Final Exam Cumulative Review Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Which affirmative below is related to the function of the ions in the cells? A. It is the major fluid medium B. It is a source of energy C. It is a component of the plasma membrane D. It is necessary for operation of the cellular control mechanisms
A
D
2
Q
Which of the following is NOT a function of a biological membrane? A. Compartmentalization B. Transport C. Protein synthesis D. Information Transmission
A
C
3
Q
In which organelle occurs the production of ATP? A. Lysosome B. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus
A
C
4
Q
Which of the following is NOT an example of passive transport? A. Osmosis B. Na/K pump C. Diffusion through the lipid bylayer D. Diffusion through gated-channels
A
B
5
Q
Which of the following is NOT true about facilitated diffusion? A. Is mediated by a carrier protein B. No cellular energy is required C. The rate of transport is proportional to the concentration of the diffusing substance D. The rate of transport depend on the number of the carriers
A
C
6
Q
Which of the following represents an example of passive transport? A. Ligand-gated channel B. Sodium-Potassium pump C. Sodium-glucose symport D. Sodium-Hydrogen antiport
A
A
7
Q
Steroid hormones are not ligands of cell
surface receptors.
A. True
B. False
A
A
8
Q
What type of receptor is this? A. Ligand-gated ion channel B. GPCR C. RTK D. Toll-like receptor
A
B
9
Q
Which of the following statements is NOT true about second messengers: A. They are generated in response to receptor activation B. Calcium and cAMP are second messengers C. cAMP is formed from AMP D. There are only few secondmessengers systems within animal cells
A
C
10
Q
Which of the following options is not a function of the skeletal muscle? A. Movement B. Support for the skeleton C. Digestion D. Generation of body heat
A
C
11
Q
Which of the following options is NOT true about endomysium. A. Is made from connective tissue B. Is an extension from the epimysium C. Is attached to the sarcolemma D. Surround the muscle fiber
A
B
12
Q
Each myofibril is composed by a linear series of repeating \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Muscle fibers B. Myofilaments C. Sarcolemmas D. Sarcomeres
A
D
13
Q
Which of the following organelles regulates calcium storage, release and uptake? A. Mitochondria B. T tubules C. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum D. Nucleus
A
C
14
Q
How many motor neurons innervate each skeletal muscle fiber? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A
A
15
Q
Which of the following options is NOT a factor involved
in the generation of the membrane resting potential?
A. Active transport of Na
B. Active transport of K
C. Passive transport of K
D. Passive transport of proteins
A
D
16
Q
The sequence of changes related to the channels responsible for the repolarization phase is: A. Closing of Na Channels and closing of K Channels B. Closing of Na channels and opening of K Channels C. Opening of Na Channels and closing of K channels D. Openning of Na channels and openning of K channels
A
B
17
Q
Choose the option that better represents the structures showed in A and B. A. Epimysium and muscle fiber B. Perimysium and myofibril C. Sarcolemma and muscle fiber D. Sarcolemma and myofibril
A
D
18
Q
In the resting stage of the action potential,
the membrane is depolarized.
A. True
B. False
A
B
19
Q
Which of the following options is NOT a component of the presynaptic terminal? A. Neurotransmitter B. Voltage gated-channel C. Mitochondria D. ligand-gated channel
A
D
20
Q
Which molecule make up the thick filament? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin
A
B
21
Q
During the depolarization phase of the action potential, the nerve
cell membrane is more negative inside and more positive outside.
A. True
B. False
A
B
22
Q
Which of the following options is NOT true about multi-unit smooth muscle? A. Each muscle fiber contract independently B. It is located in the Iris C. It is inervated by autonomic fibers D. It is also called visceral smooth muscle
A
D
23
Q
During the power stroke, the myosin head has
an ATP molecule bound to it.
A. True
B. False
A
B
24
Q
Which of the following molecules do not diffuse directly through the cell membrane? A. O2 B. CO2 C. H2O D. K \+
A
D
25
```
Which blood vessel carries blood from the
right ventricle to the lungs?
A. Aorta
B. Vena Cava
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Pulmonary vein
```
C
26
```
Which valves are present in the right side of
the heart?
A. Mitral and pulmonary
B. Tricuspid and aortic
C. Mitral and aortic
D. Tricuspid and pulmonary
```
D
27
Blood from pulmonary veins flows into the
right atrium.
A. True
B. False
B
28
```
The first heart sound is a consequence of:
A. Opening of the A-V valves
B. Closing of the A-V valves
C. Opening of the Semilunar valves
D. Closing of the Semilunar vales
```
B
29
```
Which of the following options is NOT true
about the atria:
A. Blood flows continually from
the great veins into the atria
B. Atria function as a primer
pump for the ventricles
C. Atrial contraction begins in
the begining of the P wave
D. Atrial contraction causes
additional 20% filling of the
ventricles
```
C
30
Mark the option that does NOT represent a cell that
normally generate automatic rhythmical electrical
discharge.
A. SA node cells
B. AV node cells
C. Purkinje cells
D. Myocardial cells
D
31
Myocardial cells are uninucleated, branched
and interconnected by intercalated disks.
A. True
B. False
A
32
```
Which of the following options is NOT true about
the intercalated disks
A. Connect myocardial cells
B. Contain Gap junctions
C. Contain Tight junctions
D. Contain Desmosomes
```
C
33
```
Which of the following cells has the faster
conduction velocity?
A. AV node cells
B. Myocardial cells
C. Purkinje cells
```
C
34
```
The myocardial contraction depend on calcium
derived from:
A. Extracellular fluid
B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
C. ECF and SR
D. Mitochondria and SR
```
C
35
```
Why the SA node is the normal pacemaker?
A. Because is more cranial
B. Because discharge faster
C. Because is automatic
D. Because has more cells
```
B
36
The AV node is responsible to speed the velocity
of the impulse for a rapid ventricular contraction.
A. True
B. False
B
37
```
Why the pacemaker sodium channels are funny?
A. Because they open during
depolarization
B. Because they close during an
action potential
C. Because they open during
repolarization
D. Because they make jokes
```
B
38
```
The plateau phase of the action potential in
myocardial ventricular cells is a result of:
A. Opening of slow Ca channels and
opening of fast K channels
B. Opening of slow Ca channels and
closing of fast K channels
C. Closing of slow Ca channels and
opening of fast K channels
D. Closing of slow Ca channels and
closing of fast K channels
```
B
39
```
What is the meaning of the “a” wave of the
Wigger’s diagram?
A. Increased pressure secondary
to atrial contraction
B. Increased pressure secondary
to ventricular contraction
C. Increase in pressure due to
storage of blood while valves
are closed
D. Increased pressure due to
isovolumic relaxation
```
A
40
```
In which period of the Wigger’s diagram the
aortic pressure increases?
A. Isovolumic contraction
B. Isovolumic relaxation
C. Ventricular Ejection
D. Atrial contraction
```
C
41
```
Which of the following options is not an
intrinsic factor that interfere with the CVS?
A. Contractility
B. Preload
C. Afterload
D. ANS
```
D
42
```
A positive ionotropic effect ___________.
A. Increases contractility
B. Decreases contractility
C. Increases heart rate
D. Decreses heart rate
```
A
43
The difference between the highest and the lowest
pressure during a cardiac cycle is called___________.
A. Systolic pressure
B. Diastolic pressure
C. Pulse pressure
D. Mean arterial pressure
C
44
```
A positive CHRONOTROPIC effect _________.
A. Increases contractility
B. Decreases contractility
C. Increases heart rate
D. Decreases heart rate
```
C
45
```
What the P wave represents?
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Atrial repolarization
C. AV node conduction
D. Atrial enlargment
```
A
46
```
What the T wave represents?
A. Left Ventricular depolarization
B. Ventricular septum depolarization
C. Right ventricular depolarization
D. Ventricular repolarization
```
D
47
```
Which of the following pressures favors
filtration at the level of the capillaries?
A. Barometric pressure
B. Blood pressure
C. Capillary oncotic pressure
D. Interstitial fluid pressure
```
B
48
According to the Frank-Starlin Law, the greater the heart
muscle is stretched during filling, the greater the
quantity of blood pumped into the aorta.
A. True
B. False
A
49
```
Which of the following options is NOT true
about MAP?
A. It is influenced by cardiac
output
B. It is the simple average
between systolic and diastolic
pressure
C. Increase in total peripheral
resistance increases MAP
D. It is the most significant
blood pressure
```
B
50
```
Preload is the same as:
A. The end-diastolic volume
B. The end-systolic volume
C. The stroke volume
D. The cardiac output
```
A
51
A severe hypoproteinemic puppy, can develop
edema/ascites primarily because of the __________.
A. Decreased oncotic pressure
B. Increased oncotic pressure
C. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
D. Increased hydrostatic pressure
A
52
```
An increase in contractility______________.
A. Decreases the stroke volume
B. Increases end-systolic volume
C. Decreases end-systolic volume
D. Increases end-diastolic volume
```
C
53
An increase in cardiac muscle fiber length
_____________________________.
A. Decreases the contractile force of the heart
B. Increases the contractile force of the heart
C. Do not change the contractile force
D. Has a negative ionotropic effect
B
54
```
Which type of receptor is involved in the ionotropism
stimulated by catecholamine?
A. BETA ADRENERGIC
B. ALFA ADRENERGIC
C. MUSCARINIC
D. NICOTINIC
```
A
55
If a stenosis of the aortic valve is present, which of
the following consequences do you expect?
A. Decrease in contractility
B. Increase in afterload
C. Decrease in afterload
D. No change in afterload
B
56
```
Which part of the nervous system is directly
responsible to increase the heart rate?
A. Parasympathetic system
B. Sympathetic system
C. Vestibular system
D. Corticospinal tract
```
B
57
Which circulation has the lowest pressure?
A. Systemic
B. Pulmonary
B
58
```
Which of the following options transport blood
under higher pressures?
A. Veins
B. Venules
C. Capillaries
D. Arteries
```
D
59
```
Which of the following options better describes a
consequence of the increase in MAP?
A. Inhibition of RAAS
B. Stimulation of RAAS
C. Increase in aldosterone
release
D. Increase in ADH release
```
A
60
If vasodilation occurs, the TPR ____________.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Don’t change
B
61
Which pressure favors reabsorption into the
capillary at the venous side of the capillary bed?
A. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Interstitial fluid pressure
C. Capillary oncotic pressure
D. Intersitial fluid oncotic pressure
C
62
```
Which of the following phases do
NOT occur during ventricular diastole?
A. Isovolumic relaxation
B. Isovolumic contraction
C. Rapid Inflow
D. Diastasis
```
B
63
When the tissue metabolic rate increases, the decrease in O2
and increase in vasodilators lead to increase in blood flow.
A. True
B. False
A
64
How many phases of the cardiac cycle, have (has)
AV vales and semilunar valves closed at the same
time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B
65
Neural and hormonal influences in the
cardiovascular system are considered:
A. Intrinsic factors
B. Extrinsic factors
B
66
```
Which of the following options do NOT depend
on neural or hormonal mechanisms?
A. MAP control
B. Cardiac Output control
C. Local metabolic control of flow
D. Contractility
```
C
67
```
In which period of the Wigger’s diagram the
aortic pressure increases?
A. Isovolumic contraction
B. Isovolumic relaxation
C. Ventricular Ejection
D. Atrial contraction
```
C
68
```
What the QRS complex represents?
A. Ventricular contraction
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Ventricular hyperpolarization
```
B
69
```
Which of the following options is NOT an
example of vasoconstrictor molecule?
A. Angiotensin II
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Nitric Oxide
```
D
70
```
A positive CHRONOTROPIC effect _________.
A. Increase contractility
B. Decrease contractility
C. Increase heart rate
D. Decrese heart rate
```
C
71
```
The right atrial pressure is also called:
A. MAP
B. Pulse pressure
C. Systolic pressure
D. Central venous pressure
```
D
72
```
Which of the following cells has the faster
conduction velocity?
A. AV node cells
B. Myocardial cells
C. Purkinje cells
```
C
73
If the contractility increases, what happens with the
stroke volume and end-systolic volume respectively?
A. Decreases; Decreases
B. Increases; Decreases
C. Decreases; Increases
D. Increases; Increases
B
74
Filtration is the movement of fluid from capillary
plasma into the interstitial fluid.
A. True
B. False
A
75
The lymphatic system plays a key role in controlling
protein concentration in the interstitial fluid.
A. True
B. False
A
76
```
Formation of red blood cells during
the fetal life takes place:
A. In the kidneys
B. In liver & spleen
C. In long bones
D. All of the above
```
B
77
```
Which of the following is required
for erythropoiesis?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Erythropoietin
C. Vitamin K
D. A and B are right
E. All are right
```
D
78
The viscosity of the blood is primarily determined by the
number of erythrocytes per unit volume. During serious
anemias, the viscosity of the blood is ________ and the
cardiac output is ________:
A. Increased; reduced
B. Reduced; increased
C. Reduced; unchanged
D. Reduced; reduced
B
79
```
Which of the following does belong
to the innate immunity?
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Complement
C. Neutrophils
D. Only B and C
E. All of the above
```
D
80
```
One can test for compatibility
before a blood transfusion by:
A. Mixing donor’s
blood with
recipient’s serum
B. Mixing donor’s
blood with
recipient’s blood
C. Mixing donor’s
serum with
recipient’s blood
```
A
81
```
Which one is NOT a professional
antigen-presenting cell?
A. Dendritic cells
B. Macrophages
C. T lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes
```
C
82
```
An animal has a coagulation time of 10
minutes (range 2-5). Which of the
following could be the cause?
A. Liver disease
B. Kidney disease
C. Vitamin B12
deficiency
D. A and B
E. All of the above
```
A
83
```
What kind of hypersensitivity reaction is
the hemolysis that occurs after blood
transfusion?
A. Hypersensitivity
type I
B. Hypersensitivity
type II
C. Hypersensitivity
type III
D. Hypersensitivity
type IV
```
B
