

the product of this gland fluoresces with UV light

A

seminal

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64
Q

true or false: ejaculation is under the parasympathetic system control

A

false

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65
Q

the hormone ______ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to produce and release _____

A

LH; testosterone

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66
Q

with regard to the blood-testis-barrier, which of the following is true?

a. helps maintain testis temp at 37 degrees C
b. prevents heat loss from testes
c. helps maintain testis temperature at 35 degrees C
d. prevents blood from getting to the testes
e. blocks plasma antibodies to get into germ cells

A

e. blocks plasma antibodies to get into germ cells

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67
Q

which part of the mature sperm cells contain hydrolytic enzymes that help sperm to penetrate the egg

A

head

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68
Q

when do the testes start producing testosterone

A

in the first trimester of fetal development

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69
Q

metabolic alkalosis can be caused by

A

vomiting and loss of acidic stomach contents

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70
Q

for which imbalance is the release of adh appropriate

A

fluid and electrolyte imbalance

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71
Q

in this blood sample it was found: elevated arterial PCO2 level and a low blood PH. Determine the acid-base imbalance

A

respiratory acidosis

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72
Q

in this blood sample it was found: elevated blood pH and elevated bicarbonate ion level. determine the acid base imbalance.

A

metabolic alkalosis

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73
Q

hypoventilation can cause

A

respiratory acidosis

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74
Q

which system is responsible for the most common route of water loss from body

A

urinary

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75
Q

which hormone promotes the reabsorption of water from the kidneys back into the ecf by osmosis

A

ADH

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76
Q

accumulation of interstitial fluid is called

A

edema

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77
Q

which hormones are responsible for increasing sodium ion retention

A

angiotensin II and aldosterone

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78
Q

what is the effect of hypokalemia on resting membrane potential

A

it causes hyperpolarization of the membrane potential

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79
Q

why are chlorine ions important

A

they are involved in the production of stomach acid

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80
Q

through which two systems is CO2 eliminated from the body

A

respiratory and urinary systems

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81
Q

determine the product formed when H ions from a strong acid are accepted by the bicarbonate ion

A

carbonic acid

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82
Q

the trigone of the urinary bladder is created by

A

the openings to the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice

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83
Q

all statements are true for urine EXCEPT:

a. yellow color
b. pH 3.0
c. mild odor
d. translucency

A

B. pH 3.0

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84
Q

What’s the purpose of countercurrent mechanism in the nephron loop

A

creates a steep concentration gradient for continued water reabsorption

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85
Q

regarding ADH, which one is true:

a. promotes water loss and increases urine output
b. causes the kidneys to produce very dilute urine
c. it is secreted in response to low potassium ions in the blood
d. increases the permeability of the late distal tubule and cortical collecting ducts to water

A

d. increases the permeability of the late distal tubule and cortical collecting ducts to water

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86
Q

what is the mechanism for reabsorbing glucose from the filtrate into the cells of the PCT

A

secondary active transport

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87
Q

the functional unit of the kidney is

A

nephron

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88
Q

renal pyramids are located in

A

renal medulla

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89
Q

urine drains from a major calyx into

A

renal pelvis

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90
Q

a glomerulus is

A

a set of capillaries within the renal corpuscle

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91
Q

where does blood in the arcuate artery travel next on its journey toward the glomerulus

A

cortical radiate artery

92
Q

which hormone suppresses uterine contractions

A

progesterone

93
Q

place these vessels in the correct order as blood flows into and through the kidney:

  1. afferent arteriole
  2. arcuate artery
  3. efferent arteriole
  4. glomerulus
  5. interlobar artery
  6. cortical radiate artery
  7. renal artery
  8. segmental artery
A

7, 8 , 5, 2 , 6, 1, 4 , 3

  1. renal artery
  2. segmental artery
  3. interlobar artery
  4. arcuate artery
  5. cortical radiate artery
  6. afferent arteriole
  7. glomerulus
  8. efferent arteriole
94
Q

macula densa and granular cells are found in

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

95
Q

what should NOT be found in filtrate

A

plasma proteins

96
Q

during pregnancy which hormone secreted by both blastocyst and placenta is used to be tested by home pregnancy test kits

A

hCg

97
Q

the main force that promotes filtration in a nephron is

Choices include various pressures.

A

GHP - Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure

98
Q

Embryo is considered

Choices include time frames in days and weeks.

A

from day 16 through week 8

99
Q

the total amount of kilocalories the body must consume to fuel all ongoing activities which increases dramatically during physical exertion, is called the ____. It is a baseline or standard of comparison that minimizes effects of activity, feeding, and hormone levels while being relaxed, awake, fasting, comfortable at room tempature

A

basal metabolic rate (BMR)

100
Q

which lipoprotein transports mostly cholesterol but also other lipids to body cells

A

low density lipoprotein or LDL

101
Q

the process of making glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as fats, glycerol, proteins and amino acids is known as

A

gluconeogenesis

102
Q

fat oxidation products can acidify the blood, a condition known as

A

acidosis or ketoacidosis

103
Q

which event of cellular respiration is the biggest payoff step in which 26-28 ATP are produced

A

electron transport chain

104
Q

the major fuel for making ATP in most cells of the body is a type of carbohydrate known as

A

glucose

105
Q

_____ refers to all chemical reactions necessary to maintain life

A

metabolism

106
Q

the energy value of foods is measured in units called ____

A

kilocalories or calories

107
Q

which of the following is not a major class of nutrients:

water

carbohydrates

nucleic acids

vitamins

minerals

A

nucleic acids

108
Q

first step in using amino acids as fuel is to _____ them

A

deaminate

109
Q

fatty acids are catabolized through which process

A

beta oxidation

110
Q

most of the fat in the body is stored in what form

A

triglycerides

111
Q

the inner membrane of a mitochondrion contains the protein ____, which harnesses the energy created by H+ flow to produce ATP by a process called _____.

A

ATP synthase; the chemiosmotic mechanism

112
Q

glycolysis and aerobic respiration collectively produce up to ______ ATP per glucose, whereas anaerobic fermentation produces _____.

A

32; 2

113
Q

what process produces most of the NADH that contributes to ATP synthesis in the cell

A

the citric acid cycle

114
Q

_____ are short term regulators of appetite , whereas ______ is a long term regulator

Choices include combinations of:
CCK, Insulin,
Leptin, peptide YY

A

peptide YY (PYY) and cholecystokinin (CCK); insulin

115
Q

_____ yield about 4 kcal/g when completely oxidized, whereas ____ yield about 9 kcal/g.

A

proteins and carbohydrates; fats

116
Q

which of the following is the healthiest ration of triglycerides:

a. high HDL; low LDL
b. high LDL; low HDL
c. high LDL; low chylomicron
d. high SFA; low HDL
e. high chylomicron; low LDL

A

high HDL; low LDL

117
Q

food that you have swallowed comes in contact with the

Choices include layers of the digestive tract.

A

mucosa

118
Q

the two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the _____

A

submucosa and myenteric

119
Q

which sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into small intestine

A

pyloric

120
Q

what do chief cells of the stomach produce

A

protein digesting enzymes

121
Q

intrinsic factor, produced by cells in stomach, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin ____ in the small intestine

A

B12

122
Q

what are the fingerlike projections of the small intestine that increase the absorptive surface area

A

villi

123
Q

bile is formed by the ____ and stored in the _____

A

liver; gallbladder

124
Q

which of the following gives the small intestine a fuzzy appearance known as the brush border

A

microvilli

125
Q

the portion of the tooth embedded in the jawbone is the _____

A

root

126
Q

a drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin (cck) would affect

A

pancreatic secretions

127
Q

in response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid that contains

A

bicarbonate

128
Q

decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of

A

fat

129
Q

which is the sequence of layers from the lumen to the outer wall of the digestive tract

muscularis externa, mucosa, serosa, submucosa

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

130
Q

chief cells secrete

A

pepsinogen

131
Q

in the digestive system, HCl is released by _____, whereas HCO3- (bicarbonate) secreted primarily from the ____

A

parietal cells of the stomach; pancreas

132
Q

nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the

A

small intestine

133
Q

amylases, the enzymes u sed to digest carbohydrates, are secreted by

A

salivary glands into mouth and the pancreas into the intestine

134
Q

functions of the large intestine include

A

absorption of water and production of feces

135
Q

during the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,

a. the stomach responds to distention
b. secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells
c. there are increased action potentials along the vagus nerve to stomach
d. the intestine reflexively inhibits gastric emptying
e. production of gastric juice is inhibited

A

there are increased action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach

136
Q

the upper respiratory tract includes all EXCEPT which of the following?

a. nasal cavity
b. lungs
c. larynx
d. mouth

A

b. lungs

137
Q

the sites of gas exchange within the lungs are

A

alveoli

138
Q

place the following structures of the respiratory tree in the order in which air passes through them.

  1. secondary bronchi
  2. bronchioles
  3. primary bronchi
  4. alveoli
  5. terminal bronchioles
A

3, 1, 2, 5, 4

  1. primary bronchi
  2. secondary bronchi
  3. bronchioles
  4. terminal bronchioles
  5. alveoli
139
Q

type I alveolar cells

A

allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes

140
Q

dalton’s law states that

A

in a mixture of gases like air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in mixture

141
Q

boyle’s law states that gas volume is

A

inversely proportional to pressure

142
Q

a typical value for intrapleural pressure is approximately _____ cm H2O

A

-5

143
Q

if a student inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the air out until he cannot exhale any more, the amount of air that he expelled in his

A

vital capacity

144
Q

the most important chemical regulator of respiration is

A

carbon dioxide

145
Q

the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately ______ mm Hg

A

100

146
Q

the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the cells of peripheral tissues is approximately ____ mm Hg

A

46

147
Q

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is

A

bound to hemoglobin

148
Q

most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as

A

part of the bicarbonate system

149
Q

hypocapnia will lead to which of the following conditions

A

hypoventilation due to alkalosis

150
Q

which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers

A

VRG

151
Q

normally, the systemic arterial blood has a PO2 of ______ mm Hg, a PCO2 of ______ mm Hg and a pH of _____

A

95; 40; 7.4

PO2 of 95 mmHg
PCO2 of 40 mmHg
pH of 7.4

152
Q

in the air we breathe, which gas is found in the highest concentration

A

nitrogen

153
Q

which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air

Choices include increasing:
alveolar surface area,
membrane thickness,
respiratory rate,
Choices include decreasing:
membrane thickness,
nitrogen solubility

A

an increase in membrane thickness

154
Q

in a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influences on resistance to pulmonary airflow

A

bronchiole diameter

155
Q

which of the following cartilages is largest

Choices include:
arytenoid, corniculate,
cricoid, epiglottic,
thyroid

A

thyroid cartliage

156
Q

which is NOT matched correctly:

a. innate immunity - nonspecific responses
b. adaptive immunity - responses directed toward specific invaders
c. active immunity - an immune response started and developed by the cells
d. active adaptive immunity - immunity passed through the placenta or milk to offspring

A

d. active adaptive immunity - immunity passed through the placenta or milk to offspring

157
Q

the largest lymphoid organ is the _____

A

spleen

158
Q

______ are clusters of lymphatic nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the small intestine

A

peyer’s patches

159
Q

which are NOT antigen presenting cells (APCs):

a. lymphocytes
b. dendritic cells
c. macrophages
d. neutrophils

A

neutrophils

160
Q

which is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity:

a. cell-mediated immunity
b. nonspecific immunity
c. humoral immunity
d. acquired immunity

A

nonspecific immunity

161
Q

a substance that induces fever is known as a

A

pyrogen

162
Q

the cells responsible for the production of circulating antibodies are

A

plasma cells

163
Q

the cells responsible for cell mediated immunity are the

A

t lymphocytes

164
Q

which acts as first line of defense against pathogens

A

skin

165
Q

an inflammatory response is trigged when

A

mast cells release granules containing histamine

166
Q

lymphocytes that attack body cells infected with viruses are

A

cytotoxic t cells

167
Q

cells that help to influence other immune cells, coordinating both cellular and humoral immunity, are

A

helper T cells

168
Q

________ is the immunoglobulin class that make up approx. 80% of antibodies in adult blood

A

IgG

169
Q

Immunoglobulins in early responses to pathogens are

A

IgM

170
Q

the specificity of an antibody against an antigenic epitope is determined by the

A

variable region

171
Q

when an antigen fragment is bound to a MHC class I molecule to form a MHC I antigen complex, it can stimulate a

A

cytotoxic t cell

172
Q

a patient has increased neutrophils and macrophages with normal levels of basophils, eosinophils and lymphocytes. Which is the most likely cause of these test results?

A

a chronic bacterial infection

173
Q

HIV-1 causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects and kills

A

helper T cells

174
Q

(BLUE)

Name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) superior mesenteric artery
c) inferior mesenteric vein
d) splenic artery
e) splenic vein
f) superior mesenteric vein

A

c) inferior mesenteric vein

175
Q

Using the figure shown, match the following with a letter - Blood type O

A

D

176
Q

(RED)

Name the vessel marked eith a question mark

a) popliteal vein
b) popliteal artery
c) anterior tibial artery
d) external iliac vein
e) femoral vein
f) femoral artery

A

b) popliteal artery

177
Q

Using the figure match the following with a letter: poingt that represents the “dupp” sound made

A

E

178
Q

Using the figure shown match the following with a letter: Pectinate muscles

A

B

179
Q

The capillary type shown in the photo is:

a) continuous
b) fenestrated
c) sinusoid
d) discontinuous

A

b) fenestrated

180
Q

Using the figure match up the following with a letter: Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

B

181
Q

(RED)

Name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) Renal artery
c) superior mesenteric vein
d) superior mesenteric artery
e) gonadal artery
f) renal vein

A

a) inferior mesenteric artery

182
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) axillary artery
b) axillary vein
c) subscapular vein
d) brachial artery
e) brachial vein
f) subscapular artery

A

d) brachial artery

183
Q

(BLUE)

name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) femoral vein
b) external iliac artery
c) great saphenous vein
d) femoral artery
e) external iliac vein
f) great saphenous artery

A

c) great saphenous vein

184
Q

What is the specific name of the cell labelled E in the photo?

a) monocyte
b) neutrophil
c) basophil
d) red blood cell
e) Eosinophil
f) Lymphocyte

A

f) lymphocyte

185
Q

Using the figure match the following with a letter: Right AV Valve

A

C

186
Q

What is the specific name of the cell labelled B in the photo?

a) basophil
b) red blood cell
c) neutrophil
d) leukocyte
e) eosinophil
f) monocyte

A

e) eosinophil

187
Q

using th efigure match the following with a letter: Left Ventricle

A

K

188
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) popliteal vein
b) external iliac artery
c) internal iliac artery
d) popliteal artery
e) superior gluteal artery
f) internal iliac vein

A

b) external iliac artery

189
Q

Using the picture math the following with a letter: atrioventricular (AV) bundle

A

C

190
Q

Using the figure, match the following with a letter: universal donor

A

D

191
Q

using the figure match the following with a letter: Tendinous chords (chordae tendinae)

A

D

192
Q

What is the specific name of the cell labelled G?

a) platelet
b) neutrophil
c) eosinophil
d) monocyte
e) leukocyte

f ) basophil

A

b) neutrophil

193
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo

a) vertebral artery
b) external corotid vein
c) internal carotid artery
d) external carotid artery
e) common carotid artery
f) vertebral vein

A

c) internal carotid artery

194
Q

using the figure match the following with a letter: papillary muscle

A

L

195
Q

Using the picture match the following with a letter: blood type A

A

B

196
Q

what is the specific name of the cell labelled I in the photo?

a) basophil
b) neutrophil
c) eosinophil
d) leukocyte
e) red blood cell
f) monocyte

A

a) basophil

197
Q

Using the figure match the following with a letter: purkinje fibers

A

E

198
Q

Using the figure match the following with a letter: Atrial depolarization

A

A

199
Q

using the figure match the following with a letter: aortic valve

A

I

200
Q

(BLUE)

name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo

a) brachiocephalic vein
b) external jugular vein
c) internal jugular artery
d) subclavian vein
e) subclavian artery
f) brachiocephalic artery

A

a) brachiocephalic vein

201
Q

(BLUE)

name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo

a) femoral vein
b) great saphernous artery
c) great saphernous vein
d) femoral artery
e) popliteal artery
f) external iliac artery

A

a) femoral vein

202
Q

(RED)

Name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) celiac trunk
c) middle suprarenal artery
d) inferior phrenic artery
e) gonadal artery
f) superior mesenteric artery

A

b) celiac trunk

203
Q

using the figure match the following with a letter: pulmonary trunk

A

F

204
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo

a) subscapular vein
b) suprascapular artery
c) posterior circumflex humeral artery
d) axillary vein
e) axillary artery
f) ulnar vein

A

e) axillary artery

205
Q

(RED) name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) subclavian vein
b) external carotid vein
c) axillary artery
d) common carotid artery
e) subclavian artery
f) brachiocephalic trunk

A

e) subclavian artery

206
Q

The circulatory route shown in the photo is:

a) portal system
b) complex pathway
c) simplest pathway
d) arteriovenous anastomosis

A

d) arteriovenous anastomosis

207
Q

what is the specific name of the cell labelled F in the photo?

a) neutrophil
b) leukocyte
c) red blood cell
d) eosinophil
e) basophil
f) monocyte

A

a) neutrophil

208
Q

(BLUE)

name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo

a) basilic artery
b) Ulnar vein
c) basilic vein
d) radial vein
e) radial artery
f) ulnar artery

A

c) basilic vein

209
Q

using the figure match the following with a letter:
ventricular repolarization

A

E

210
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) basilic artery
b) ulnar vein
c) ulnar artery
d) radial vein
e) radial artery
f) basilic vein

A

c) ulnar artery

211
Q

using the figure match the following with a letter: pulmonary valve

A

G

212
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo

a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) superior mesenteric artery
c) superior mesenteric vein
d) splenic artery
e) inferior phrenic artery
f) hepatic portal artery

A

b) superior mesenteric artery

213
Q

(RED)

name the vessel marked with a question mark

a) subclavian vein
b) common carotid vein
c) internal carotid vein
d) superior vena cava
e) common carotid artery
f) subclavian artery

A

e) common carotid artery

214
Q

use the figure to match the following with a letter: Peritubular capillaries

A

C

215
Q

Using the photo below, identify the structure labelled 4

a) renal pelvis
b) renal column
c) major calyx
d) ureter
e) minor calyx

A

e) minor calyx

216
Q

Use the figure to match the following with a letter: Early spermatids

A

E

217
Q

in the figure below which curve represents progesterone (A,B or C)

A

C

218
Q

use the figure to match the following with a letter: primary spermatocyte

A

C

219
Q

using the figure, match the following with a letter: Bulbo-urethral gland

A

D

220
Q

using the figure, match the following with a letter: ejaculatory duct

A

E

221
Q

using the figure, match the following with a letter: seminal gland

A

F

222
Q

use the figure to match the following with a letter: proximal tubule

A

B

223
Q

use the figure to match the following with a letter: seminiferous tubule

A

D

224
Q

use the figure to match the following with a letter: Vasa Recta

A

G

225
Q

Use the figure to match the following with a letter: Vas (ductus deferens)

A

E

AP 2 (6 decks)

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