Final Exam (Exams 1-3 ) Flashcards
on the sarcomere handout, what is the name of structure A:
a. A Band
b. Myosin
c. I-Band
d. Actin
actin
Why are carcasses hung in the hot box? What is the advantage for the end product?
carcasses are hung in the hot box because it speeds up the process of rigor mortis, keeps the carcass stretched out, and results in a tender product.
Smooth muscle contraction is random and does not require a connective tissue structure
false
In muscle, what is the primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
calcium storage and release
What is the purpose of meat inspection
ensure a safe and wholesome product
Due to the fact that the kidney must be able to expand, bend and stretch it is composed primarily of what epithelial type?
transitional epithelial
The hallmark of connective tissues is the existence of a rich, extensive extracellular matrix that contains relatively few active cells
true
What is the alternative name of the nerve cell body
soma
A 420 day old steer enters a feedlot weighing 800 lbs and leaves 120 later weighing 1150 lbs. What is the steers average daily gain (ADG) during the feedlot period and what is his weight per day of age (WDA) entering the feedlot
ADG is 2.92, WDA is 1.90 lbs/day
Describe how smooth muscle contracts and is controlled. Don’t forget to discuss structures involved in the contraction
*got 4/10 on answer
smooth muscle contracts in a single-celled system, where there is cell-to-cell communication through gap junctions. there is one single nerve that runs throughout the whole muscle.
GAP junctions are associated with cardiac muscle cell contraction
true
Which structure enables nerve cells to increase the rate of neural transmission?
schwann cell
Which muscle type is associated with In-voluntary non-striated muscle?
cardiac muscle
What was the name of the soap used in the scalder?
old baldy
In lab, which method was use to render the hog insensible
electrical stunning
What is required for muscle contraction?
calcium
Describe the 5 steps associated with the action potential of a nerve cell.
The first step is the resting state where the action potential is ready and both sodium and potassium channels are closed. the second step is threshold where depolarization occurs and most sodium channels are open. the rising phase is the third step and the falling phase is the fourth step. the falling phase is where potassium channels are mostly open. undershoot is the last step where sodium channels open to balance out the potassium until it goes back into resting state.
Dendrites do not penetrate deep into tissue
false
What type of cellular reproduction do we primarily undertake?
mitosis
Define apoptosis
programmed cell death
Which of the following epithelial cell shapes or arrangements are characterized by a multi-layer structure?
stratified
When the meat inspector evaluated the internal organs of the animal, what was he looking for to allow the product to be sold
organs free of parasites or sign of disease
Which of the following organelles contains DNA?
nucleus
Which type of epithelium improves absorption, increases surface area and aids movement of materials?
ciliated epithelium
Which of the following definitions of growth will be used in this class?
the general and normal expansion of size produced by the accretion of tissues similar in constitutions to that of the original tissue or organ
Select all characteristics of a Eukaryotic cell membrane
consists of a lipid by-layer, contains the cytoplasm, first step in receptor mediated activities
Which of the following organelles are responsible for protein processing?
golgi apparatus
What is the function unit of a muscle fiber?
sarcomere
Describe the steps of muscle contraction and relaxation
*got 8/10 on answer
contraction starts when a neural stimulation causes the transverse tubule to release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the A band. troponin c binds to calcium and moves out of the gap in actin, bringing tropomyosin with it. this gives myosin heads the ability to bind to actin and cause a contraction.
relaxation requires ATP. within the myosin heads lies an ATPase. when ATP binds to the ATPase, it releases the calcium that is binding to troponin c and enables tropomyosin to lie back into the gap within actin. this creates a barrier for the myosin heads to bind to actin in order to contract.
Which connective tissue has many collagen fibers, is extremely tough and resistant to friction and constant pressure?
hyaline cartilage
Which bones are generally points of attachment for muscle?
irregular bones
What are the four primary tissues?
the 4 primary tissues are muscle, neural, bone, and connective.
For muscle to increase in size or length, it must be damaged first?
true
What are the three primary function of adipose connective tissue
*didnt answer this question so taking guess from fat notes
protection, energy storage and insulation
Which type of bones are primarily used for protection?
flat bones
Which muscle type is associated with Involuntary/semi-voluntary non-striated muscle.
smooth muscle
Hypertrophy describes growth via cellular increase in size
true
which of the following statements is NOT true of a Prokaryotic cell?
found in abundance in livestock species tissues
What is the name of the stem cell associated with bone
osteocyte
On the Sarcomere handout, what is the structure identified by F?
I band
When a nerve is in a resting state, which compound must be found in the extracellular fluid?
sodium
Which form of reproduction produces identical twin cells
mitosis
Which muscle type is striated and under voluntary control?
skeletal muscle
Which cellular structure is very closely associated with the nucleus and is responsible for lipid synthesis?
endoplasmic reticulum
Within the bone, what structure is primary responsible for nutrient transmission?
haversian canal
Compare and contrast the Peripheral and Central Nervous systems
*got 6/10 on answer
the central nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. the peripheral nervous system is composed of all the nerves except the brain and spinal cord.
Which part of the neuron forms the synaptic junction?
dendrite
What is required for muscle contraction?
calcium
Which structure of the bone is also know as the Cancellous bone?
spongy bone
What is the name of the structure that creates a physical barrier preventing contraction?
tropomyosin
Generally, are microorganisms constructed from Eukaryotic cells?
no
What is the function of the transverse tubule
placement of calcium along actin-myosin bridges
Which muscle is composed of multi-nucleated single cells coordinating contraction?
striated skeletal
What of the following is NOT a function of epithelium?
hair growth
What temperature must a hog be 24 hrs post harvest?
40°- 42°F
which type of epithelial cells are found in areas of significant frictions such as the skin
stratified epithelium
What is the name of the cell that resorbs bone
osteoclast
On the sarcomere handout, what is the name of the structure under B
myosin
Which nucleic acid is not found in mRNA
thymine
What is the function of long bones?
carry weight
An understanding of growth and development prevents the regulation prevents genetic improvement
false
Define growth as discussed in this class
General and normal expansion of size produced by the accretion of tissue similar in constitution to that of the original tissue or organ
Which bones are used to support tendons passing over bone?
sesamoid bone
Which muscle type is non-striated and involuntarily controlled
cardiac muscle
What is a tissue
a tissue is a group of closely associated cells that work synergistically to perform a specific function.
On the Sarcomere handout, what is the structure identified by C?
Z-disc
From a bone growth perspective, why are females mostly shorter than males and why are castrated males often the tallest?
estrogen is a very strong growth hormone. Once females reach puberty, their ovaries start functioning and producing progesterone. progesterone inhibits bone growth. with castrated males, progesterone is not present due to absence of the testicles, so without the presence of progesterone, their bones continue to grow.
What is the predominant cell type in humans?
Eukaryotes
To ensure rapid transmission of neural signal, the axon must be very short in length
false
What is required first step for collagen to form the cross-link structure necessary to be an active compound?
hydroxylation
Which organelle contains the most ribosomes?
endoplasmic reticulum
In what location does bone grow?
epiphyseal plate
On the Sarcomere handout, what is the structure identified as E?
A-band
Is fat considered a connective tissue?
true
What is the most challenging aspect of getting dairy cattle to produce milk?
In order for dairy cattle to produce milk they need to get pregnant. dairy cattle have a low conception rate (35%) due to being highly metabolically active. this high metabolic rate contributes to having more blood flow in the udder and liver, which leads the liver to metabolizing reproductive hormones more efficiently.
Using the picture of Dunkin, Identify the structure associated with C
rump
Describe the process of creating a 1° muscle fiber
Cells begin to migrate via replication along a path identified by hyaluronic acid. Myf5 and MyoD control this replication. Once cells reach their destination, they replicate until the sufficient cell density is achieved allowing NCAM binding. The bound NCAM’s trigger Myogenin and MyoD activation leading to the formation primary myotubes. Myotube development is completed upon innervation.
Which of the following is not a phase of prenatal development?
post-ovulation phase
Which of the following can replace Myf5?
MyoD
Cleavage is associated with an increase in cell numbers, but a decrease in DNA synthesis
false
What happens to an Oocyte upon fertilization (Oocyte Activation)?
massive cellular division
The Neural Tube forms the spinal chord
true
What is the ideal shoulder angle for a dog, and why?
30°, This allows for maximal movement with minimal interference with the ribcage.
Which stage of the mitotic cycle is the most variable?
G1
Which of the following is not able to trigger a myoblast to leave the G0 Phase?
Hyaluronic acid
Explain the process of 2° fiber development
Myoblasts associated with the primary fiber will respond to environmental queues and begin replication. MyoD and Myf5 regulate this replication. Once a significant concentration of myoblasts is achieved, NCAMs will start binding myoblasts cells together. This will trigger Myogenin and MRF4 activation leading to the formation of secondary myotubes. Secondary myotubes are removed from the primary myotube via contraction of the primary myotube. Secondary fiber development is complete upon innervation.
Which of the following tissue layers of the implanted blastocyst will form animal tissue?
epiblast
What is the shortest and most consistent stage of the cell cycle?
M phase
Which stage of cell division is associated with DNA replication?
S phase
Which type of growth is characterized by dividing an existing cell layer into two separate layers?
delamination
For a cell to continue to synthesis stage, it must be big and made a significant amount of protein.
true
Which is the most efficient dog gait?
trot
Using the picture of Dunkin, Identify the structure associated with letter A
stifle
Which of the following is not a step in prenatal development?
structural phase
Which of the following types of growth are associated with trophoblast in-folding during gastrulation
invagination
What is the name of the tissue that aligns the back of an embryo and forms from the head to tail?
somite
Using the picture of Dunkin, identify the structure associated with B
elbow
In which stage of mitosis do daughter cells form?
cytokinesis
What forms from the Mesoderm?
fat
Which of the following is not a primary germ layer?
scleratome
Every mammal has a similar gestation curve, it only varies by time
true
Which of the following IS NOT a bHLH regulatory factor?
E protein
Which of the following tissues generate the digestive system?
endoderm
Describe the process of somite development and maturation
The mesodermal layer of the embryo migrates along the notochord and neural tube of the embryo. Those mesodermal layers form somites from head to tail and, once innervated, create the Dermomyotome and Sclerotome. As the embryo ages, the somite develops three primary tissue layers, the myotome, sclerotome, and dermatome.
Myoblasts are non-determined cells that can contribute to muscle formation or connective tissue formation depending upon where they originate from the somite.
false
In which stage of the cell cycle are cells characterized as being quiescent
G0 phase
Which one of the following MRF’s are primarily associated with adult myoblast replication?
MyoD
What tissue is formed from the Sclerotome
bone
Neurulation is the event during development that results in the formation of a spinal cord precursor
true
The Neural Tube forms the spinal column
false
What tissues are formed from the Myotome
muscle
What term is used to describe the in-folding of cell sheets into an embryo?
invagination
Which one of the following MRF’s will often result in fetal death if mutated?
myogenin
Using the picture of Dunkin, identify the structure of associated with D
shoulder
Describe the Stress Fiber Model theory of myofibrilar formation
Stress fibers (titan) are found in all cell membranes and aid in maintaining cell structure. For myofiber development, titan will align itself perpendicular to the cell membrane. Within the titin lines, myosin bonds to titan, and actin bonds to myosin forming the sarcomere
What term is used to describe cells that replicate inside of an embryo resulting in new cell layers
ingression
Which dog gate is characterized by a faster than normal walk with 2 foot on the ground at all times?
amble
what is the name of the first embryonic structure associated with the nervous system
Hensen’s Node
What is a totipotent cell?
a totipotent cell is non-determined and can become anything.
Which of the following is not a primary tissue layer within the somite?
mesotome
Why is gastrulation a critical step in embryonic development?
First step in cell determination/differentiation
Which of the cell cycle phases lasts for 2.4 to 2.5 hrs?
G2 phase
What tissues form from the Ectoderm?
neural tissue
Which of the following is not an MRF?
myostatin
What is a myoblast
muscle precursor cells that participate in the formation of multinucleated myocytes of muscles, they are determinate cell lines.
In which stage of the cell cycle do adult myoblast spend the majority of the life?
G0 phase
What is the name of the structure that when bound will begin the process myotube development?
NCAM
List three characteristics of good utter structure and explain why they are important?
- udder held closer to body to prevent infection such as mastitis
- wide udder means there is more glandular tissue which contributes to having more milk production
- flat teats milk faster, which make them easier to clean and are less likely to have mastitis
What is unique about the ICM?
This is the portion of the ovum that will become the animal. It is a group of undetermined cells (stem cells) that can become any body tissue.
What is required for a somite to be positionally fixed during development
Neural link to neural tube
How do E proteins regulate muscle formation?
dimer with MRF’s and prevent DNA binding
What is the major function of the fetal development stage?
increase in size
Explain why the size and shape of the area from the Hooks to Pins in dairy cattle is critical
Allows for greater space for the calf during birth
Increases strength of hindquarters which is critical for breeding soundness
Epimysium is the outer most layer of a muscle group
true
Which type of fat forms three layers?
subcutaneous fat
Which of the following is not a factor effecting muscle fiber type development?
connective tissue placement
Which fat source is responsible for marbling
intramuscular fat
Type II muscle fibers are high in myoglobin
false
Which tissue layer gives rise to adipocytes
mesoderm
Which of the following transcription factors can cause fibroblasts to convert to adipocytes?
PPARgamma & C/EBP
What is the definition of muscle fiber typing?
the classification of muscle fibers according to their metabolic and contractile capabilities
Which of the subcutaneous fat layers develops first
outer
Type II muscle fibers contract quickly
true
Which of the following is a bHLH transcription factor that is integral to adipocyte differentiation
ADD1
What is the 1st fat layer to form?
Visceral fat
In some species, there is a fourth muscle fiber type that is transitory between fast oxidative and fast glycolytic. What is the name of this muscle fiber type?
Type 2x
Type II muscle fibers contract slowly
false
What about the glycolytic oxidative pathway of fast-twitch muscle fibers helps maintain muscle activity after heavy work?
lactic acid byproduct feeds into oxidative phosphorylation
What is the purpose of brown fat
heat production
which of the following animals has the highest percentage of Type IIb muscle fibers?
rabbits
Why do domesticated barrows have a higher level pf Type II fibers than wild barrows
they are bred to produce type 2 fibers. because of the superior nutrition in confinement feeding, they can grow and maintain larger fibers
Which muscle fiber types are generally used for locomotion and are found superficially in muscles?
type 2b
Which of the following proteins allows ATP production without oxidative phosphorylation
UCP-1
What percentage of an adipocyte is protein?
1-4%
Which of the following regulatory factors heterodimers with PPARgamma?
RXR
What is the definition of muscle fiber maturation?
the process immature muscle fibers undergo to assume properties of adult muscle fibers
Which portion of the muscle fiber determines energy pathway and speed of contraction?
Myosin S1 subunit
What is the largest component of a adipocyte?
triglycerides
When stained for energy pathway Type I muscle fibers are red in color?
true
why is KPH considered a hard fat
it is a protective fat layer with low metabolic activity resulting in a hard texture
Which muscle fiber type is predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation as an energy sources?
type 1
Which of the following are used to determine muscle fiber type?
type of energy and speed of contraction
Once a fiber has converted to a fast glycolytic fiber, what muscle type can it return to if no longer needed?
type 2a
Which of the subcutaneous fat layers is the thickest?
middle
What are the 5 functions of adipose tissue
energy storage, insulation, protection, heat generation, and flavor
What is the process for converting a Type I muscle to a Type IIb muscle?
Through a process that stimulates heavy work requiring fast contraction, the Type I muscle fiber modifies its energy pathway to include both oxidative phosphorylation and glycolysis, classified as Type IIa. Continued fast contraction with heavy work will result in a fiber using only glycolysis as its energy source and being classified as Type II
Which muscle fiber types are associated with structural muscles and generally located around bones?
type 1
Which of the following hormones promotes fat deposition?
estrogen
Which of the following visceral fats follow the circulatory system that surrounds our intestines?
mesenteric fat
Which of the following animals contains no brown adipose tissue?
chicken
Which muscle fiber type predominantly uses glycolysis as an energy source?
type 2x
Which muscle fiber type uses both oxidative phosphorylation and glycolysis for energy?
type 2a
Mitochondria and Myoglobin are found at the highest concentrations in fast-twitch fibers
false
