Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

clinpath > exam 2 > Flashcards

exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

urine specific gravity of 1.008-1.012

A

isosthenuric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

dilute urine, USG < 1.007 (active process)

A

hyposthenuric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

markedly decreased urine production

A

oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

no urine produced

A

anuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

straining to urinate

A

stranguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

increased frequency of urination

A

Pollakiuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

increased urea nitrogen with/without increased creatinine

A

azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

excessive urea in blood with clinical signs of renal failure

A

uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

two hormones produced by the kidneys

A

EPO

RENIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is urea measured

A

BUN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where is blood urea nitrogen synthesized

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F

high protein diets will give a low BUN

A

FALSE

– urea is made from the amine groups of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F

BUN can indicate the GFR

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what percent of urea is excreted by the kidneys

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what will happen to BUN levels if there is an upper GI bleed

A

they will be higher because urea is made from proteins and blood has proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F

an increased GFR will increase the BUN

A

FALSE

a decreased GFR will increase BUN because the urea has to wait for entry into the kidney and gets backed up into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

patients with a portosystemic shunt will have what type of BUN levels

A

low – because amino acid proteins are not getting delivered to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are examples of intestinal loss of proteins leading to a lower BUN

A
  1. protein losing enteropathies – all protein shit out so you cant make urea
  2. ruminants use urea to make proteins in the microflora so levels are lower
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Muscle cells release ____ into plasma

A

CREA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F

CREA is not resorbed by the kidneys

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F

higher muscle mass = higher crea levels

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

increased blood CREA levels implies …

A

1) A decrease in GFR

2) Possibly altered nephron function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what percent of CREA is excreted by the kidneys

A

100% – great for GFR measuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Kidney’s Ability to Concentrate and Dilute Urine requires what percent of functional nephrons

A

33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F
The higher the urine specific gravity,
the more concentrated the urine

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

urine specific gravity should always be interpreted along with what

A

patients hydration status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

polyuria Implies loss of ___% of functional renal mass

A

66%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F

patients who have polyuria with also have polydipsia and be isosthenuric

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

list 2 renal causes of polyuria

A
  1. renal failure

2. pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

extra renal causes of polyuria

A

diabetes
pyometra
hyperadrenocorticism
diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

azotemia implies ____% loss of renal tubular function

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

↑ BUN, +/- ↑ CREA, ↑ SpGr

A

PRE RENAL azotemia – before the kidneys (blood, liver, gi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

top 2 differential diagnoses for pre renal azotemia

A
  1. DEHYDRATION/shock

2. upper GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when there is a low GFR what happens to phosphorus and magnesium

A

they both increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

type of azotemia

↑ BUN, ↑ CREA, ↓ SpGr

A

renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Defined by the presence of increased nitrogenous

waste products in blood

A

renal azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

renal azotemia differentials…

A

• Infectious Pyelonephritis, Leptospirosis
• Toxins Ethylene glycol, drugs, grapes, Asiatic lilies,
melamine, pigments (myoglobin, hemoglobin)
• Hypoxia Decreased renal perfusion, infarction
• Neoplasia Primary or metastatic
• Congenital Hypoplasia or aplasia
• Misc Hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

type azotemia

↑ BUN, ↑ CREA, variable SpGr

A

post-renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

urine leaks into peritoneal cavity and can be a cause of post renal azotemia

A

uroabdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F

azotemia comes before polyuria

A

FALSE other way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is happening if ca x phos > 70

A

mineralization of soft tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F

hypophosphatemia occurs when the GFR drops

A

false – excretion is impaired – hyperphos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Renal Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypocalcemia stimulates the parathyroid glands to
release parathyroid hormone (PTH)

PTH stimulates an increase of Ca mostly from bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what to look for in Glomerulonephropathy

A

hypoalbuminemia
hypercoagulable
proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

pathogenesis of Glomerulonephropathy

A

Damage to the podocytes

  • Antigen-antibody complex deposition
  • Amyloid deposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Protein-losing nephropathy that leads to

abdominal effusion

A

nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

5 things needed in nephrotic syndrome

A
  1. Proteinuria (glomerular disease)
  2. Hypoalbuminemia (loss of albumin)
  3. Abdominal effusion (loss of oncotic pressure)
  4. Hypercholesterolemia
  5. Hypercoagulable state (loss of antithrombin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

BCS of acute renal failure patients

A

normally good – they just get sick super fast

also abrupt decrease in GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

acute renal failure causes

A

toxicants (i.e. lily toxicity in cats)
renal ischemia
infection (i.e. leptospirosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

typical patient of chronic renal failure

A 
old patients, normally kitties 
get sick slower 
thin/cachexic 
polyuric 
depressed 
cvs: hypertension
hyperkalemia!!!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the common electrolyte imbalance seen with uroabdomen

A

hyperkalemia

hyponatremia / hypochloremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

causes of uroabdomen

A

Trauma: birth (foals), hit-by-car (dogs), etc.

Chronic urethral obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how to diagnose peritoneal effusion

A

the crea in the effusion must be 2x higher than crea in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ideal collection technique for urinalysis culture

A

Cystocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

brown-black urine

A

Methemoglobinuria

from (from HGB or MGB), bile pigments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does the urinalysis dipstick measure

A

Glucose, Bilirubin, Ketones, Heme, pH, Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hyperglycemic glucosuria differentials

A

Diabetes mellitus
Acute pancreatitis
Stress (especially in cats)
Glucose-containing fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Conjugated with glucuronide in the liver

A

bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F

Low-level bilirubinuria with hypersthenuria is considered normal in dogs.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

differentials for bilirubinemia

A

Cholestasis, Hemolysis, Fever, Prolonged fasting (esp. horses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

hematuria differentials

A

Inflammation,
Infection,
Trauma,
Coagulopathy,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

T/F

myoglobinuria = muscle injury

A

TRUE

– clear serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

urinalysis protein that is primarily detected

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

T/F

in hemoglobinuria the patient will also be anemic

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what species are predisposed to Calcium oxalate dihydrate (crystalluria)

A

Miniature Schnauzers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

secreted by pancreatic b cells

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

insulin ____ blood glucose

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

glococorticoids _____ blood glucose

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T/F

catecholamines inhibit insulin action

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

catecholamines ____ blood glucose

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

secreted by pancreatic alpha cells

A

glucagon

72
Q

glucagon ____ blood glucose

A

increases

73
Q

growth hormone ______ blood glucose

A

increases

74
Q

differentials for hypoglycemia

A 
increased insulin levels 
sepsis 
hepatic failure 
long term starvation
ketosis
75
Q

what two things can cause increased insulin levels leading to hypoglycemia

A
  1. insulin overdose

2. b-cell tumors insulinomas

76
Q

how does hepatic failure contribute to hypoglycemia

A

glucose is made in the liver…. hepatic failure = lowered gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

77
Q

causes idiosyncratic hypoglycemia in dogs

A

xylitol

78
Q

BG <60 mg/dl and insulin is high

A

insulinoma

79
Q

most common causes of hyperglycemia

A 
glucocorticoids 
catecholamines 
diabetes mellitus 
post prandial 
pancreatitis 
hormone imbalances 
ethylene glycol toxicosis
80
Q

when blood glucose is > renal threshold

A

glucosuria

81
Q

T/F

glucosuria is most common with diabetes mellitus

A

TRUE

82
Q

this can cause SUPER high glucose levels in ruminants

A

proximal duodenal obstruction

83
Q

major form of DM in dogs

A

type 1

84
Q

major form of DM in cats

A

Type 2

85
Q

type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

Immune-mediated B-cell destruction

No insulin production

86
Q

type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

Decreased insulin production

Tissue insulin resistance

87
Q

Reflects BG during previous 2-3 weeks

A

fructosamine – same life span as albumin

88
Q

increased ALT in middle to old dogs may indicate..

A

chronic hepatitis

hepatocellular damage

89
Q

high ALT in young dog may indicate

A

portocaval shunt

90
Q

which liver enzyme can be corticosteroid induced

A

ALP – if high ask if dog is taking drugs

91
Q

where does AST come from

A

liver and muscle

92
Q

what might a high ALP in a young animal mean

A

that it is just coming from the bone origin / growing

93
Q

what is ALP best at indicating in cats

A

hepatic lipidosis

94
Q

T/F

ALP is steroid induced in dogs and cats

A

FALSE – not cats

95
Q

you see a high ALP but no hyperbilirubinemia???

A

probs steroids

96
Q

better indicator for cholestasis in cats than ALP

A

GGT

97
Q

high ALP and high bilirubin/bile acids

A

CHOLESTASIS

98
Q

T/F

hyperthyroidism may increase ALP in cats

A

TRUE

99
Q

what happens to bilirubin during RBS destruction

A

it increases

100
Q

Made by liver from cholesterol

A

bile acids

101
Q

what cause increases in bile acids

A
  1. deviations of portal circulation such as portosystemic shunts or cirrhosis
  2. decrease in hepatocyte uptake – necrosis, inflammation
  3. Cholestasis, bile duct leakage
102
Q

If young dog and rule out portocaval shunt,

consider __________

A

portal vein hypoplasia

103
Q

cholestasis ______ serum cholesterol

A

INCREASES

104
Q

Liver failure _____ serum cholesterol

A

decreases

105
Q

liver coag factors

A

1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10

will have a prolonged PT/PTT in liver failure

106
Q

T/F

ammonia will be decreased in liver failure

A

FALSE – will be increased

107
Q

what will Glucose, BUN, Albumin, Chol- all be like in liver failure patients

A

decreased

108
Q

T/F

portosystemic shunts will also cause microcytic anemia

A

TRUE

109
Q

T/F

copper can cause chronic hepatitis

A

TRUE

**doberman, westie, labs, dalmatians

110
Q

increases serum Ca by increasing renal tubular reabsorption, increasing resorbtion of bone, and by promoting activation of Vitamin D to it’s active form in the kidney.

A

PTH

111
Q

Produced by C cells of the thyroid gland and Decreases serum Ca concentration by inhibiting PTH

A

calcitonin

112
Q

increases Ca concentration by increasing

absorption of Ca from the intestine

A

activated vitamin D

113
Q

what protein will cause an apparent hypocalcemia when it is low

A

albumin

114
Q

high ionized calcium: acidosis/alkalosis

A

acidosis

115
Q

common causes of hypocalcemia

A
  • Renal Disease
  • Ethylene glycol toxicosis
  • Pancreatitis
  • Eclampsia
  • Sepsis
  • Hypoparathyroidism
  • Nutritional secondary Hyperparathyroidism
116
Q

clinical signs of hypocalcemia

A
  • Nervousness, anorexia, stilted gait
  • Hyperventilation, numbness
  • Generalized tetany, seizures
117
Q

hypercalcemia causes

A 
• Hypercalcemia of malignancy
• Granulomatous inflammatory disease
• Renal disease (rare in small animals, common in
horses)
• Idiopathic hypercalcemia of cats 
• Vitamin D toxicosis
• Grape and raisin toxicosis
• Hypoadrenocorticism
• Primary hyperparathyroidism
118
Q

clinical signs of hypercalcemia

A
  • PU/PD
  • Lethargy, weakness, constipation
  • Mineralization of soft tissue
119
Q

when will mineralization of soft tissue be seen

A

hypercalcemia – when the Ca x Phos > 70

120
Q

PTH and calcitonin both ______ phosphorus

A

decrease

121
Q

increases phosphorus by stimulating absorption from intestine and kidney and inhibiting PTH synthesis

A

vitamin D

122
Q

differentials that cause hypophosphatemia

A

• Primary hyperparathyroidism (renal loss)
• Hypercalcemia of malignancy (PTH-rp inhibits
renal P reabsorption
• Vitamin D deficiency
• Respiratory alkalosis
• Decreased intestinal absorption of P
• Renal tubular defects (ie, Fanconi syndrome)
• Chronic renal failure in horses

123
Q

Hyperphosphatemia causes

A

decreased GRF or renal disease

Ruptured bladder or ureter, or urethral
obstruction will also cause retention of
phosphorus.

Vitamin D intoxication

124
Q

hypercalcemia will cause ____magnesmemia

A

hypo – inhibit mg reabsorption

125
Q

grass tetany in cows

A

hypomagnesemia from pastures with high K

126
Q

way that horses can commonly get hypomagnesemia

A

through their sweat

127
Q

causes of secondary hyperlipidemia

A 
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Hyperadrenocorticism
Pancreatits
Hepatic Disease
Nephrotic Syndrome
128
Q

T/F

Hyperadrenocorticism is often associated with hypercholesterolemia

A

TRUE

129
Q

T/F
Hypercholesterolemia is common finding in dogs and
cats with protein losing glomerulonephropathy

A

TRUE

130
Q

myocardial cell injury markers

A

ALT, CK and troponin

131
Q

cardiac biomarkers should have …

A
  1. Quick turn-around time
  2. High sensitivity and specificity for cardiac injury
  3. Affordable
  4. Screening test for asymptomatic heart disease
  5. Distinguish cardiac vs non-cardiac dyspnea
  6. Identify myocardial injury associated with
132
Q

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency results in

A

inadequate food digestion

133
Q

maldigestion poop

A

Voluminous, poorly formed stool,

flatulence, foul odor

134
Q

malabsorption poop

A

Voluminous, poorly formed gray feces

135
Q

Very sensitive and specific test for EPI

A

TLI

136
Q

both folate and B12 low

A

Generalized malabsorption

137
Q

Folate low , B12 normal

A

Proximal SI defect

138
Q

folate normal, B12 low

A

Distal SI defect

139
Q

high folate and low B12

A

bacterial overgrowth in intestine

140
Q

where are leakage enzymes

A

May be in cytosol, organelles, or both

141
Q

Usually attached to membranes, rarely

increase due to cell injury

A

induced enzymes

142
Q 
WHAT ARE THESE 
ALT
AST
SDH
GLDH
CK
A

leakage enzymes

143
Q

what are the induced enzymes

A

ALP

GGT

144
Q

Free in the cytoplasm of muscle cells and is muscle specific

A

CK – Creatine Kinase

145
Q

T/F

CNS injuries do raise serum CK

A

FALSE – they dont

146
Q

common causes of increased serum CK in small animals

A

IM injections

147
Q

increased CK …

A 
Skeletal muscle injury
– Necrosis, IM injections, trauma,
strenuous exercise
– Commonly increased in “down”
cows/horses
• Cardiac muscle injury
• Muscle break down (super anorexic cats)
148
Q

Ck in anorexic cats

A

Malnourishment can lead to muscle

breakdown

149
Q

T/F

AST is muscle specific

A

FALSE – also in hepatocytes

150
Q

What percent of ALT can increase in SEVERE muscle injury

A

5% — but is normally liver specific

151
Q

Precipitates with ammonium Sulfate

A

hemoglobin

152
Q

Increased red cell concentration

A

polycythemia

153
Q

relative polycythemia

A

hemoconcentration – probably deyhradtion
OR
redistribution via excitement or exercise

154
Q

absolute polycythemia

A

increased EPO

155
Q

appropriate absolute polycythemia

A

hypoxia!!

156
Q

inappropriate absolute polycythemia

A

EPO SECRETIONS

157
Q

when is it common to see calcium oxalate crystals

A

ethylene glycol toxicosis

**hypocalcemia

158
Q

neoplasms of lymphocytes & plasma cells

A

lymphoproliferative disorders

159
Q

neoplasms arising from bone marrow
stem cells and involve neutrophils,
monocytes, erythrocytes, and rarely,
eosinophils and basophils

A

myeloproliferative disorders

160
Q

what is lymphocytosis and what are the differentials

A

INCREASED lymphocytes

  1. excitement
  2. lymphoma/leukemia
  3. ehrlichiosis
  4. hypoadrenocorticism - addisons
161
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) clinical signs

A 
Pale mucous membranes
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Lethargy
Weight loss
162
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) CBC abnormalities

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Lymphocytosis -usually
Lymphoblasts in blood

163
Q

lab findings of multiple myeloma

A

monoclonal gammopathy (IgG or IgA)
Bence Jones proteins in the urine
lytic lesions in the bones
plt function abnormalities due to presence of proteins

164
Q

clinical signs of multiple myeloma

A

Lethargy, anorexia, lameness, bleeding
from the nares, polyuria and polydipsia.

Fundoscopic changes (retinal
hemorrhages and engorged retinal blood
vessels

165
Q

why can hypercalcemia cause a patient to not be able to concentrate their urine

A

it blocks ADH release

166
Q

patient with HIGH ALB is what

A

dehydrated

167
Q

T/F

babies can concentrate urine

A

FALSE – babies suck

168
Q

stress leukogram with with mild to high glucose…

A

glucose might be from the stress which is increased by released catecholamines

169
Q

how can diabetes cause renal disease

A

high glucose so there is glucose in the urine and bacteria like to grow in that

170
Q

common urine crystals

A 
Amorphous
Bilirubin
Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxalate dihydrate
Struvite
171
Q

most common crystal in dogs and cats and can be found in normal circumstances

A

Struvite

172
Q

Bilirubin in highly concentrated urine of dogs is…

A

normal

173
Q

T/F

Calcium oxalate dihydrate is normal in domestic animals

A

true

174
Q

hyperglycemia and renal issue at same time …

A

ethylene glycol toxicosis – will also see calcium oxalates

175
Q

high fasting bile acids indicate

A

liver disease

176
Q

dogs with renal disease will be hyper or hypo calcemic

A

HYPO —- horses will be hyper

177
Q

non regenerative anemia is present in what type of renal failure

A

CHRONIC

clinpath (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions