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Final exam ( new materials) Flashcards

1
Q 
Repeated insulin injection into the same location can result in a side effect that may decrease the amount of insulin the patient actually absorbs from a hardened skin. What is this side effect known as?
Select one:
a. Injection-Site Reactions
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Lipodystrophy
d. Bruising
A

c. Lipodystrophy

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2
Q 
From the insulin products listed below, which one is a rapid-acting or "meal-time" insulin?
Select one:
a. Insulin NPH
b. Insulin regular
c. Insulin lispro
d. Insulin detemir
A

c. Insulin lispro

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3
Q

How does insulin lower blood sugar?
Select one:
a. Causes the pancreas to release more insulin
b. Inhibits reabsorption of sugar by the kidneys
c. Stimulates sugar uptake into cells
d. Slows gastric emptying, decreasing sugar absorption

A

c. Stimulates sugar uptake into cells

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4
Q 
Insulin products have different pharmacokinetic profiles, affecting how quickly and how long they produce effect in the body. From the list below, which insulin product is a short-acting insulin?
Select one:
a. Insulin regular
b. Insulin aspart
c. Insulin glargine
d. Insulin NPH
A

a. Insulin regular

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5
Q

Insulin can cause significant hypoglycemia.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

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6
Q

Lantus® is the brand name for which insulin product? Select one:

a. Insulin detemir
b. Insulin lispro
c. Insulin degludec
d. Insulin glargine

A

d. Insulin glargine

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7
Q 
Insulin NPH is available under which branded medication name?
Select one:
a. Humalog®
b. Humulin® U-500
c. Humulin N®
d. Humulin R®
A

c. Humulin N®

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8
Q 
Insulin interacts with medications that affect a patient's blood sugar as they will need to adjust their insulin dose to ensure effective blood sugar control or to prevent hypoglycemia. Which of the following medications interacts with insulin through modifying the patient's blood sugar?
Select one:
a. Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor
b. ACE-I
c. Beta Blocker
d. Corticosteroid
A

d. Corticosteroid

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9
Q

Insulin Pens can be shared among patients as long as a different pen needle is used because you are not puncturing the insulin vial within the pen with the needle.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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10
Q

Jamie is a Type 1 Diabetic who calls into the pharmacy with a question. She put her insulin at the top of the fridge, and it accidentally froze. She left it thaw and said it still looks normal comparing it to an insulin vial stored on a lower shelf that did not freeze.
You can tell Jamie that she can use the insulin since it still appears normal and is not cloudy.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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11
Q

Paul is a Type 2 Diabetic on a fixed income. He said his insulin lasts him 35 days (he uses insulin aspart with a stablility of 28 days once opened). He knows you told him his insulin is only good for 28 days once opened, but he stores it in the fridge and thinks it should be good if in the fridge until the manufacturer expiration date of 12/31/2016.
Paul can continue to use this product until 12/31/2016.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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12
Q

Victoza® can be used in Type 1 Diabetic Patients.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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13
Q 
What oral diabetes medication is contraindicated in elderly patients (>80 years of age)?
Select one:
a. Amaryl®
b. Actos®
c. Victoza®
d. Glucophage®
A

d. Glucophage®

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14
Q

Januvia® is available in multiple dosage strengths so that the medication can be titrated to minimize side effects
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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15
Q 
What is the branded medication name for canagliflozin?
Select one:
a. Jantoven®
b. Actos®
c. Invokana®
d. Glucotrol®
A

c. Invokana®

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16
Q 
What oral diabetes medication should be stopped 48 hours before contrast media due to risk of kideny injury?
Select one:
a. Glucophage®
b. Glucotrol®
c. Invokana®
d. Lantus®
A

a. Glucophage®

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17
Q 
What class of diabetes medications should patients be counseled to take 15-30 minutes before eating to minimize risk of hypoglycemia?
Select one:
a. SGLT-2 Inhibitors
b. Sulfonylureas
c. Biguanides
d. Thiazolidinediones
A

b. Sulfonylureas

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18
Q 
Januvia® contains a warning for:
Select one:
a. Severe hypoglycemia
b. Edema
c. Pancreatitis
d. Bladder Cancer
A

c. Pancreatitis

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19
Q

Metformin is FDA-approved as an adjunctive therapy in Type 1 Diabetes
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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20
Q 
Actos® is the brand name for:
Select one:
a. Sitagliptin
b. Pioglitazone
c. Canagliflozin
d. Liraglutide
A

b. Pioglitazone

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21
Q 
This oral diabetes medication causes release of insulin from the pancreas:
Select one:
a. Micronase®
b. Invokana®
c. Januvia®
d. Glucophage®
A

a. Micronase®

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22
Q 
Patients taking which class of diabetes medications should be counseled that there will be an increased prevalence of yeast infections?
Select one:
a. SGLT-2 Inhibitors
b. DPP-IV Inhibitors
c. Biguanides
d. Sulfonylureas
A

a. SGLT-2 Inhibitors

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23
Q

Loratadine is able to cross the blood-brain-barrier to cause side effects.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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24
Q

Zyrtec® is a …..
Select one:
a. Sedating antihistamine
b. Nonsedating antihistamine

A

b. Nonsedating antihistamine

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25
Q

Allegra® is a….
Select one:
a. Second Generation Antihistamine
b. First Generation Antihistamine

A

a. Second Generation Antihistamine

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26
Q 
What second generation antihistamine is MOST likely to cause sedation?
Select one:
a. Cetirizine
b. Loratadine
c. Fexofenadine
A

a. Cetirizine

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27
Q

All second generation antihistamines are available as over-the-counter (OTC) medications
Select one:
True
False

A

True

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28
Q 
What second generation antihistamine should be avoided by 4 hours with fruit juices (i.e. apple, orange, grapefruit)?
Select one:
a. Loratadine
b. Cetirizine
c. Fexofenadine
A

c. Fexofenadine

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29
Q 
Which second generation antihistamine interacts with ritonavir?
Select one:
a. Fexofenadine
b. Loratadine
c. Cetirizine
A

c. Cetirizine

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30
Q

Patients using antihistamines for allergies turning a seasonal pollen time (i.e. Ragweed in August) should be counseled to take the medication on an as needed basis.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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31
Q

Sudafed® should not be taken with which of the following medications due to risk of adverse effects?
Select one:
a. Beta Blocker
b. Tricyclic Antidepressants
c. Selective Serotonin Reputake Inhibitor
d. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

A

b. Tricyclic Antidepressants

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32
Q 
Which of the following medications is located behind the counter?
Select one:
a. Guaifenesin
b. Pseudoephedrine 
c. Loratadine
d. Benzonatate
A

b. Pseudoephedrine

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33
Q 
Which of the following medications is a cough suppressant?
Select one:
a. Guaifenesin
b. Dextromethorphan 
c. Pseudoephedrine
d. Fexofenadine
A

b. Dextromethorphan

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34
Q 
Which of the following medications is an expectorant?
Select one:
a. Cetirizine
b. Guaifenesin 
c. Dextromethorphan
d. Benzonatate
A

b. Guaifenesin

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35
Q 
Which of the following represents a common side effect of benzonatate?
Select one:
a. Elevated blood pressure
b. Diarrhea
c. Bleeding
d. Oral numbness
A

d. Oral numbness

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36
Q

Tessalon® can be used in an 8 year old child recovering from bronchitis with a residual cough
Select one:
True
False

A

False

Feedback: Benzonatate cannot be used in children <10 due to risk for toxicity and death with small amounts of medication.

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37
Q 
What cough and cold product is frequently referred to as "purple drank" and has significant risk of respiratory depression when abused?
Select one:
a. Benzonatate
b. Montelukast
c. Pseudoephedrine
d. Dextromethorphan
A

d. Dextromethorphan

38
Q

It is appropriate to use Robitussin® for a productive cough throughout the day
Select one:
True
False

A

False

39
Q 
Which of the following side effects would be most likely to occur when a patient is appropriately using their Nasonex®?
Select one:
a. Nose bleeds
b. Weight gain
c. Elevated blood sugar
d. Thrush
A

a. Nose bleeds

40
Q 
What is the branded medication name for fluticasone intranasal corticosteroid?
Select one:
a. Flovent®
b. Flonase®
c. Nasonex®
d. Advair®
A

b. Flonase®

41
Q

Which of the following represents an accurate patient counseling point for INCS products?
Select one:
a. Insert the application as far as it will go into the nose for administration
b. Insert the application and aim towards the center of the nose for administration
c. This product can be shared with family members who live in the same household
d. Blow your nose gently to clear nostrils before use

A

d. Blow your nose gently to clear nostrils before use

42
Q

Intranasal corticosteroids will start to provide allergy relief within 2-3 hours.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

43
Q

Singulair® is approved for use in COPD
Select one:
True
False

A

False

44
Q 
What medication used to treat allergies can cause neuropsychiatric symptoms?
Select one:
a. Nasonex®
b. Zyrtec®
c. Dulera®
d. Singulair®
A

d. Singulair®

45
Q

Singulair® can be used as a “rescue” medication in asthma attacks
Select one:
True
False

A

False

46
Q 
Which of the following medications represents a Dry Powder Inhaler?
Select one:
a. Flovent® HFA
b. Veramyst®
c. Dulera®
d. Pulmicort® Flexhaler
A

d. Pulmicort® Flexhaler

47
Q 
Which of the following medications represents a controller medication in asthma management?
Select one:
a. Flovent® Diskus
b. ProAir® Respiclick®
c. Combivent® Respimat®
d. Nasonex®
A

a. Flovent® Diskus

48
Q

Inhaled controcorticosteroids produce prolonged bronchodilation to improve patient’s asthma symptoms
Select one:
True
False

A

False

49
Q 
Which of the following DOES NOT represent a side effect of beclomethasone?
Select one:
a. Coughing
b. Thrush
c. Tremor
d. Throat Irritation
A

c. Tremor

50
Q 
Which of the following medications would require a patient to "swish and spit" after use?
Select one:
a. Atrovent®
b. Spiriva®
c. QVAR®
d. ProAir®
A

c. QVAR®

51
Q 
Which of the following medications represents a LABA/ICS combination inhaler?
Select one:
a. Pulmicort®
b. ProAir®
c. Dulera®
d. Flonase®
A

c. Dulera®

52
Q 
Which of the following inhalers is indicated for bronchospasm in asthma (an asthma attack)?
Select one:
a. Flovent®
b. Xopenex®
c. Atrovent®
d. Spiriva®
A

b. Xopenex®

53
Q 
What class of medications used in asthma management has a risk of increase in asthma-related death?
Select one:
a. Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonists
b. Long-acting Beta-2 Agonists
c. Long-Acting Antimuscarinic
d. Inhaled Corticosteroids
A

b. Long-acting Beta-2 Agonists

54
Q 
Which of the following medications would interact with use of the Advair® inhaler?
Select one:
a. Warfarin
b. Oxybutynin
c. Furosemide
d. Carvedilol
A

d. Carvedilol

55
Q 
What active ingredient listed below requires the "swish and spit" technique after use to prevent side effects?
Select one:
a. Tiotropium
b. Levalbuterol
c. Salmeterol
d. Mometasone
A

d. Mometasone

56
Q 
Which of the following rescue inhalers is a DPI (Dry Powder Inhaler)?
Select one:
a. ProAir® HFA
b. Combivent® Respimat®
c. ProAir® Resplick®
d. Xopenex®
A

c. ProAir® Resplick®

57
Q

Which beta-2 agonist is theorized to have less side effects and better bronchodilation activity?
Select one:
a. Albuterol
b. Levalbuterol

A

b. Levalbuterol

58
Q 
How far in advance of exercise should a beta-2 agonist be administered?
Select one:
a. 60 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
A

c. 15 minutes

59
Q 
Which of the following medications is available as an inhaler that creates a mist for inhalation?
Select one:
a. Tiotropium bromide
b. Fluticasone
c. Albuterol
d. Ipratropium bromide
A

a. Tiotropium bromide

60
Q

Atrovent® is indicated for use in asthma and is a first-line therapy
Select one:
True
False

A

False

61
Q 
Which of the following medications would interact when a patient is also using the Combivent® Respimat® inhaler?
Select one:
a. Furosemide
b. Loratadine
c. Donepezil
d. Pseudoephedrine
A

c. Donepezil

62
Q 
Which of the following medications interacts with the Spiriva® Handihaler®?
Select one:
a. Solifenacin
b. Carvedilol
c. Fexofenadine
d. Lisinopril
A

a. Solifenacin

63
Q 
What Spiriva® inhaler is indicated for use in asthma management?
Select one:
a. Spiriva® Respimat® 2.5 mcg
b. Spiriva® Respimat® 1.25 mcg
c. Spiriva® Handihaler®
A

b. Spiriva® Respimat® 1.25 mcg

64
Q 
Which phosphodiesterase inhibitor (PDE-I) can be used for BPH as well?
Select one:
a. Adcirca®
b. Vytorin®
c. Viagra®
d. Cialis®
A

d. Cialis®

65
Q

Elderly male patients taking Viagra® should also be given nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for prevention of adverse cardiovascular events
Select one:
True
False

A

False

66
Q 
What is the brand medication name for the dose of finasteride indicated in male pattern baldness?
Select one:
a. Proscar®
b. Avodart®
c. Propecia®
d. Adcirca®
A

c. Propecia®

67
Q 
What is the brand name of tadalafil that is indicated for use in Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)?
Select one:
a. Cialis®
b. Hytrin®
c. Adcirca®
d. Revatio®
A

c. Adcirca®

68
Q 
What would be a potential side effect associated with sildenafil use?
Select one:
a. Headache
b. Urine discoloration
c. Elevated blood pressure
d. Vomiting
A

a. Headache

69
Q 
What medication listed below can be taken once daily for "full day coverage" in men who experience erectile dysfunction?
Select one:
a. Tamsulosin
b. Terazosin
c. Tadalafil
d. Sildenafil
A

c. Tadalafil

70
Q

Lidoderm® patches can be cut to fit the area of pain
Select one:
True
False

A

True

71
Q 
Lidoderm® patches should be worn for a maximum of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hours at a time
Select one:
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 7 days
A

b. 12 hours

72
Q

More than one Lidoderm® patch can be applied at a time
Select one:
True
False

A

True

73
Q 
Lidoderm® patches can cause which of the following side effects?
Select one:
a. Skin burns from MRI
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypotension
d. Skin atrophy
A

a. Skin burns from MRI

74
Q 
Which medication used in BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) works by decreasing the size of the prostate?
Select one:
a. Avodart®
b. Flomax®
c. Hytrin®
d. Cialis®
A

a. Avodart®

75
Q

What class of medications should not be handled by pregnant female pharmacists due to risk of birth defects?
Select one:
a. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)
b. Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors (PDE-I)
c. Alpha-1 Adrenergic Antagonist
d. 5-alpha Reductase Inhibitor

A

d. 5-alpha Reductase Inhibitor

76
Q 
Finasteride would cause which of the following side effects?
Select one:
a. Headache
b. Priapism
c. Abnormal ejaculation
d. Gynecomastia
A

d. Gynecomastia

77
Q

How do alpha adrenergic antagonists reduce symptoms of BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)?
Select one:
a. Decrease production of testosterone
b. Decrease resistance to urine flow
c. Decrease prostate size
d. Decrease production of DHT (dihyrotestosterone)

A

b. Decrease resistance to urine flow

78
Q 
Which alpha adrenergic antagonist can also be used in high blood pressure management in addition to BPH?
Select one:
a. Terazosin
b. Clonidine
c. Tamsulosin
d. Finasteride
A

a. Terazosin

79
Q

Flomax® should be administered with food to improve absorption
Select one:
True
False

A

False

80
Q

Miralax® is indicated for the treatment of heartburn
Select one:
True
False

A

False

81
Q 
Aciphex® is the branded medication name for...
Select one:
a. famotidine
b. ranitidine
c. rabeprazole 
d. pantoprazole
A

c. rabeprazole

82
Q 
Which of the following PPIs is available as an OTC (over-the-counter) medication?
Select one:
a. famotidine
b. pantoprazole
c. esomeprazole 
d. cimetidine
A

c. esomeprazole

83
Q 
What is the branded medication name for docusate?
Select one:
a. Miralax®
b. Sennokot®
c. Colace® 
d. GoLytely®
A

c. Colace®

84
Q

Omeprazole decreases acid production in the stomach by blocking the histamine receptor
Select one:
True
False

A

False

85
Q 
Which heartburn medication increases the risk of bacterial infections (i.e. Clostridium difficile)?
Select one:
a. famotidine
b. polyethylene glycol
c. sennosides
d. lansoprazole
A

d. lansoprazole

86
Q 
Which of the following medications may inhibit the activation of clopidogrel, decreasing its cardioprotective benefits?
Select one:
a. warfarin
b. ranitidine
c. docusate
d. omeprazole
A

d. omeprazole

87
Q 
Which of the following medications may see decreased absorption when taken with famotidine?
Select one:
a. Amoxicillin
b. Rivaroxaban
c. Iron 
d. Topiramate
A

c. Iron

88
Q 
Which of the following medications should be cautiously used in elderly patients due to risk for confusion?
Select one:
a. docusate
b. lansoprazole
c. ranitidine 
d. polyethylene glycol
A

c. ranitidine

89
Q

Polyethylene glycol is an osmotic laxative
Select one:
True
False

A

True

90
Q 
Which of the following laxatives is indicated for use in a stool softener and would be the ideal laxative for use in a patient post-partum (after childbirth)?
Select one:
a. docusate 
b. sennosides
c. famotidine
d. polyethylene glycol
A

a. docusate

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