Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

clinpath > final exam lectures > Flashcards

final exam lectures Flashcards

1
Q

most proteins are synthesized where

A

the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which contains the proteins:

plasma or serum

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

total protein = ___ + ____

A

ALB + GLOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 2 major roles of albumin

A

1) Transport protein

2) Colloidal osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which globulins are synthesized by lymphoid

tissue for immunity

A

γ globulins (IgG, IgM, IgA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which globulins are synthesized by the liver for the functions below

  • Inflammation
  • Coagulation
  • Transport proteins
A

α1, α2, β globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what type of globulin is fibrinogen

A

beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what species do you use fibrinogen as a marker of inflammation

A

Horses, ruminants, camelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the two functions of fibrinogen

A
  1. Coagulation

2. Increase during inflammation (positive acute phase protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is fibrinogen synthesized

A

the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

proteins that increase during an inflammatory response

A

POSITIVE acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

proteins that decrease during an inflammatory response

A

NEGATIVE acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which type of acute phase proteins are albumin and globulin

A

alb - negative

glob - positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what unit are measured proteins in

A

g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are your two options for protein measurement

A
  1. Refractometer (light refraction)

2. Chemistry analyzer (chemical rxn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When the TP is reported as a PCV/TP
and/or when it is reported on a CBC,
it is measured by a ____________

A

REFRACTOMETER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what interferes with the refractometer measurements

A

Cholesterol, hemoglobin, urea, glucose,
lipemia

CHUGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

movement of particles on electrophorese depends on what factors

A

**Net charge
**Size and shape of the protein
Strength of the electrical field
Type of supporting medium
Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which migrates further on electrophoresis alb or glob

A

ALB - smaller and more negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Proportional increase in ALB and

GLOB =

A

DEHYDRATION !!

Panhyperproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the two differentials for Panhypoproteinemia

A
  1. blood loss

2. protein losing enteropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

causes of hypoalbuminemia from decreased production

A
  1. inflammation !! (neg acute phase protein!)

2. liver failure or PSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

abnormal causes of hypoalbuminemia

A
  1. blood loss/hemorrhage if low GLOB too
  2. intestinal loss (PLE) if low GLOB too
  3. urinary loss (PLN)
  4. third space dilution (vasculitis or effusion)
  5. skin dz / burns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

if hypoalbuminemia is from hepatic insufficiency, what else will be seen

A

low glucose
low cholesterol
low urea
(high glob)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A

1) Proteinuria
2) Hypoalbuminemia
3) Hypercoagulable
4) Hypercholesterolemia
5) Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what other chem analytes will be low with protein losing enteropathy besides ALB

A

↓ Globulin
↓ Cholesterol
+/- ↓ Mg2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hyperalbuminemia

A

DEHYDRATION – regardless of the globs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hypoglobulinemia from decreased production

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

inflammations from things such as K9 ehrlichiosis and Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) will do what to the globulins

A

increase - hyperglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

neoplasias such as Plasma cell tumors / multiple myeloma and B-cell Lymphomas all will do what to the globs

A

increase - hyperglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hyperglob… Polyclonal gammopathy =

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

hyperglob.. Monoclonal gammopathy

A

neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hypofibrinogenemia differentials

A 
Liver failure (decreased production)
DIC (consumption)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pure transudate body cavity fluid due to

A

hypoalbuminemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

modified transudate body cavity fluid due to

A

Form due to impaired blood or lymph flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

exudative body cavity fluid due to

A

inflammation – increased vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F

transudates will have >3 g/dl protein

A

FALSE – this is exudates

transudates are <3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F

exudates will have >6,000 NCC

A

TRUE

transudates will have <6000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

test if you suspect chylous effusion

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

test if you suspect uroabdomen

A

CREA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

stain you wouldnt want to you on mast cell tumors

A

diff quick – wont stain the granules (use a wright stain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

criteria of malignancy

A

Variable nuclear size (anisokaryosis)
Large multiple nucleoli
Abnormal mitoses
Nuclear molding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

High protein, relatively low cell concentration in a cat

A

FIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F

use formalin with cytology

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

> 50% lymphoblasts!

A

lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Mixed bacteria in an abdominal aspirate

A

GI rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bile pigment in cytology

A

Gut tap, rupture bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

round cell tumors

A 
Lymphoma (lymphosarcoma)
Plasma cell tumors
Histiocytomas
Transmissable venereal tumors
Malignant histiocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

concentration solute per kilogram of SOLVENT (mOsm/kg)

A

osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F

osmolality measures all of the osmoles in the plasma

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

the ability of a solution to initiate water movement

A

effective osmole / tonicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

distributed equal through the total body water (TBW) … no H2O movement

A

permeant solute

–BUN

53
Q

does NOT readily distribute across cell membranes … causes H2O movement

A

impermeant solute – effective osmole

Na, Glu, mannitol

54
Q

diuresis occurs when…

A

occurs when urine flow that is greater than normal.

55
Q

occurs when there is increased urine flow caused by excessive amounts of impermeant solutes within the renal tubules.

A

osmotic diuresis

**Urine osmolality approaches plasma osmolality
Example: diabetes mellitus (glucosuria)

56
Q

occurs when there is increased urine flow caused by decreased reabsorption of free water

A

water diuresis

**Urine osmolality may drop below plasma osmolality
Example: diabetes insipidus

57
Q

the ratio of weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of distilled water

A

specific gravity

58
Q

Extracellular Fluid Volume (ECF) is determined by ___ content

A

Na

59
Q

high plasma osmolality leads to:

A

increased thirst and renal water reabsorption
ADH RELEASED

Hyperosmolality —> cells shrink —> stimulates ADH release

60
Q

low plasma osmolality leads to

A

increaed renal water excretion

Hypoosmolality —> cells swell —> inhibits ADH release

61
Q

main regulator of Na

A

Aldosterone

62
Q

what are the two functions of aldosterone

A

conserve Na

secrete K

63
Q

dehydration type

water loss > Na loss

A

Hypertonic dehydration

64
Q

dehydration type

water loss = Na loss

A

Isotonic dehydration

65
Q

dehydration type

water loss < Na loss

A

hypotonic

66
Q

hypertonic dehydration differentials (high plasma Na)

A 
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Osmotic diuresis
Osmotic diarrhea
Water Deprivation
67
Q

isotonic dehydration differentials

A

Renal disease

Diarrhea

68
Q

hypotonic dehydration differentials

A 
Secretory diarrhea
Vomiting
3rd space loss
Heat stress &amp; sweating in horses:
Often Cl- losses are greater than Na+ losses
69
Q

Hyperosmolality with Fluid Shifts can lead to what problems

A

Leads to cellular dehydration
Cerebral bleeding, subarachnoid hemorrhage,
permanent neurologic damage, death

70
Q

Hypo-osmolality with Fluid Shifts can lead to what problems

A

Leads to cellular swelling

Cerebral Edema & Cell Lysis

71
Q

osmole gap > 30

A

ethylene glycol!! – toxins

72
Q

Normal osmole gap with increased osmolality

A

There is an increase in an osmole reported on the chemistry:

Na, GLU, or BUN.

73
Q

Normal osmole gap with decreased osmolality.

A

hyponatremia

74
Q

T/F

hyperglycemia can cause hyponatremia

A

TRUE

75
Q

The most common cause of hyponatremia

A

HYPOVOLEMIA:

GIT: vomiting, diarrhea, saliva

Renal loss:Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s): ↓ aldosterone
Ketonuria, glucosuria
Prolonged diuresis

Cutaneous: sweating, burns

76
Q

hypernatremia is normally due to

A

dehydration

–inadequate water supply

77
Q

A diabetic patient is markedly hyperglycemic.

What do you expect the sodium concentration to be?

A

Decreased (Hyponatremia)

78
Q

A diabetic patient is markedly hyperglycemic.

What is the mechanism that drives the change in Na+?

A

Water shifts from the ICF to the ECF

79
Q

Controlled by electrochemical gradients AND

Corresponds to the active transport of sodium

A

Chloride

80
Q

what can interfere with chloride transport

A

Furosemide

GI enterotoxins

81
Q

chloride normally parallels what

A

Na

82
Q

most common cause of selective chloride loss

A

hypochloremic metabolic

alkalosis

83
Q

causes hypochloremia in monogastrics

A

severe vomiting

84
Q

causes hypochloremia in ruminants

A

abomasal disorders

or high GI obstructions

85
Q

what is the urine ph during selective chloride loss

A

paradoxical aciduria

86
Q

What acid-base abnormality accompanies selective chloride loss

A

metabolic alkalosis

87
Q

renal excretion of K+ is regulated by..

A

aldosterone

88
Q

most common cause of hyperkalemia

A

Failure of renal Excretion:
-Oliguria/ Anuria
-Urethral obstruction
-Ruptured urinary bladder
-Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s): ↓ aldosterone
-Drugs that decrease K+ excretion
“Potassium Sparing Diuretics” (i.e., Spirnolactone)

89
Q

cause of pseudohyperkalemia

A

generally in vitro not in vivo

EDTA contamination

90
Q

clinical signs of hypokalemia

A

If [K+] < 2.5 mmol/L

Weakness
Neurologic signs
EKG abnormalities: Flattened T-waves

91
Q

venous or arterial blood to do acid base analysis

A

venous

92
Q

tube used for acid base analysis

A

heparin

on ice if >5 min

93
Q

T/F

TCO2 is bicarb

A

TRUE

94
Q

2 mechanisms of metabolic acidosis

A
  1. Increase in unmeasured anions = High Anion Gap (KLUE)

2. Loss of HCO3 via GI or Kidney = Loss of HCO3

95
Q

2 mechanisms of metabolic alkalosis

A
  1. Loss of H+ from upper GI tract = Selective chloride loss

2. Loss of H+ from the kidney = Loss of H+

96
Q

Site of T3 and T4 synthesis

A

colloid - follicle lumen

97
Q

T/F

T4 is more potent than T3

A

FALSE

98
Q

T4 is 100% synthesized by…

A

thyroid

99
Q

gold standard test to measure total T4

A

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

100
Q

mainly the only thyroid function test used in cats

A

Total T4

101
Q

T/F

snap ELISA is not reliable for hyperthyroidism

A

FALSE – not reliable for hypo

102
Q

how does RIA work to measure total T4

A

Radioactivity is inversely proportional to [T4]

more radioactivity = less T4

103
Q

what does the free thyroxe FT4 test measure

A

unbound circulating T4

104
Q

gold standard test for free T4

A

Equilibrium Dialysis (ED)

105
Q

parathyroid hormone is synthesized and secreted by

A

chief cells

106
Q

a normal parathyroid patient with a hypercalcemia should have what levels of PTH

A

decreased

107
Q

Acts on collecting ducts;

maximizes water reabsorption

A

ADH . Vasopressin

108
Q

primary differential diagnosis for diabetes insipidus

A

psychogenic polydipsia

109
Q

central diabetes inspidus

A

Deficiency of ADH

110
Q

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

No response to ADH

111
Q

An ADH response test is performed on a patient
being worked up for diabetes insipidus. After being
given ADH, the patient concentrates its urine.

A

central DI

112
Q

Results from persistent CORTISOL secretion

A

canine hyperadrenocorticism

113
Q

Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism

A

pituitary adenoma is 85% of the cases
there is HIGH ACTH to adrenals to make more and more cortisol but the pituitary does not respond to the negative feedback

bilateral adrenal hypertrophy

114
Q

Adrenocortical tumor

A

the adrenal tumor produces constant cortisol so there is constant negative feedback on the pituitary and the other adrenal gland atrophies

115
Q

Canine Hyperadrenocorticism:

Iatrogenic

A

Glucocorticoid administration
Constant negative feedback
Small amounts of ACTH produced
2 atrophied glands

116
Q

pot bellied, pu/pd, panting, and calcinosis cutis on a dog over 6 years old

A

cushings – hyperadrenocorticism

117
Q 
Canine Hyperadrenocorticism (HAC):
Laboratory Abnormalities
A 
stress leukogram -- because of the cortisol 
↑ ALP
↑ ALT
↑ Cholesterol (90%)
low urine specific gravity
118
Q

why is it important to differentiate

pituitary-dependent from primary adrenal tumor.

A

PDH can be medically managed

AT needs surgery

119
Q

ALP screening test for canine hypoadrenocorticism

A

dog with normal ALP is unlikely to have HAC

120
Q

Urine Cortisol Creatinine Ratio (UCCR)

A

urine collected at home

there will be more cortisol accumulation in dogs with HAC

121
Q

Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (LDDST)

A

in a healthy dog, when given dex the serum cortisol should drop… if not suppressed = HAC

122
Q

LDDST.. cortisol was not suppressed at 8 hours, but was suppressed at 4 hours

A

PDH

123
Q

Only test that will identify iatrogenic HAC

A

ACTH stimulation test — CORTISOL WILL FLAT LINE

124
Q

T/F

puppies can get addisons

A

TRUE

125
Q

pathogenesis of primary hypoadrenocorticism

A

Immune-mediated destruction of adrenal cortices

126
Q

there is a lack of ____ and ____ in hypoadrenocorticism

A

aldosterone and cortisol

lack of aldosterone – hyponatremia and hypovolemia

127
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism:

Common Laboratory Findings

A 
non regenerative anemia 
NO STRESS LEUKOGRAM 
Pre-renal azotemia (90%)
Increased [BUN]
----1) Dehydration
----2) Gastrointestinal hemorrhage
128
Q

glucose in addisons dogs

A

HYPOGLYCEMIC

clinpath (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions