Final Exam - Cumulative

Question 1

3 important ramifications when defining a disorder: this colors the way we may interpret behavior

Answer 1

1. insurance (reimbursement for treatment)
2. legal responsibility for treatment
3. disability

Question 2

3 examples of past and present diagnoses that have been controversial:

Answer 2

1. drapetomania (propensity of slaves to run away)
2. childhood masturbation
3. homosexuality

Question 3

why is there no single definition of psychological abnormality or normality?

Answer 3

most behaviors exist on a continuum (substance use, sleep, eating, etc.)

Question 4

wakefield argues disorder as ____

Answer 4

“harmful dysfunction”

Question 5

hybrid of “value judgment” (ex. harmful) and “biological disadvantage” (a failure of a mechanism to perform naturally)

Answer 5

harmful dysfunction

Question 6

wakefield’s 5 approaches to defining abnormal behavior: “disorder as ____”

Answer 6

1. pure value concept
2. whatever professionals treat
3. statistical deviance (intellectual disability)
4. biological disadvantage (evolution)
5. distress or suffering

Question 7

judgment of desirability according to social norms and ideals

Answer 7

disorder defined as a pure value concept

Question 8

problem with defining disorder as a pure value concept:

Answer 8

very subjective

Question 9

2 problems with defining disorder as whatever professionals treat:

Answer 9

1. clients come in for treatment for behaviors that are normal
2. individuals do NOT come in when they are disordered

Question 10

-can be statistically deviant on many traits and it is a positive attribute (ex. IQ, strength)

-even undesirable behaviors that are statistically deviant may not be a disorder (ex. being rude)

Answer 10

problem with defining disorder as a statistical deviance (intellectual disability)

Question 11

1. if behavior results in lower reproductive fitness
2. if some mental mechanism is not performing the specific function it was designed to perform (ex. normal anxiety vs. pathological anxiety)
3. when a mechanism fails to perform as it was designed AND it causes impairment

Answer 11

3 criteria for a disorder to be classified as a biological disadvantage

Question 12

toward a definition of abnormal behavior:

breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral function within the individual (it comes from the inside, aka within)

Answer 12

psychological dysfunction

Question 13

toward a definition of abnormal behavior:

difficulty performing appropriate and expected roles
-some disorders may emphasize one over the other (ex. antisocial personality disorder)

Answer 13

personal distress or disability (functional impairment)

Question 14

toward a definition of abnormal behavior:

reaction to abnormal behavior is outside cultural norms

Answer 14

atypical or unexpected cultural response

Question 15

widiger argues that two constructs are fundamental to the definition of mental disorder:

Answer 15

dyscontrol and maladaptively

Question 16

“an impaired ability to direct or regulate ovolition, emotion, behavior, or cognition, or some other area, which often entails inability to resist impulses and leads to abnormal behaviors without significant provocation” (APA)

Answer 16

dyscontrol

Question 17

“a condition in which biological traits or behavior patterns are detrimental, counterproductive, or otherwise interfere with optimal functioning in various domains, such as successful interaction with the environment and effectual coping with the challenges and stresses of daily life” (APA)

Answer 17

maladaptively

Question 18

true or false: some argue that we will never have a perfect definition of a mental disorder

Answer 18

true

Question 19

a widely accepted system that is used to classify psychological disorders and problems

Answer 19

DSM-5

Question 20

DSM stands for:

Answer 20

diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders

Question 21

the DSM-5 contains diagnostic criteria for behaviors that: (4)

Answer 21

1. fit a pattern
2. cause dysfunction or stress
3. are present for a specified duration
4. are based on prototypes

Question 22

a typical or standard example of a disorder

Answer 22

prototype

Question 23

a clinical description of abnormality begins with the ___

Answer 23

presenting problem (what is bringing the client/patient into treatment)

Question 24

this description aims to distinguish clinically significant dysfunction from common human experience and to describe demographics, relevant symptoms, age of onset, and precipitating factors

Answer 24

clinical description

Question 25

keep in mind three factors while using the clinical description of abnormality:

Answer 25

1. prevalence and incidence 2. course of disorders 3. onset of disorders

Question 26

number of people in the population with a disorder

Answer 26

prevalence

Question 27

number of new cases during a given time

Answer 27

incidence

Question 28

course of disorders can be ___, ___, or ___

Answer 28

episodic, time-limited, or chronic

Question 29

onset of disorders can be ___ or ___

Answer 29

acute (comes on quickly) or insidious (comes on slowly)

Question 30

factors that contribute to the development of psychopathology

Answer 30

etiology (diathesis-stress model)

Question 31

combination of risk and a stressor - psychological disorders result from an interaction between inherent vulnerability and environmental stressors

Answer 31

diathesis-stress model

Question 32

treatment development - how can we help to alleviate psychological suffering? (3 forms of treatment)

Answer 32

pharmacologic, psychosocial, and/or combined treatments

Question 33

this form of research studies the effectiveness of clinical interventions, including the comparison of competing treatments

Answer 33

treatment outcome research

Question 34

treatment outcome research - how do we know that we have helped?

Answer 34

we are limited in specifying actual causes of disorders

Question 35

major psychological disorders have existed in all ____ and across all ____

Answer 35

cultures ; time periods

Question 36

two types of antipsychotics came out in the ____ and revolutionized medicine in psychology

Answer 36

1950s

Question 37

three dominant traditions regarding abnormal behavior include:

Answer 37

1. supernatural 2. biological 3. psychological

Question 38

in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was viewed as ____ vs. ____

Answer 38

good vs. evil

Question 39

in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was thought to be caused by:

Answer 39

demonic possession, witchcraft, and sorcery

Question 40

in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was treated by means of:

Answer 40

exorcism, torture, beatings, and crude surgeries

Question 41

some treatments that worked in the past during the supernatural tradition:

Answer 41

placebo, classical conditioning, and fear

Question 42

other worldly causes of deviant behavior:

Answer 42

movement of the moon and stars (astrology) -"lunacy" is derivative of "luna," or "moon"

Question 43

people have long looked for physical causes of psychological disorders

Answer 43

the past: the biological tradition

Question 44

who is the father of modern medicine?

Answer 44

hippocrates

Question 45

___ believed that psychological disorders could be treated like any other disease. he believed "disease" was not the only potential cause, but that head trauma, brain pathology, and hereditary could impact disorders

Answer 45

hippocrates

Question 46

___ extended hippocrates' work, creating the ___ theory of mental illness

Answer 46

galen ; humoral theory of mental illness

Question 47

the idea that disease resulted from having too much or too little of a certain humor

Answer 47

humoral theory of mental illness

Question 48

the humoral theory of mental illness is comprised of 4 major bodily fluids, or "humors" :

Answer 48

1. blood (heart) 2. black bile (spine) 3. yellow bile (liver) 4. phlegm (brain)

Question 49

this tradition linked abnormality with brain chemical imbalances and foreshadowed modern views

Answer 49

galenic-hippocratic tradition

Question 50

the biological condition comes of age: interest in biological factors of mental illness fluctuated over the centuries until the 19th century. what happened to bolster the view that mental illness = physical illness, providing a biological basis for madness?

Answer 50

syphilis

Question 51

a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterial infection

Answer 51

syphilis

Question 52

advanced stage syphilis can result in ___ and ___

Answer 52

delusions and other psychotic behaviors (hallucinations)

Question 53

who discovered the cause of syphilis, and what was the cause he discovered?

Answer 53

pasteur ; a bacterial microorganism

Question 54

pasteur's discovery that syphilis was caused by a bacterial microorganism led to ____ as a successful treatment

Answer 54

penicillin

Question 55

the biological tradition led to ___ treatments

Answer 55

biological

Question 56

during this time, biological treatments were standard practice (insulin shock therapy, ECT, and brain surgery)

Answer 56

the 1930s

Question 57

during this time, medications (such as neuroleptics aka antipsychotics) were becoming increasingly available

Answer 57

the 1950s

Question 58

this medication reduces hallucinations, delusions, agitation, and aggressiveness

Answer 58

neuroleptics (antipsychotics)

Question 59

during this time, benzodizepines (ex. valium) were introduced, and antidepressants began being developed

Answer 59

1970s

Question 60

the past: the psychological tradition plato and aristotle both thought that the ____ and ____ environment and ____ experiences impacted psychopathology

Answer 60

social and cultural environment ; early learning experiences

Question 61

normalizing treatment of the mentally ill -reinforce and model appropriate behaviors -emphasize importance of a nurturing environment

Answer 61

the rise of moral therapy

Question 62

1. worked best with smaller patient populations 2. dorothea dix led the mental hygiene movement 3. rise of mental hygiene movement - move from moral therapy to "custodial care" 4. rise of biological tradition and notion that mental illness was due to brain pathology and was incurable

Answer 62

4 reasons for the falling out of moral therapy:

Question 63

the psychological tradition reemerges in the 1900s in three different forms:

Answer 63

1. psychoanalysis 2. humanism 3. behaviorism (and cognitive-behaviorism eventually)

Question 64

the past: the psychoanalytic tradition was led by ___ and ___

Answer 64

freud and breuer

Question 65

the past: the psychoanalytic tradition breuer had patients describe psychological problems and conflicts under hypnosis, leading to two important "discoveries" :

Answer 65

unconscious mind and catharsis

Question 66

under hypnosis, individuals revealed material that appeared to be outside of their explicit awareness

Answer 66

unconscious mind

Question 67

individuals felt better after discussing and reliving emotionally painful events and feelings (release of emotional tension)

Answer 67

catharsis

Question 68

unconscious needs or drives are at the heart of human motivation -human behavior is influenced by unconscious memories, thoughts, and urges

Answer 68

freudian theory

Question 69

structure and function of the mind (3 components)

Answer 69

1. id 2. ego 3. superego

Question 70

think of the ___ as the brain, the ___ as the devil on your shoulder, and the ___ as the angel

Answer 70

-ego as the brain -id as the devil on your shoulder -superego as the angel

Question 71

the pleasure principle (demands immediate gratification)

Answer 71

id

Question 72

the most primitive part of the mind (part of the mind that is "like a four year old")

Answer 72

id

Question 73

unique processing of information within the id

Answer 73

primary process

Question 74

thinking that is emotional, irrational, fantastical, and primal (sex, aggression, and envy)

Answer 74

primary process

Question 75

the id is the source of sexual and aggressive motives and "energy," which freud called ____

Answer 75

libido

Question 76

instinctual drive for sex, pleasure, and fulfillment

Answer 76

eros

Question 77

the "death instinct" - drive toward aggression and death

Answer 77

thanatos

Question 78

the reality principle; must balance the needs of the id with rules of society

Answer 78

ego

Question 79

the thinking style associated with the ego is called

Answer 79

secondary process

Question 80

secondary process within the ego is characterized by ___ and ___

Answer 80

logic and reason

Question 81

ego referred to as a rider on a horse (the horse being id)

Answer 81

the horse is stronger, but the man can usually control it

Question 82

conscience - represents the moral ideas we learn from family, friends, and society

Answer 82

superego

Question 83

how does our superego develop?

Answer 83

as a result of being rewarded and punished for various behaviors (or seeing others experience this via vicarious learning)

Question 84

the purpose of the superego is to:

Answer 84

counteract the drive toward sex and aggression offered by the id

Question 85

____ must mediate between the id and superego

Answer 85

ego

Question 86

if mediation between the id and the superego is successful...

Answer 86

individuals can pursue higher goals

Question 87

if mediation between the id and the superego is not successful... (if either the id or superego is overpowering)

Answer 87

we will experience intrapsychic conflict (an over-controlling superego can cause just as many problems as an over-controlling id)

Question 88

freud felt that ___ and ___ were almost entirely unconscious

Answer 88

id and superego

Question 89

when ego cannot maintain balance between the needs of id and superego, it results in ___

Answer 89

anxiety

Question 90

anxiety serves as a warning that ego might be overwhelmed - results in use of ____

Answer 90

defense mechanisms

Question 91

unconscious protective processes that keep primitive emotions associated with conflict in check so that the ego can continue with its coordinating function

Answer 91

defense mechanisms

Question 92

defense mechanisms can be ____ or ____ (some call them "coping styles")

Answer 92

adaptive or maladaptive

Question 93

8 defense mechanisms:

Answer 93

1. affiliation 2. humor 3. sublimation 4. displacement 5. intellectualization 6. reaction formation 7. repression 8. projection

Question 94

deal with conflict by turning to others for help and support

Answer 94

affiliation

Question 95

emphasize the amusing or ironic aspects of conflict or stressor

Answer 95

humor

Question 96

deal with conflict or stressors by channeling potentially maladaptive feelings or impulses into socially acceptable behavior

Answer 96

sublimation

Question 97

ex. of sublimation as a defense mechanism

Answer 97

someone with anger issues may channel their aggressive urges into sports instead of lashing out at others physically or verbally

Question 98

transfer feelings about, or response to, one object onto another (usually less threatening) substitute object

Answer 98

displacement

Question 99

ex. of displacement as a defense mechanism

Answer 99

a person who is angry at their boss may "take out" their anger on a family member by shouting at them

Question 100

excessive use of abstract thinking or the making of generalizations to control or minimize disturbing feelings

Answer 100

intellectualization

Question 101

ex. of intellectualization as a defense mechanism

Answer 101

a person might focus on funeral arrangements rather than dealing with their own grief, or spending all of their time researching an illness they have been diagnosed with, rather than talking about how they feel about the diagnosis

Question 102

substitutes behavior, thoughts, or feelings that are the direct opposite of unacceptable ones

Answer 102

reaction formation

Question 103

ex. of reaction formation as a defense mechanism

Answer 103

a young boy who bullies a young girl, because on a subconscious level, he is attracted to her

Question 104

blocks disturbing wishes, thoughts, or experiences from conscious awareness

Answer 104

repression

Question 105

falsely attributing own unacceptable feelings, impulses, or thoughts to another individual

Answer 105

projection

Question 106

ex. of projection as a defense mechanism

Answer 106

the classroom bully who teases other children for crying but is quick to cry

Question 107

stages of child development in which a child's pleasure-seeking urges are focused on specific areas of the body called erogenous zones

Answer 107

psychosexual stages of development

Question 108

freud posited 5 basic stages of psychosexual stages of development:

Answer 108

1. oral stage 2. anal stage 3. phallic stage 4. latency stage 5. genital stage

Question 109

inadequate or inappropriate gratification in any stage would lead to a "____," which would be reflected in the individual's adult behavior

Answer 109

"fixation"

Question 110

the oral stage occurs from ___ to age ___ to ___

Answer 110

birth to age 1.5 to 2

Question 111

the oral stage is characterized by a central focus on ____ (sucking; lips, tongue, and mouth become focus of pleasure)

Answer 111

food

Question 112

ex. of an oral fixation

Answer 112

smoking or chewing on something

Question 113

the anal stage occurs from age ___ to ___

Answer 113

2 to 3

Question 114

the anal stage is characterized by a central focus on the ____ and the ____ vs. ____ of feces

Answer 114

anus ; expulsion vs. retention

Question 115

the anal stage is resolved when:

Answer 115

toilet training is completed

Question 116

ex. of anal fixation

Answer 116

anal retentive (OCD, "you're so anal") anal explosive (sloppy, disorganized, "out-there")

Question 117

the phallic stage occurs from age ___ to ___ or ___

Answer 117

3 to 5 or 6

Question 118

the phallic stage is characterized by a focus on the ___ region

Answer 118

genital region ; as the child becomes more interested in his genitals, and in the genitals of others

Question 119

2 major conflicts during the phallic stage:

Answer 119

oedipus complex and electra complex

Question 120

young boys have sexual fantasies tied to interactions with mother

Answer 120

oedipus complex

Question 121

the oedipus complex leads to anger toward the father because they see father as an obstacle, but fears father - results in identification with father

Answer 121

castration anxiety

Question 122

young girls want to replace mother and possess father

Answer 122

electra complex

Question 123

girls desire a penis, so as to be more like father (resolved when girls develop a healthy heterosexual relationship)

Answer 123

penis envy

Question 124

the latency stage occurs from age ___ or ___ until ___

Answer 124

5 or 6 until puberty

Question 125

sexual interest lies ___ during the latency stage, and energy (___) is put into nonsexual interests, such as friendships, school, sports, and play

Answer 125

dormant ; libido

Question 126

the genital stage occurs during ___

Answer 126

puberty

Question 127

during the genital stage, the central focus returns to the ____ and interest in sexual relationships ____

Answer 127

genitals ; increases

Question 128

freud believed that progress during the genital stage was ____ if the child remained fixated at earlier stages

Answer 128

impeded

Question 129

the purpose of this therapy is to unearth the hidden intrapsychic conflicts through catharsis and insight (focus on childhood)

Answer 129

psychoanalysis

Question 130

psychoanalysis is ____ (2-5 years) and high ____ (3-5 times per week)

Answer 130

long-term ; high frequency

Question 131

-to analyze and resolve conflicts -to restructure personality -focus is NOT on symptom reductive -ambitious goals - are issue focused

Answer 131

goals of psychotherapy

Question 132

-patient lies on couch, analyst sits behind couch -free association - no censoring! -dream analysis - content reflects primary process (id) examine transference and counter-transference issues

Answer 132

psychoanalysis techniques

Question 133

the key to psychoanalysis - ___ is good

Answer 133

transference

Question 134

projecting onto the therapist the conflicts/issues one has in a stable way

Answer 134

transference

Question 135

this occurs when the therapist projects their own unresolved conflicts onto the client

Answer 135

counter-transference

Question 136

issue with psychoanalysis

Answer 136

efficacy data are limited

Question 137

this theory focuses on affect and patient's expression of emotions (may comment on; more reflection back)

Answer 137

psychodynamic theory

Question 138

nonverbal expressions of emotion

Answer 138

affect

Question 139

-explore patients’ avoidance of topics or decisions to engage in behaviors that hinder therapy -identify patterns in patients’ behaviors, thoughts, and feelings (personality) -emphasis on role of past experiences -focus on interpersonal experiences -emphasis on therapeutic relationship -exploration of patients' fantasies, dreams, and wishes

Answer 139

characteristics of psychodynamic theory

Question 140

common factor in therapy: whether you like your therapist, can trust your therapist, etc. determines outcome of therapy (whether or not one will get better)

Answer 140

therapeutic alliance

Question 141

notion that there was a positive, uplifting quality of humanity (humans as beings that strive for improvement and excellence) - much more optimistic notion (gives humans the benefit of the doubt)

Answer 141

humanistic theory

Question 142

to attain one's highest potential is to reach ____ -only possible if overcome obstacles (ex. more basic needs, psychological problems, interpersonal problems)

Answer 142

self-actualization

Question 143

3 major players in humanistic theory:

Answer 143

carl rogers, abraham maslow, and fritz perls

Question 144

this person practiced client (or person)-centered therapy

Answer 144

carl rogers

Question 145

-therapist conveys empathy, unconditional positive regard -minimal therapist interpretation -convey genuineness -belief that client has the resources to solve his/her own problems if given adequate support -belief that the client-therapist relationship was the most important aspect of the treatment

Answer 145

carl rogers treatment characteristics

Question 146

carl rogers uses ____ the most, bouncing back what the patient says

Answer 146

reflection

Question 147

who created maslow's hierarchy of needs

Answer 147

abraham maslow

Question 148

maslow's hierarchy of needs begins at the base with ____ needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active

Answer 148

physiological needs

Question 149

5 components of maslow's hierarchy of needs:

Answer 149

1. physical 2. security 3. social 4. ego 5. self-actualizaton

Question 150

this model emphasizes behavior and the ways in which it is learned

Answer 150

behavioral model

Question 151

two components of the behavioral model:

Answer 151

classical conditioning and operant conditioning

Question 152

a common form of learning, this type of conditioning is characterized by the pairing of neutral stimuli and unconditioned stimuli

Answer 152

classical conditioning

Question 153

an automatic response to a stimulus

Answer 153

unconditioned response

Question 154

something that reflects a natural automatic response

Answer 154

unconditioned stimulus

Question 155

a stimulus that leads to an automatic response

Answer 155

conditioned stimuli

Question 156

an automatic response from training or experience

Answer 156

conditioned response

Question 157

if the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus for too long, ____ occurs

Answer 157

extinction

Question 158

who is known as the father of behaviorism?

Answer 158

watson

Question 159

another common form of learning, this type of conditioning posits that voluntary behavior is controlled by consequences (positive or negative)

Answer 159

operant conditioning

Question 160

increases the likelihood of behavior:

Answer 160

reinforcement

Question 161

decreases the likelihood of behavior:

Answer 161

punishment

Question 162

skinner noted that many behaviors are ___ elicited by unconditioned stimuli

Answer 162

not

Question 163

behavior is either strengthened (more likely to occur) or weakened (less likely to occur) depending on the consequences of that behavior

Answer 163

thorndike's law of effect

Question 164

3 ideas posited by skinner:

Answer 164

reinforcement, punishment, and shaping

Question 165

positive and negative ; increases behavior

Answer 165

reinforcement

Question 166

ex. of positive reinforcement

Answer 166

professor gives extra credit to students who come to class

Question 167

ex. of negative reinforcement

Answer 167

professor allows students who come to class to leave 10 minutes early (ELIMINATES AN AVERSIVE STIMULUS)

Question 168

positive and negative ; decreases behavior

Answer 168

punishment

Question 169

ex. of positive punishment

Answer 169

child brings home a bad report card, gets spanked

Question 170

ex. of negative punishment

Answer 170

child brings home a bad report card, phone gets taken away (REMOVAL OF STIMULUS)

Question 171

reinforce successive approximations of desired behavior

Answer 171

shaping

Question 172

from behaviorism to behavior therapy: this movement was against psychoanalysis and non-scientific approaches

Answer 172

reactionary movement

Question 173

3 early pioneers of the reactionary movement

Answer 173

1. wolpe 2. beck 3. bandura

Question 174

systematic desensitization was practiced by:

Answer 174

wolpe

Question 175

cognitive therapy was practiced by:

Answer 175

beck

Question 176

social learning/cognitive-behavior therapy was practiced by:

Answer 176

bandura

Question 177

this type of therapy tends to be time-limited, direct, here-and-now focused (have widespread empirical support)

Answer 177

behavior therapy

Question 178

this model explains behavior in terms of a single cause (could mean a paradigm, school, or conceptual approach)

Answer 178

one-dimensional models

Question 179

problem with one-dimensional models:

Answer 179

other information is often ignored

Question 180

interdisciplinary, eclectic, and integrative model ("system" of influences that cause and maintain suffering) -uses information from several sources -abnormal behavior as multiply determined

Answer 180

multidimensional models

Question 181

multidimensional models of abnormal behavior include 5 factors:

Answer 181

1. biological factors (genetics, physiology, neurobiology) 2. behavioral factors 3. emotional factors 4. social factors 5. developmental factors

Question 182

according to social factors, ____ stressors are most potent

Answer 182

interpersonal

Question 183

ex. of a social factor or interpersonal stressor

Answer 183

a romantic relationship ending, feeling ostracized from a social group, feeling dissociated, etc.

Question 184

ex. of a developmental factor

Answer 184

most people with schizophrenia were behind their siblings in fundamental developmental areas at a young age

Question 185

genetic contributions to psychopathology: ___ vs. ___

Answer 185

phenotype vs. genotype

Question 186

observable characteristics

Answer 186

phenotype

Question 187

do we know much more about phenotype than we do about genotype? or vice versa?

Answer 187

more about phenotype

Question 188

genetic makeup

Answer 188

genotype

Question 189

does an identical twin or a fraternal twin have a higher chance of having schizophrenia if their twin does?

Answer 189

identical 50% chance (both children are equally at risk of schizophrenia because it is in their genotype) ; fraternal 19% chance

Question 190

development and behavior is often ____ (contribution to many genes)

Answer 190

polygenetic

Question 191

overall genetic contribution to psychopathology is less than ___%, but schizophrenia is around ___%

Answer 191

50% ; 80%

Question 192

in some studies, depression is ___% to ___% heritable

Answer 192

20% to 40%

Question 193

eating disorders are ___% to ___% heritable

Answer 193

40% to 50%

Question 194

who proposed that learning could affect genes by turning them on or activating them? genetic structure is malleable and receptive to the environment - what is this interaction referred to as?

Answer 194

eric kandel ; gene-environment interactions

Question 195

a genetic vulnerability or predisposition (diathesis) interacts with the environment and life events (stressors) to trigger behaviors or psychological disorders

Answer 195

diathesis-stress model

Question 196

when a third variable affects the strength or direction of the relationship between two variables

Answer 196

interaction

Question 197

true or false: gene-environment correlations are kind of a falsehood

Answer 197

true

Question 198

in many cases, ____ and ___ are correlated (robustness to psychopathology (resilience) is correlated to both

Answer 198

genes and environment

Question 199

genes can ____ the probability that an individual will experience environmental events (which might increase the likelihood of experiencing psychological problems) -adoption studies are interesting because genes and environment can be parsed

Answer 199

increase

Question 200

nothing about your behavior played a role in this stressor

Answer 200

independent stressor

Question 201

ex. of an independent stressor

Answer 201

getting hit by a drunk driver on the way home from class

Question 202

stressors that our own characteristics contribute to

Answer 202

dependent stressors

Question 203

ex. of dependent stressor

Answer 203

getting into frequent fights with your partner because of the type of partner you tend to choose

Question 204

three types of gene-environment correlations

Answer 204

1. passive 2. evocative 3. provocative

Question 205

types of genes a child inherits may be correlated with the environment one is raised in

Answer 205

passive

Question 206

you play no role (no bearing on what you did right or wrong, but rather the role that both genetics and environment play)

Answer 206

passive

Question 207

ex. of passive gene-environment correlation

Answer 207

individuals could inherit genes for lower IQ and be raised in a non-intellectually rich environment

Question 208

individual's genes may lead to behavior that evokes a response from the environment

Answer 208

evocative

Question 209

evocative gene-environment correlation is ____ produced only due to negative influences

Answer 209

NOT

Question 210

ex. of evocative gene-environment correlation

Answer 210

antisocial child (noncompliant, aggressive) may evoke certain responses from the environment (harsh, punitive parenting)

Question 211

individual’s genes make the selection of certain environments more likely -personality tends to stabilize (become fixed) as we age because we have created niches for ourselves (ex. introversion vs. extraversion)

Answer 211

provocative

Question 212

environment (diet, stressors, behaviors, experiences) can affect how genes are expressed (ex. turning them on or off)

Answer 212

epigenetics

Question 213

some genes will ___ express themselves unless in a certain environment -and, some environments may have ___ effect unless the genetic predisposition is there

Answer 213

never ; little

Question 214

if someone has a predisposition to alcohol abuse, but lives in an environment in which alcohol is prohibited, they will likely not develop alcoholism

Answer 214

ex. of epigenetics

Question 215

how are neurotransmitters related to psychopathology?

Answer 215

almost all current psychiatric drugs impact one or more neurotransmitters

Question 216

functions of neurotransmitters (study by introducing three classifications):

Answer 216

1. agonist 2. antagonist 3. inverse agonist

Question 217

increase activity by mimicking its effects

Answer 217

agonist

Question 218

decrease or block a neurotransmitter

Answer 218

antagonists

Question 219

produce effects opposite to those produced by a neurotransmitter

Answer 219

inverse agonist

Question 220

this neurotransmitter regulates behavior, mood, and cognition

Answer 220

serotonin

Question 221

disinhibition, emotional reactivity, and impulsivity are linked to ___ levels of serotonin

Answer 221

low

Question 222

serotonin is related to ___, ___, ___, and ___

Answer 222

aggression, suicide, depression, and over-eating

Question 223

treated with ___

Answer 223

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

Question 224

ex. of SSRIs

Answer 224

prozac, celexa, paxil, zoloft

Question 225

SSRI would be a serotonin ___

Answer 225

agonist

Question 226

excitatory transmitter (causes action)

Answer 226

glutamate

Question 227

this neurotransmitter reduces postsynaptic activity (inhibitory effect) and has a broad influence on mood and behavior

Answer 227

gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Question 228

this neurotransmitter affects anxiety and arousal in general (reducing anxiety, emotional reactivity, anger, aggression, and positive mood states, too)

Answer 228

gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Question 229

____ are drugs that are believed to increase GABA

Answer 229

benzodiazepines (ex. valium, xanax, klonopin)

Question 230

this neurotransmitter increases heart rate and blood pressure (may be active in fight or flight situations)

Answer 230

norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

Question 231

____ are used for hypertension and to reduce anxiety responses

Answer 231

beta-blockers

Question 232

blocks beta receptors that are activated by norepinephrine

Answer 232

beta-blockers

Question 233

this neurotransmitter works as the "switch" that impacts the effects of other neurotransmitters

Answer 233

dopamine

Question 234

____ implicated in exploratory, reward-seeking behaviors

Answer 234

dopamine

Question 235

high levels of dopamine are implicated in ____

Answer 235

schizophrenia

Question 236

hallucinations and delusions will reduce if given a dopamine ___

Answer 236

inhibitor

Question 237

learning from psychopharmacology and various scanning procedures (fMRI, PET) the function and structure of the brain and what roles they play in psychopathology

Answer 237

relations between the brain and abnormal behavior

Question 238

____ influences can change brain function (particularly early experiences, with regard to feelings of control, safety, attachment)

Answer 238

psychosocial

Question 239

therapy...

Answer 239

also changes brain function

Question 240

psychosocial factors interact with brain ___ and ___

Answer 240

structure and function

Question 241

ex. identical groups of monkeys -group 1 has control (when to eat; what toys to play with) -group 2 has no control (food and toys access determined by group 1) when given a drug causing strong anxiety, "no control" group ____, and the "control" group became ____

Answer 241

cowered ; became aggressive

Question 242

neurotransmitters interact with ____ factors to affect current behavior

Answer 242

psychosocial

Question 243

____ conditioning found that it was not just the pairing of the uncontrolled stimulus and controlled stimulus, but that it had to be consistent

Answer 243

classical conditioning

Question 244

seligman's belief that one is helpless to impact life leads to depression

Answer 244

learned helpleessness

Question 245

the opposite of learned helplessness is true, and has a huge effect on health:

Answer 245

learned optimism

Question 246

bandura's ____ is characterized by modeling and observational learning (vicarious learning) -plays a role in substance abuse, aggression, interpersonal relationships

Answer 246

social learning

Question 247

according to ____ learning, we are evolutionarily programmed to learn certain things better than others (ex. we fear snakes, heights not trees, rocks) food poisoning - rare case of one time learning

Answer 247

prepared learning

Question 248

the nature of ___ is to elicit or evoke action (fight or flight; repair damaged relationships; promote the continuation of behavior)

Answer 248

the nature of emotion

Question 249

short lived, temporary states

Answer 249

emotion

Question 250

a more persistent, enduring state

Answer 250

mood

Question 251

momentary emotional tone that accompanies behavior

Answer 251

affect

Question 252

___/___ are to mood what weather is to climate

Answer 252

affect/emotion

Question 253

strong link between ___ and ___ with heart disease due to a decreased pumping efficiency for the heart

Answer 253

anger and hostility

Question 254

all of the basic emotions (fear, anger, sadness, excitement) can be linked to psychological disorders if they occur too ___, without "___," too ___, or without ___ control

Answer 254

frequently ; "cause" ; strongly ; internal

Question 255

chronically depressed mood

Answer 255

depression

Question 256

overly positive, excited mood

Answer 256

mania

Question 257

strong fear response despite a lack of threatening stimuli

Answer 257

panic

Question 258

these factors of psychopathology contribute to the influence and expression of behavior

Answer 258

cultural factors

Question 259

most people across different cultures experience ___ symptoms, but ___ are different

Answer 259

similar ; attributions

Question 260

contrast european americans with schizophrenia to latinos with schizophrenia

Answer 260

european americans: describe life using terms related to mental illness latinos: use “nerves” - seen as less pejorative and elicits more sympathy

Question 261

___ has a strong effect on psychopathology

Answer 261

gender (ex. depression, eating disorders, phobias, antisocial personality disorder)

Question 262

___ have higher rates of internalizing disorders across cultures (even in more matriarchal societies) ex. anxiety, depression

Answer 262

women

Question 263

___ have higher rates of externalizing disorders ex. antisocial personality, substance abuse

Answer 263

men

Question 264

social effects on health and behavior: ___ and ___ of social interaction are important

Answer 264

frequency and quality

Question 265

relationships have a protective quality against both physical and psychological disorders for three reasons:

Answer 265

1. give meaning to life 2. help us cope with physical and psychological pain 3. encourage health-promoting behaviors

Question 266

___ of social support may be most vital

Answer 266

perceptions

Question 267

this perspective addresses developmental changes (different periods of life associated with different challenges that might influence psychological health)

Answer 267

life-span developmental

Question 268

developmental stage will also influence how disorders are manifested and treated (ex. antisocial men at 50 may look different than at 20)

Answer 268

heterotypic continuity

Question 269

multiple paths to a given outcome (ex. psychosis)

Answer 269

equifinality

Question 270

same events (ex. trauma, genes) can lead to different outcomes

Answer 270

multifinality

Question 271

this field examines the role of the nervous system in disease and behavior

Answer 271

the field of neuroscience

Question 272

branches of the human nervous system:

Answer 272

central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)

Question 273

two components of the central nervous system (CNS)

Answer 273

the brain and spinal cord

Question 274

two branches of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

Answer 274

somatic and autonomic branches

Question 275

the autonomic nervous system (ANS) of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of two divisions:

Answer 275

sympathetic division and parasympathetic division

Question 276

the neuron is composed of five components:

Answer 276

1. soma 2. dendrites 3. axon 4. axon terminals 5. synapses

Question 277

the soma is the ___

Answer 277

cell body

Question 278

branches that receive messages from other neurons (chemical messages are converted into electrical impulses)

Answer 278

dendrites

Question 279

trunk of the neuron that sends messages to other neurons

Answer 279

axon

Question 280

buds at the end of the axon from which chemical messages are sent

Answer 280

axon terminals

Question 281

small gaps that separate neurons

Answer 281

synapses

Question 282

neurons are not connected - they are separated by the ___

Answer 282

synaptic cleft

Question 283

___ are released into the cleft and communicate with the next neuron

Answer 283

neurotransmitters

Question 284

two main parts of the brain:

Answer 284

brainstem and forebrain

Question 285

the most ancient part of the brain that is found in most animals and controls basic processes (ex. breathing, sleeping, physical coordination)

Answer 285

brainstem

Question 286

largest and most recently evolved part of the brain

Answer 286

forebrain

Question 287

three main divisions of the brain:

Answer 287

1. hindbrain 2. midbrain 3. forebrain

Question 288

hindbrain consists of three parts:

Answer 288

1. medulla 2. pons 3. cerebellum

Question 289

this part of the hindbrain regulates heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration

Answer 289

medulla

Question 290

this part of the hindbrain regulates sleep stages

Answer 290

pons

Question 291

this part of the hindbrain is involved in physical coordination

Answer 291

cerebellum

Question 292

this division of the brain coordinates movement with sensory input and contains parts of the reticular activating system (RAS)

Answer 292

midbrain

Question 293

this part of the midbrain is related to arousal and consciousness; sleep cycles

Answer 293

reticular activating system (RAS)

Question 294

the forebrain is also referred to as the ___

Answer 294

cerebral cortex

Question 295

most sensory, emotional, and cognitive processing occurs within this division of the brain, within two specialized hemispheres

Answer 295

forebrain (cerebral cortex)

Question 296

four lobes of the cerebral cortex:

Answer 296

1. frontal 2. parietal 3. occipital 4. temporal

Question 297

thinking and reasoning abilities and memory are controlled by this lobe of the cerebral cortex

Answer 297

frontal

Question 298

touch recognition is controlled by this lobe of the cerebral cortex

Answer 298

parietal

Question 299

this lobe of the cerebral cortex integrates visual input

Answer 299

occipital

Question 300

this lobe of the cerebral cortex controls recognition of sights, smells, sounds, and long-term memory storage; process complex stimuli

Answer 300

temporal

Question 301

the hippocampus, amygdala, septum, and cingulated gyrus compose which system?

Answer 301

limbic system

Question 302

this system is related to emotion, motivation, and memory

Answer 302

limbic system

Question 303

this part of the brain receives and integrates sensory information

Answer 303

thalamus

Question 304

eating, drinking, aggression, and sexual activity are controlled by this part of the brain

Answer 304

hypothalamus

Question 305

the 2 hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are connected by the ___

Answer 305

corpus callosum

Question 306

this hemisphere deals with visual-spatial processing, visual imagery, and creativity

Answer 306

right

Question 307

this hemisphere deals with language and reasoning

Answer 307

left

Question 308

which hemisphere is usually dominant?

Answer 308

left

Question 309

what are the two branches of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Answer 309

somatic branch and autonomic branch

Question 310

this branch of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) controls voluntary muscles and movement

Answer 310

somatic branch

Question 311

the autonomic branch of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of two branches:

Answer 311

sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS

Question 312

these branches regulate the cardiovascular system and body temperature, and regulate the endocrine system and aid in digestion

Answer 312

sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS

Question 313

this system of the ANS mobilizes the body during times of stress (fight or flight; heart races, increased respiration, decreased digestion)

Answer 313

sympathetic system

Question 314

this system of the ANS takes over when not stressed - focuses on restoring energy and equilibrium (increased digestion; slowed breathing and heart rate) REST AND DIGEST

Answer 314

parasympathetic system

Question 315

hormones (chemicals) are released into the bloodstream (affect response to stress, growth, metabolism, sexual characteristics)

Answer 315

endocrine system

Question 316

systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person presenting with a possible psychological disorder

Answer 316

clinical assessment

Question 317

process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all criteria for psychological disorder set forth in the DSM-5

Answer 317

diagnosis

Question 318

the purpose of clinical assessment (4 components)

Answer 318

1. to understand the individual 2. to predict behavior 3. to plan treatment 4. to evaluate treatment outcome

Question 319

analogous to a funnel

Answer 319

1. starts broad 2. multidimensional in approach 3. narrow to specific problem areas

Question 320

3 fundamentals to successful assessments

Answer 320

1. reliability 2. validity 3. standardization and norms

Question 321

degree to which a measure is repeatable and consistent

Answer 321

reliability

Question 322

across time (test-retest), rather (inter-rater reliability), items (internal consistency)

Answer 322

consistency in measurement

Question 323

the degree to which a measure captures what it is designed to do (ex. does an IQ test measure intelligence?) what does the test measure, and how well does it do so

Answer 323

validity

Question 324

you cannot have validity if you do not have ___

Answer 324

reliability

Question 325

reliability does not mean that you have ___

Answer 325

validity

Question 326

reliability is a necessary but ___ sufficient aspect of validity

Answer 326

NOT

Question 327

the degree to which the content of a test is representative of the domain it is supposed to cover does the measure capture a full range of concepts?

Answer 327

content validity

Question 328

___ questions could be a good component of content validity

Answer 328

somatic

Question 329

a mathematics teacher develops an end-of-semester algebra test for her class -the test should cover every form of algebra that was taught in the class -if some types of algebra are left out, then the results may not be an accurate indication of students' understanding of the subject -similarly, if she includes questions that are not related to algebra, the results are no longer a valid measure of algebra knowledge

Answer 329

ex. of content validity

Question 330

scores on the measure are related to other measures of the same construct is it related to other validated measures of the same construct?

Answer 330

convergent validity

Question 331

the scores of two tests, one measuring self-esteem and the other measuring extroversion, are likely to be correlated—individuals scoring high in self-esteem are more likely to score high in extroversion

Answer 331

example of convergent validity

Question 332

the extent to which a measure is related to an outcome is it related to other constructs that are thought to be related to?

Answer 332

criterion validity

Question 333

a university professor creates a new test to measure applicants' english writing ability -to assess how well the test really does measure students' writing ability, she finds an existing test that is considered a valid measurement of english writing ability, and compares the results when the same group of students take both tests. If the outcomes are very similar

Answer 333

example of criterion validity

Question 334

scores on the measure are not related to other measures that are theoretically different -want to show that it has specificity and is more narrowed, correlates to things it should or shouldn't be related

Answer 334

discriminant validity

Question 335

the scores of two tests measuring security and loneliness theoretically should not correlate

Answer 335

example of discriminant validity

Question 336

extent to which respondents can tell what the items are measuring does it appear to measure what it is supposed to measure? "do you feel sad?" is more collaborative with patient, but could be potentially skewed because patient will lie for things knowing what the questions are for

Answer 336

face validity

Question 337

you create a survey to measure the regularity of people's dietary habits -you review the survey items, which ask questions about every meal of the day and snacks eaten in between for every day of the week -on its surface, the survey seems like a good representation of what you want to test

Answer 337

example of face validity

Question 338

the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior does it predict important and relevant outcomes?

Answer 338

predictive validity

Question 339

SAT scores are considered predictive of student retention: students with higher SAT scores are more likely to return for their sophomore year

Answer 339

example of predictive validity

Question 340

the degree to which a test measures the construct, or psychological concept or variable, at which it is aimed; context dependent

Answer 340

construct validity

Question 341

which measure of validity is most important?

Answer 341

construct validity

Question 342

there is no objective, observable entity called "depression" that we can measure directly, but based on existing psychological research and theory, we can measure depression based on a collection of symptoms and indicators, such as low self-confidence and low energy levels

Answer 342

example of construct validity

Question 343

-foster consistent use of techniques -provide population benchmarks for comparison

Answer 343

standardization and norms

Question 344

examples of ___ and ___ include: administration procedures, scoring, and evaluation of data and IQ tests

Answer 344

standardization and norms

Question 345

an interview method in which the researcher uses a flexible, conversational style to probe for the participant's point of view

Answer 345

clinical interview

Question 346

the most common clinical assessment method

Answer 346

clinical interview

Question 347

no fixed set of questions and no systematic scoring procedure - involves asking probing questions to find out what the applicant is like

Answer 347

unstructured interview

Question 348

this interview method is most commonly used for time and convenience (could lead to a misdiagnosis)

Answer 348

unstructured interview

Question 349

there is a list of questions that have been worked out in advance, but interviewers are also free to ask follow up questions when they feel it is appropriate

Answer 349

semi-structured interview

Question 350

this interview method is less spontaneous and feels less natural and takes more time (commonly used in for research purposes)

Answer 350

semi-structured interview

Question 351

interview in which the researcher has determined what questions are important, the order in which they will be asked, and how they will be structured (no departure, and you cannot ask to clarify)

Answer 351

fully structured interview

Question 352

college students could use this interview method since they do not have the expertise

Answer 352

fully structured interview

Question 353

8 questions that should be asked in an interview:

Answer 353

1. presenting problem (when it started, participating in events) 2. current and past behavior relevant to the problem 3. detailed history including trauma and abuse 4. educational history 5. work history 6. romance 7. substance abuse 8. past psychological and physical problems; treatment used

Question 354

this domain of assessment utilizes pictures of the brain

Answer 354

neuroimaging

Question 355

two types of examinations of the brain:

Answer 355

structure and function

Question 356

this examination of the brain assesses whether there is damage; size of various parts

Answer 356

structure

Question 357

this examination of the brain assesses what parts are functioning during specific tasks; looks at blood flow

Answer 357

function

Question 358

two imaging techniques used to assess brain structure:

Answer 358

computerized axial tomography (CAT or CT scan) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Question 359

this scan utilizes x-rays of brain; pictures in slices

Answer 359

computerized axial tomography (CAT or CT scan)

Question 360

does MRI have better resolution than CAT scan? or vice versa?

Answer 360

MRI has better resolution than CAT

Question 361

this imaging technique operates via a strong magnetic field around the head -more expensive, more time-consuming, and difficult for certain patients to tolerate

Answer 361

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Question 362

three imaging techniques used to assess brain function:

Answer 362

1. positron emission tomography (PET) 2. single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) 3. functional MRI (fMRI)

Question 363

1. provide detailed information regarding brain function 2. procedures are expensive; lack adequate norms 3. procedures have limited clinical utility

Answer 363

advantages and limitations of imaging techniques that assess brain FUNCTION

Question 364

methods used to assess brain structure, function, and activity of the nervous system

Answer 364

psychophysiological assessment

Question 365

1. electroencephalogram (EEG) 2. heart rate and respiration 3. electrodermal response and levels 4. electromyography (EMG) 5. penile plethysmograph

Answer 365

psychophysiological assessment domains

Question 366

electroencephalogram (EEG) measures

Answer 366

brain wave activity

Question 367

heart rate and respiration measures

Answer 367

cardiorespiratory activity

Question 368

electrodermal response and levels measure

Answer 368

sweat gland activity

Question 369

electromyography (EMG) measures

Answer 369

muscle tension

Question 370

penile plethysmograph measures

Answer 370

sexual arousal

Question 371

when is a penile plethysmograph used?

Answer 371

in instances where someone may not be willing to report sexual arousal

Question 372

clinical assessment vs. psychiatric diagnosis: assessment is an ___ approach

Answer 372

idiographic approach

Question 373

this approach emphasizes what is unique to this person (personality traits, family, background, culture, or other circumstances)

Answer 373

idiographic approach

Question 374

clinical assessment vs. psychiatric diagnosis: diagnosis is a ___ approach

Answer 374

nomothetic approach

Question 375

this approach applies what we know about a person to what we know about people more broadly -seeing if specific problems fit with a general class of problems

Answer 375

nomothetic approach

Question 376

is clinical assessment or psychiatric diagnosis more important in treatment planning and intervention?

Answer 376

both are important

Question 377

diagnostic classification: -classification is ___ to all sciences -develop categories based on ___ attributes

Answer 377

central ; shared

Question 378

terminology of classification systems: ___ is classification in a scientific context

Answer 378

taxonomy

Question 379

terminology of classification systems: ___ is taxonomy in psychological/medical contexts

Answer 379

nosology

Question 380

terminology of classification systems: ___ is nosological labels (ex. panic disorder)

Answer 380

nomenclature

Question 381

two widely used classification systems used to diagnose and classify psychological disorders:

Answer 381

international classification of diseases and health related problems (ICD-11) and diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM)

Question 382

the international classification of diseases and health related problems (ICD-11) is published by the ___

Answer 382

world health organization

Question 383

the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM) is published by the ___

Answer 383

american psychiatric association

Question 384

what is the most current version of the DSM?

Answer 384

DSM-5 (2013)

Question 385

the nature and forms of classification systems: 3 approaches:

Answer 385

1. classical (or pure) categorical approach 2. dimensional approach 3. prototypical approach

Question 386

the nature and forms of classification systems: classical (or pure) approach pertains to:

Answer 386

categories

Question 387

1. yes/no decisions 2. each disorder viewed as fundamentally different from others 3. clear underlying cause 4. individual required to meet all requirements for classification 5. viewed as inappropriate to complexity of psychological disorders

Answer 387

characteristics of the classical (or pure) approach

Question 388

individual required to meet all requirements for classification

Answer 388

monothetic

Question 389

is the classical (or pure) categorical approach monothetic or polythetic?

Answer 389

monothetic

Question 390

the dimensional approach is characterized by classification along ___

Answer 390

dimensions

Question 391

1. symptoms or disorders existing on a continuum (ex. 0 to 100) 2. patient might be mildly depressed (60) and moderately anxious (70) 3. create a profile to represent person's functioning 4. no aggreement on number of dimensions or which dimensions required

Answer 391

4 characteristics of the dimensional approach

Question 392

the prototypical approach is both:

Answer 392

classical and dimensional

Question 393

1. categorical (yes/no decisions) but individual does not have to for every symptom 2. rather, patient must meet some minimal number of prototypical criteria (ex. 5 of 9 depression symptoms)

Answer 393

characteristics of the prototypical approach

Question 394

is the prototypical approach monothetic or polythetic?

Answer 394

polythetic (creates within-category heterogeneity and presumes homogeneity within the "yes" and "no" group)

Question 395

3 purposes of the DSM system:

Answer 395

1. aid communication 2. evaluate prognosis and need for treatment 3. treatment planning

Question 396

evolution of the DSM: these two versions, between these two times, relied on unproven theories and were unreliable -very freudian - very psychoanalytically driven -did not have the complex symptom list that they do now

Answer 396

DSM-I (1952) and DSM-II (1968)

Question 397

evolution of the DSM: DSM ___ through DSM ___ -atheoretical, emphasizing clinical description, not underlying etiology -detailed criterion sets for disorders -emphasis on reliability (inter-rater; test-retest) -questions about validity (many decisions were not empirical - why have to have 4 panic attacks in a 4 week period; why have to be depressed for 2 weeks; why 5 of 9 depression symptoms?)

Answer 397

DSM-III (1980) through IV (2000)

Question 398

evolution of the DSM: this version of the DSM emphasizes the understanding that many (most) symptoms are not specific to a single disorder, but cut across many disorders (ex. anxiety, depression, suicidal ideation) -introduction of new dimensional measures that exist across disorders

Answer 398

DSM-5 (2013)

Question 399

-what problems cause distress or impair functioning? -why do people behave in unusual ways? -how can we help people behave in more adaptive ways?

Answer 399

questions driving a science of psychopathology

Question 400

basic components of research: research starts with a ___

Answer 400

hypothesis

Question 401

true or false: all hypotheses are testable

Answer 401

false

Question 402

true or false: a scientific hypothesis must be testable

Answer 402

true

Question 403

can hypotheses be rejected or accepted?

Answer 403

yes

Question 404

research design is a method to test ___

Answer 404

hypotheses

Question 405

the variable that causes or influences behavior

Answer 405

independent variable

Question 406

the behavior is influenced by the independent variable

Answer 406

dependent variable

Question 407

ex. "exercise reduces depression" what are the independent and dependent variables?

Answer 407

independent variable: exercise dependent variable: ratings of depression

Question 408

did the independent variable produce the outcomes? -did you do the study in a competent way so you can have faith in its conclusions?

Answer 408

internal validity

Question 409

are the findings generalizable (ex. to other settings, other locations, other types of samples, other problems)?

Answer 409

external validity

Question 410

must have ___ validity before external validity

Answer 410

internal validity

Question 411

how can you increase internal validity?

Answer 411

by minimizing confounds

Question 412

factors that might make the results uninterpretable

Answer 412

confounds

Question 413

individuals not exposed to independent variable but are like the experimental group in every other way

Answer 413

control group

Question 414

individuals are assigned to either experimental group or control group randomly; avoid some systematic bias

Answer 414

random assignment procedures

Question 415

study related phenomenon in controlled conditions of laboratory setting (ex. alcohol)

Answer 415

analog models

Question 416

relation between internal and external validity

Answer 416

can be at odds -want to control any confounds that could impact results -BUT, also want results to generalize to the "real world"

Question 417

researchers work hard to balance these competing needs by:

Answer 417

conducting multiple studies

Question 418

these methods help protect against biases in evaluating data

Answer 418

statistical methods

Question 419

are these results due to chance?

Answer 419

statistical significance

Question 420

3 components of statistical significance:

Answer 420

1. size of effect (correlation; difference in means) 2. level of significance 3. sample size

Question 421

are the results clinically meaningful?

Answer 421

clinical significance

Question 422

does statistical significance imply clinical meaningfulness?

Answer 422

no

Question 423

extensive observation and detailed description of a client -foundation for early developments in psychopathology

Answer 423

nature of the case study

Question 424

1. lack scientific rigor and suitable controls 2. internal validity is typically weak 3. often entails numerous confounds (finding unique to individual ; more inference from "researcher")

Answer 424

limitations of case study

Question 425

statistical relation between two or more variables -no independent variable is manipulated

Answer 425

the nature of correlation

Question 426

a problem of directionality (ex. breakups and depression) exists between ___ and ___

Answer 426

correlation and causation

Question 427

true or false: correlation does not mean causation (ex. smoking and drinking)

Answer 427

true

Question 428

nature or correlation and strength of association: -rank from ___ to ___ ___ vs. ___ correlation

Answer 428

rank from -1 to 1 negative vs. positive correlation

Question 429

why use correlation studies?

Answer 429

in instances where you can't randomly assign individual to groups and can't manipulate the independent variable

Question 430

this form of research studies incidence, prevalence, and course of disorders - looking for clues about the disorder

Answer 430

epidemiological research

Question 431

number of new cases during a specified time

Answer 431

incidence

Question 432

number of people with a disorder at any given time

Answer 432

prevalence

Question 433

more or less common in certain populations

Answer 433

distribution

Question 434

epidemiological research examines what factors are associated with ___ -ex. gender, socioeconomic status, certain behaviors

Answer 434

frequency

Question 435

the goal of epidemiological research

Answer 435

to find clues as to the etiology of disorders

Question 436

the nature of experimental research: 4 components

Answer 436

1. manipulation of independent variables (ex. therapy or no) 2. random assignment 3. attempt to establish causal relationship 4. premium on internal validity

Question 437

____ are necessary to show that independent variable is responsible for observed changes

Answer 437

control groups

Question 438

should the control group be nearly identical to the treatment groups?

Answer 438

yes

Question 439

what does the placebo group ensure regarding treatment?

Answer 439

that the treatment effect is not due to an expectation that one will improve

Question 440

placebo is easy to do with ___, but less so with ___ treatment

Answer 440

medications ; psychological treatment

Question 441

within this control, both researchers and participants are unaware of their group assignment

Answer 441

double blind

Question 442

this is often the next step after showing that treatment is better than placebo

Answer 442

type group design

Question 443

dismantling studies (breaking study into parts and removing or focusing on certain aspects) is necessary to figure out the "___" components of the treatment

Answer 443

"active"

Question 443

this type of treatment design compares different forms of treatment in similar persons (psychotherapy vs. medication vs. combination) -addressed treatment outcome (did change occur)

Answer 443

comparative treatment designs

Question 444

-systematic study of individuals under a variety of conditions -rigorous study of single cases: manipulations of experimental conditions and time -repeated measurement (rather than just once before and after) -premium on internal validity

Answer 444

nature of single subject design

Question 445

two types of single subject design:

Answer 445

withdrawal design and multiple baseline design

Question 446

3 components of withdrawal design:

Answer 446

1. baseline 2. treatment 3. withdrawal

Question 447

gives psychologists a better sense if treatment causes changes

Answer 447

assets of the withdrawal design

Question 448

involves removing a treatment that might be helpful; risking relapse; learning that it is impossible to "withdraw" most psychological treatments (once learned, can't force a patient to unlearn them)

Answer 448

liabilities

Question 449

this type of single subject design is characterized by not starting and stopping treatment, but rather starting intervention at different times across settings or behaviors

Answer 449

multiple baseline design

Question 450

assets of multiple baseline design

Answer 450

don't have to withdraw treatment

Question 451

liabilities of multiple baseline design

Answer 451

still making conclusion of the basis of a small number of people

Question 452

this research strategy examines the interaction among genes, experience, and behaviors

Answer 452

genetic research strategies

Question 453

genetic research strategies examine the relationship between

Answer 453

phenotype (observable characteristics or behaviors) and genotype (genetic make-up)

Question 454

4 strategies used in genetic research:

Answer 454

1. family studies 2. adoptee studies 3. twin studies 4. genetic wide association studies

Question 455

this genetic research strategy examines the behavioral pattern/emotional traits in family members

Answer 455

family studies

Question 456

problem with family studies

Answer 456

cannot distinguish between environmental and genetic factors

Question 457

this genetic research strategy allows separation of environmental and genetic factors (are children more like adoptive parents or biological parents?)

Answer 457

adoptee studies

Question 458

there are a number of studies looking at ___ via adoption studies

Answer 458

crime

Question 459

does research suggest some heritable component for crime?

Answer 459

yes

Question 460

this genetic research strategy evaluates psychopathology in fraternal vs. identical twins

Answer 460

twin studies

Question 461

risk of developing schizophrenia (given the other twin has it) for both monozygotic and dizygotic twins:

Answer 461

mono: 48% di: 17%

Question 462

this genetic research strategy locates the site of related genes

Answer 462

genetic wide association studies

Question 463

studying behavior over time may help us understand ____ factors for the manifestation of a disorder

Answer 463

precipitating factors

Question 464

studying behavior over time is important in two forms of research:

Answer 464

prevention research and treatment research

Question 465

study of risk factors for development of disorder (biological, psychological, environmental)

Answer 465

importance of studying behavior for prevention research

Question 466

what helps individuals recover? (ex. psychoeducation, emotional support, medication, behavioral activation)

Answer 466

importance of studying behavior for treatment research

Question 467

two types of time-based research strategies:

Answer 467

cross-sectional designs and longitudinal designs

Question 468

this experimental design takes a cross selection of the population across different age groups and compares on a certain characteristic

Answer 468

cross-sectional design

Question 469

is a cross-sectional study easier or harder than a longitudinal study? does it take more or less time?

Answer 469

easier ; less

Question 470

cross-sectional designs are ___, meaning that all assessments are at the same time

Answer 470

all concurring

Question 471

participants in each age group

Answer 471

cohorts

Question 472

confounding effect of age and experience

Answer 472

cohort effect

Question 473

what is a major limitation of cross-sectional designs?

Answer 473

cohort effect

Question 474

2 limitations of cross-sectional designs

Answer 474

1. tell us little about how problems develop 2. can tell us that two variables are related, but not causal information

Question 475

this experimental design follows one group over time and assesses changes in individuals

Answer 475

longitudinal design

Question 476

is there a cohort effect problem within longitudinal designs?

Answer 476

no ; no cohort effect problem

Question 477

this experimental design gets us closer to understanding causality (order of relationship, depression leads to fewer friends vs. fewer friends leads to depression)

Answer 477

longitudinal design

Question 478

5 problems with longitudinal design:

Answer 478

1. takes a long time to do 2. expensive 3. must worry about patient attrition 4. study topic may no longer be relevant by the time the study is complete 5. cross-generational effect

Question 479

people leaving the study

Answer 479

attrition

Question 480

may not be possible to generalize study effects to other groups whose experiences are quite different

Answer 480

cross-generational effect

Question 481

true or false: good internal validity does not equate to good external validity

Answer 481

true

Question 482

what is the 'cohort effect equivalent' of longitudinal designs?

Answer 482

cross-generational effect

Question 483

value of cross-cultural research: (2)

Answer 483

1. can be informative 2. overcomes ethnocentric research

Question 484

how is studying abnormal behavior from various cultures informative?

Answer 484

tells us about origins and treatment of disorders from different perspectives

Question 485

1. clarify how psychopathology manifests in different ethnic groups (same terminology may "look" or "feel" very different across cultures 2. different thresholds for abnormal behavior 3. treatment exists within cultural context

Answer 485

3 issues in cross cultural research

Question 486

components of a research program: true or false: no one study will definitively answer the question true or false: studies proceed by asking slightly different questions, using slightly different procedures

Answer 486

true ; true

Question 487

are research programs conducted in stages? do research programs involve replication?

Answer 487

yes ; yes

Question 488

scientific knowledge typically builds incrementally or radically?

Answer 488

incrementally

Question 489

what is vital for a research program?

Answer 489

replication

Question 490

difference between anxiety and fear

Answer 490

anxiety is a future oriented mood state, while fear is a present-oriented mood state

Question 491

how is anxiety characterized?

Answer 491

marked negative effect

Question 492

anxiety is characterized by ___ symptoms of tension

Answer 492

somatic (ex. headache, muscle ache, gastrointestinal issues)

Question 493

apprehension about future danger or misfortune

Answer 493

anxiety

Question 494

fear is characterized by an immediate ___ or ___ response to danger or threat

Answer 494

fight or flight

Question 495

fear is characterized by strong ___/___ tendencies

Answer 495

avoidance/escapist

Question 496

fear abruptly activates the ___ nervous system

Answer 496

sympathetic

Question 497

true or false: anxiety and fear are normal emotional states

Answer 497

true

Question 498

3 characteristics of anxiety disorders:

Answer 498

1. psychological disorders 2. excessive avoidance and escapist tendencies 3. causes clinically significant distress and impairment

Question 499

pervasive and persistent symptoms of anxiety and fear

Answer 499

psychological disorders

Question 500

abrupt experience of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by several physical symptoms

Answer 500

panic attack

Question 501

2 types of panic attacks, according to the DSM-5

Answer 501

expected and unexpected

Question 502

this panic attack happens in context of obvious cue or trigger

Answer 502

expected panic attack

Question 503

this panic attack happens in context devoid of clear cue or trigger

Answer 503

unexpected panic attack

Question 504

is panic disorder characterized by unexpected or expected panic attacks?

Answer 504

both

Question 505

this type of panic attack may be seen more in phobias

Answer 505

expected

Question 506

true or false: panic attack specifier can be used for any diagnosis in DSM-5, anxiety or other (ex. depression with panic attacks)

Answer 506

true

Question 507

how common are panic attacks? what is the 12 month prevalence?

Answer 507

pretty common ; 11%

Question 508

how can 'specifier' be remembered?

Answer 508

as toppings on a pizza - can be added on

Question 509

biological contributions to anxiety and panic: diathesis-stress

Answer 509

1. inherit vulnerability for anxiety and panic, not disorders 2. stress and life circumstances activate vulnerability

Question 510

two biological causes and inherent vulnerabilities of anxiety and panic

Answer 510

1. anxiety and brain circuits 2. behavioral inhibition system

Question 511

3 anxiety and brain circuits

Answer 511

GABA, noradrenergic, and serotonergic system

Question 512

lower levels (GABA, serotonin) =

Answer 512

more anxiety

Question 513

activated by signals from brain stem of unexpected events, such as major changes in bodily functioning, that might signal danger

Answer 513

behavioral inhibition system

Question 514

what type of measures are used within the behavioral inhibition system?

Answer 514

self-report measures

Question 515

when the ___ is activated, we tend to "freeze," experience anxiety, and anxiously evaluate the environment for signs of danger

Answer 515

behavioral inhibition system (BIS)

Question 516

true or false: the behavioral inhibition system is thought to be distinct from circuit involved with panic

Answer 516

true

Question 517

when this system is aroused, it produces an immediate "alarm and escape" response

Answer 517

fight or flight system

Question 518

how may environmental factors change the sensitivity of brain circuits?

Answer 518

causing one to be more or less apt to develop an anxiety disorder

Question 519

this psychologist believed that anxiety is a psychological reaction to danger (but tied to early infant/childhood fears)

Answer 519

freud

Question 520

this view characterizes anxiety and fear as a result from classical and operant conditioning and modeling (vicarious learning)

Answer 520

behaviorist view

Question 521

early experiences with uncontrollability and/or unpredictability -parents can, through their behavior, pass on lesson that the child had some impact on their environment, AND that the child can cope with a world that is unpredictable

Answer 521

psychological view

Question 522

is comorbidity common across anxiety disorders?

Answer 522

yes

Question 523

approximately ___% of patients with an anxiety disorder have another secondary diagnosis

Answer 523

50%

Question 524

what is the most common secondary diagnosis for anxiety disorders?

Answer 524

major depression

Question 525

excessive uncontrollable anxious apprehension and worry about a number of events of activities; worry and anxiety interfere with ability to function and/or cause distress

Answer 525

generalized anxiety disorders

Question 526

to be diagnosed with GAD, symptoms must persist for ___ months or more

Answer 526

6 months

Question 527

to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), an individual must have 3+ of the following symptoms: (6 total)

Answer 527

1. restlessness 2. easily fatigued 3. difficulty concentrating/mind going blank 4. irritability 5. muscle tension 6. sleep disturbance

Question 528

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and "normal worry" more or less pervasive and distressing?

Answer 528

more pervasive and distressing

Question 529

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and "normal worry" lasts longer or shorter?

Answer 529

lasts longer

Question 530

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and "normal worry" occurs with or without triggers

Answer 530

occurs without triggers

Question 531

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and "normal worry" do worries come with or without physical symptoms?

Answer 531

with physical symptoms

Question 532

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and "normal worry" associated with ___ symptoms, such as GI distress and exaggerated startle response

Answer 532

somatic

Question 533

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) affects ___% of the general population

Answer 533

3%

Question 534

females outnumber males approximately ___:___ with GAD

Answer 534

2:1

Question 535

GAD onset is often

Answer 535

insidious

Question 536

median age of onset for GAD

Answer 536

30

Question 537

GAD presence ___ in middle age, and ___ later in life

Answer 537

peaks ; declines

Question 538

symptoms of GAD tend to ___ and ___ across life ; full remission is ___

Answer 538

wax and wane ; rare

Question 539

___ onset of GAD is associated with greater comorbitity and impairment

Answer 539

earlier

Question 540

genetic factors account for ___% of the variability of GAD

Answer 540

30%

Question 541

temperamental factors of GAD: ___ behavioral inhibition; neuroticism -adults who develop GAD were more emotionally-fragile children

Answer 541

high

Question 542

are environmental factors that cause GAD clear?

Answer 542

no

Question 543

cognitive factors of GAD

Answer 543

highly sensitive to threat

Question 544

treatment of GAD: are drug or psychological interventions effective?

Answer 544

both

Question 545

2 medications used in treatment for GAD:

Answer 545

benzodiazepines and antidepressants

Question 546

help provide immediate, short-term relief for GAD -impairs motor and cognitive functioning, can produce dependence (psychological and physical) -abuse potential

Answer 546

benzodiazepines

Question 547

proving useful in treatment of GAD -lower side effects

Answer 547

antidepressants

Question 548

this form of treatment for GAD has better long-term benefits -cognitive-behavioral therapy evokes and confronts anxiety provoking images and thoughts by challenging automatic, "irrational" thoughts that lead to anxiety

Answer 548

psychological treatment

Question 549

recurrent unexpected panic attacks (discrete period of intense fear or discomfort with four or more symptoms (palpitations, sweating, trembling, sensation of shortness of breath, choking, chest pain, chills, or heat sensations, numbness/tingling, nausea, feeling dizzy, fear of dying))

Answer 549

panic disorder

Question 550

at least one of the attacks must be followed by 1 month or more of one or both:

Answer 550

1. persistent worry about having additional attacks or their consequences 2. significant maladaptive change in behavior related to attacks

Question 551

12 month prevalence of panic disorder

Answer 551

2-3%

Question 552

___/___ with panic disorder are female

Answer 552

2/3

Question 553

onset of panic disorder is often

Answer 553

acute

Question 554

when does onset of panic disorder begin?

Answer 554

between ages 20 to 24

Question 555

symptoms of panic disorder often ___ and ___ over lifespan, but tends to be ___ (if untreated)

Answer 555

wax and wane ; chronic

Question 556

waking from sleep while experiencing panic symptoms; not usually due to dreams

Answer 556

nocturnal panic attacks

Question 557

associated features of panic disorder: are general physical/health concerns typical or atypical among those with panic disorder?

Answer 557

typical

Question 558

associated features of panic disorder: true or false: those with panic disorder tend to be sensitive to medication side effects

Answer 558

true

Question 559

associated features of panic disorder: do people with panic disorders have concerns about ability to function due to panic?

Answer 559

yes

Question 560

associated features of panic disorder: is there any link between substance use and controlling panic?

Answer 560

may see excessive substance use to control panic

Question 561

associated features of panic disorder: true or false: those with panic disorder avoid panic cues (ex. exercise)

Answer 561

true

Question 562

true or false: individuals with panic disorder have a biological predisposition to be “over-reactive” to life’s events. some will have an “emergency alarm reaction” (ex. heart racing, sweating, breathing heavily) as a response to a stressor

Answer 562

true

Question 563

medication treatment of panic disorder targets 3 systems:

Answer 563

serotonergic, noradrenic, and benzodiazepine GABA

Question 564

what are the preferred drugs used in the treatment of panic disorders?

Answer 564

SSRIs

Question 565

are relapse rates high or low for individuals with panic disorder after medication discontinuation?

Answer 565

high

Question 566

what type of psychological treatment is highly effective for panic disorder?

Answer 566

cognitive-behavioral therapy

Question 567

not going out in crowded places

Answer 567

agoraphobia

Question 568

true or false: it is helpful to create panic (mini-panic attacks) in cognitive-behavioral therapy sessions as exposure for those with panic disorder

Answer 568

true

Question 569

this therapy alone creates the best long-term outcome for those with panic disorder

Answer 569

cognitive-behavior therapy

Question 570

characterized by an extreme and irrational fear of a specific object or situation -this object/situation almost always provokes intense fear and anxiety -fear is out of proportion with actual danger -causes significant distress/impairment -still go to great lengths to avoid phobic objects or endures with great distress

Answer 570

specific phobia

Question 571

12 month prevalence of phobia

Answer 571

7-9% (one of the most prevalent)

Question 572

this phobia has an entirely different physiological response (drop in blood pressure and heart rate) -may have strongest heritability -unique susceptibility to fainting

Answer 572

blood-injury-injection phobia

Question 573

phobia of public transportation or enclosed placees (ex. planes)

Answer 573

situational phobia

Question 574

phobia of events occurring in nature (ex. heights, storms)

Answer 574

natural environment phobia

Question 575

phobia of animals and insects

Answer 575

animal phobia

Question 576

these phobias do not fit into the other categories (ex. fear of choking, vomiting, clowns, etc.)

Answer 576

other phobias

Question 577

is direct conditioning a cause of phobia?

Answer 577

yes

Question 578

is experiencing a panic attack in a specific situation a cause of phobia?

Answer 578

yes

Question 579

true or false: observing (vicarious learning) someone else's fear is a cause of phobia

Answer 579

true

Question 580

is information transmission (being told about danger) a cause of phobia?

Answer 580

yes

Question 581

more likely to develop fear for certain objects - an inherited tendency to fear things that have always been dangerous to humans (ex. snakes, storms, heights)

Answer 581

biological and evolutionary vulnerability

Question 582

___ are highly effective in treating phobias

Answer 582

cognitive-behavioral therapies

Question 583

this type of therapy builds an anxiety hierarchy, and can use counter-conditioning and modeling -uses SUDS

Answer 583

exposure therapy

Question 584

subjective units of distress

Answer 584

SUDS

Question 585

marked fear/anxiety about one or more social situations in which individual is exposed to scrutiny/judgment of others

Answer 585

social anxiety

Question 586

social anxiety is most common in ___/___ situations (ex. speaking, eating, using restroom, writing, typing)

Answer 586

social/performance

Question 587

true or false: social situations must almost always provoke fear or anxiety for one to be diagnosed with social anxiety

Answer 587

true

Question 588

out of proportion fear from social anxiety causes distress and impairment ; must last for ___ months or more

Answer 588

6 months

Question 589

12 month prevalence of social anxiety

Answer 589

7%

Question 590

are females or males slightly more represented than males? the ratio is close to ___:___

Answer 590

females ; 2:1

Question 591

when does onset for social anxiety usually occur? majority have it onset between ___ and ___ years

Answer 591

adolescence ; 8 to 15 years

Question 592

evolutionary vulnerability to social anxiety

Answer 592

evolved to fear disapproving faces

Question 593

some individuals born with a shy, inhibited temperament. introverted individuals are chronically more aroused and thus need less stimulation. social/performance experiences may cause over-arousal

Answer 593

biological vulnerability to social anxiety

Question 594

taught that social evaluation is important and/or dangerous via direct conditioning, observational learning, or information transmission

Answer 594

psychological factors that can cause social anxiety

Question 595

4 medication treatments of social anxiety

Answer 595

1. beta blockers 2. tricyclic antidepressants 3. monoamine oxidase inhibitors 4. SSRI paxil

Question 596

this blood-pressure medication dampens the fight or flight response, but is somewhat ineffective -can be taken before giving a big talk

Answer 596

beta blockers

Question 597

this medication reduces social anxiety (have to be on it for several weeks for it to be effective)

Answer 597

tricyclic antidepressants

Question 598

this medication reduces anxiety

Answer 598

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Question 599

this medication is FDA approved for social anxiety disorder

Answer 599

SSRI Paxil

Question 600

are relapse rates for social anxiety high or low following medication discontinuation?

Answer 600

high

Question 601

are cognitive-behavioral therapies effective for social anxiety?

Answer 601

highly effective

Question 602

what appears to be the most important component within cognitive-behavioral therapy for social anxiety disorder?

Answer 602

exposure portion

Question 603

persistent, recurrent, and intrusive thoughts, images, or urges that one tries to resist or eliminate -ex. "did i turn my stove off, did i turn my stove off..."

Answer 603

obsessions

Question 604

feels intrusive and out of one's own control. not consistent with "regular" thought content

Answer 604

ego-dystonic

Question 605

repetitive thoughts or actions that a person feels driven to perform or according to rigid rules

Answer 605

compulsions

Question 606

goal of compulsions

Answer 606

to prevent or reduce distress associated with the obsession

Question 607

3 specifiers for OCD:

Answer 607

1. good to fair insight 2. poor insight 3. absent insight/delusional

Question 608

recognizes OCD beliefs may not be true

Answer 608

good to fair insight

Question 609

OCD beliefs probably true

Answer 609

poor insight

Question 610

convinced OCD beliefs are true

Answer 610

absent insight/delusional

Question 611

12 month prevalence of OCD:

Answer 611

1.2%

Question 612

most people with OCD are ___ (although more ___ have the disorder in childhood)

Answer 612

female ; males

Question 613

OCD tends to be ___, especially if untreated

Answer 613

chronic

Question 614

onset is typically in early ___ or ___ (mean age = 20) -high comorbidity with ___ disorders

Answer 614

adolescence or adulthood ; tic disorders

Question 615

are genetic factors a probable cause of OCD?

Answer 615

yes

Question 616

is lower or greater neuroticism a cause of OCD?

Answer 616

greater neuroticism

Question 617

having the thought becomes equated with the action -ex. i thought about hitting that woman with my car - "i hit that woman with my car"

Answer 617

thought action fusion

Question 618

medication treatment of OCD: clomipramine and other SSRIs benefit about ___%

Answer 618

60%

Question 619

___ is used as a medication treatment for OCD in extreme cases

Answer 619

psychosurgery (lesion the brain only used in extreme cases)

Question 620

is relapse common or uncommon with medication discontinuation for OCD?

Answer 620

common

Question 621

this psychological treatment for OCD is most effective

Answer 621

cognitive-behavioral therapy

Question 622

CBT for OCD involves ___ and ___ prevention

Answer 622

exposure and response prevention

Question 623

requires exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence: directly experiencing events; witnessing, in person events; learning of events that occurred to close family member/friend; experiencing repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of traumatic events

Answer 623

post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Question 624

recurrent, intrusive, involuntary memories; distressing dreams; dissociative reactions (flashbacks), intense distress at cues of events (internal or external) physiological reactions to cues

Answer 624

intrusive symptoms of PTSD

Question 625

is the avoidance of stimuli associated with events common for those with PTSD? (memories, thoughts, feelings associated with events ; reminders of events)?

Answer 625

yes

Question 626

inability to remember important details; exaggerated negative beliefs about oneself, others; world; distorted cognitions about cause (ex. blame), negative emotional states, diminished interest or participation in significant activities, detachment, or estrangement from others; anhedonia

Answer 626

negative alterations in thoughts or mood associated with PTSD

Question 627

loss of ability to feel pleasure

Answer 627

anhedonia

Question 628

irritability/anger; recklessness/self-destructive behavior; hypervigilance; exaggerated startle; sleep and concentration problems

Answer 628

alterations in arousal/reactivity associated with traumatic events

Question 629

to be diagnosed with PTSD, disturbance must last ___ month or more

Answer 629

1 month

Question 630

PTSD specifier:

Answer 630

with dissociative symptoms

Question 631

2 dissociative symptoms

Answer 631

depersonalization and derealization

Question 632

feel detached from oneself and one's thoughts/feelings; behaviors

Answer 632

depersonalization

Question 633

lifetime prevalence vs. 12 month prevalence of PTSD

Answer 633

lifetime = 8.7% 12 month = 2.5%

Question 634

higher rates of PTSD among

Answer 634

veterans, certain vocations (police, EMT), survivors of rape, combat, captivity, etc.

Question 635

when do symptoms of PTSD usually begin?

Answer 635

within 3 months trauma, although delayed expression is not uncommon

Question 636

childhood emotional problems, other mental disorders; lower education, lower socioeconomic status, prior trauma, lower intelligence, female gender and younger age at time of trauma

Answer 636

risk factors of PTSD prior to trauma

Question 637

severity of trauma, perceived life threat, personal injury, dissociation. for veterans, killing the enemy, witnessing atrocities -peri trauma factors

Answer 637

risk factors for PTSD during trauma

Question 638

cognitive-behavioral treatment involving graduated or massed imaginal exposure (re-experience event in safe, controlled environment)

Answer 638

psychological treatment of PTSD

Question 639

___ may be effective in reducing the anxiety and panic associated with PTSD

Answer 639

SSRIs

Question 640

4 types of depressive disorders

Answer 640

1. major depressive disorder 2. persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) 3. premenstrual depressive disorder 4. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

Question 641

this depressive disorder has a longer duration, but less severe symptoms

Answer 641

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

Question 642

this depressive disorder refers to children who have a lot of temper tantrums

Answer 642

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

Question 643

3 bipolar and related disorders

Answer 643

1. bipolar I disorder 2. bipolar II disorder 3. cyclothymic disorder

Question 644

5 or more symptoms present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from previous functioning. At least one must be depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure -depressed mood most of day, nearly every day -marked diminished interest or pleasure in all, or most activities -significant weight loss when not dieting or gain or decrease/increase in appetite -insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day -psychomotor agitation or retardation (observable to others) -fatigue or loss of energy -feelings of worthlessness or excessive/inappropriate guilt -diminished ability to think clearly or concentrate; indecisive recurrent thoughts of death, suicidal ideation, or attempt -single episode - relatively unusual -recurrent episodes (must be separated by two months during which criteria not met) - more common

Answer 644

major depressive disorder

Question 645

recurrence of major depressive disorder is higher in ___ individuals, people whose last episode was ___, and people who have already had ___ episodes

Answer 645

younger ; severe ; multiple

Question 646

depressed mood most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years (1 for children/adolescents) -milder or fewer symptoms 2 of the following: poor appetite or overeating; insomnia or hypersomnia; low energy/fatigue; low self-esteem; poor concentration; difficulty making decisions; feelings of hopelessness -can persist unchanged over long periods - greater than or equal to 20 years

Answer 646

dysthymia (persistent depressive disorder)

Question 647

onset for dysthymia

Answer 647

early onset - before age 21

Question 648

true or false: there is greater chonicity, poorer prognosis, and more comorbid diagnoses (ex. personality disorders, substance use) for dysthymia

Answer 648

true

Question 649

in majority of cycles, 5 symptoms in final week before onset of menses; start to improve after onset of menses, minimal or absent in week postmenses -affective lability (mood swings) -irritability; anger; interpersonal conflict -depressed mood; hopelessness -anxiety; tension -decreased interest in activities -poorer concentration -lethargy; lack of energy -change in appetite and sleep -feel overwhelmed or out of control -physical symptoms (bloating; tenderness)

Answer 649

premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Question 650

prevalence of premenstrual dysphoric disorder over 12 months

Answer 650

2.6%

Question 651

treatment for premenstrual disorder (3)

Answer 651

SSRIs, cognitive-behavioral therapy, birth control pill

Question 652

essential feature of bipolar I disorder

Answer 652

occurrence of one or more manic episodes or mixed episodes (depression and mania) -individuals typically have or will experience a major depressive episode

Question 653

distinct period of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally increased goal directed activity or energy: (1 week)

Answer 653

mania

Question 654

to be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder, individuals must portray ___ of the following symptoms: -inflated self-esteem or grandiosity -decreased need for sleep -more talkative; pressured speech -flight of ideas; racing thoughts -distractibility -increase in goal-directed behavior -excessive involvement in pleasurable activities

Answer 654

3 or more

Question 655

average age of onset for bipolar I disorder

Answer 655

18 years

Question 656

___% or more of individuals with one manic episode have recurrent mood episodes

Answer 656

90%

Question 657

true or false: bipolar I disorder tends NOT to be chronic

Answer 657

false

Question 658

suicide rate for people with bipolar I disorder verses the general population

Answer 658

15x higher for those with bipolar I

Question 659

key difference between bipolar I and bipolar II

Answer 659

mania - bipolar I hypomania - bipolar II

Question 660

in order to be diagnosed with bipolar II disorder, individuals must

Answer 660

meet criteria for current or past hypomanic episode and current or past depressive episode

Question 661

main difference from mania is that the symptoms aren't severe enough to cause serious impairment or hospitalization

Answer 661

hypomania

Question 662

true or false: individuals with BP-II usually come to treatment because of depression -learn of hypomania later on (often from informants) -many don’t receive BP-II diagnosis until after experiencing multiple depressive episodes

Answer 662

true

Question 663

average age of onset for BP-II

Answer 663

mid 20s, but can begin in childhood

Question 664

true or false: most people with BP-II progress to full BP-I

Answer 664

false

Question 665

___% to ___% of BP-II cases progress to BP-I

Answer 665

5% to 15%

Question 666

does BP-II tend to be chronic and impairing?

Answer 666

yes

Question 667

is suicide risk for BP-II lower or higher than that for BP-I?

Answer 667

equally high

Question 668

more chronic version of bipolar disorder (2 years or more; 1 if child/adolescent) -numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms (that don’t meet full criteria for hypomania) and depressive symptoms (that don’t meet the criteria for major depression) -manic or depressive mood states are present for at least half of the time (without remitting for greater than 2 months)

Answer 668

cyclothymic disorder

Question 669

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers tense; restless; worry; catastrophic thoughts; concerns for one that will lose control

Answer 669

anxious distress

Question 670

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers symptoms of mania or hypomania during depressive episodes (ex. grandiosity; more talkative; increased energy)

Answer 670

mixed features

Question 671

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers mood reactivity, weight gain/appetite increase, hypersomnia, sensitivity to rejection

Answer 671

atypical

Question 672

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers near absence of pleasure; not reactive to pleasurable stimuli; profound despair, symptoms worse in the morning; EMAs (early morning awakenings); anorexia or weight loss; guilt

Answer 672

melancholic

Question 673

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers absence of movement - very serious

Answer 673

catatonic

Question 674

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers mood congruent or incongruent hallucinations/delusions

Answer 674

psychotic

Question 675

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers depressive episodes during pregnancy or within 4 weeks of childbirth

Answer 675

peripartum

Question 676

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers pattern of relationships between onset of depressive episodes and seasons

Answer 676

seasonal pattern

Question 677

worldwide lifetime prevalence for major depression

Answer 677

16.1%

Question 678

worldwide lifetime prevalence for dysthymia

Answer 678

3.6%

Question 679

worldwide lifetime prevalence for bipolar

Answer 679

1.3%

Question 680

worldwide lifetime prevalence for cyclothymia

Answer 680

<1%

Question 681

___ are more likely to suffer from major depression (rate changes after puberty)

Answer 681

females

Question 682

___ disorders equally effect males and females

Answer 682

bipolar disorders

Question 683

does the prevalence of depression vary across subcultures?

Answer 683

no

Question 684

relation between anxiety and depression

Answer 684

most depressed people are anxious, but not all anxious people are depressed

Question 685

according to family studies, the rate of mood disorders is ___ in relatives of probands

Answer 685

high

Question 686

the person with the disorder

Answer 686

proband

Question 687

rate of mood disorders is ___ to ___ times higher in family members of a mood disordered individual

Answer 687

2 to 3

Question 688

according to twin studies, concordance rates are ___ in identical twins

Answer 688

high

Question 689

according to twin studies, ___ cases have a stronger genetic contribution

Answer 689

severe

Question 690

according to twin studies, heritability rates are approximately ___ for men and women

Answer 690

equal

Question 691

___ regulates other neurotransmitters - most targeted by antidepressants

Answer 691

serotonin

Question 692

-low serotonin allows other neurotransmitter to vary more substantially and thus become dysregulated (too much or too little), which can lead to mood dysregulation -balance between neurotransmitters probably more important than absolute levels

Answer 692

the "permissive" hypothesis

Question 693

endocrine system: elevated ___ ("stress hormone" ; increases energy, attention ; lowered pain sensitivity) -may impact depression by reducing the ability to develop new neurons (particularly in the hippocampus)

Answer 693

cortisol

Question 694

hallmark of most mood disorders

Answer 694

sleep disturbance

Question 695

enter REM sleep more quickly, experience less slow wave, "deep" sleep

Answer 695

relation between depression and sleep

Question 696

___ is strongly related to mood disorders -poorer response to treatment -longer time before remission -better predictor of initial episodes than later recurrences

Answer 696

stress

Question 697

this theory of depression is related to a lack of perceived control over life events

Answer 697

the learned helplessness theory of depression

Question 698

3 depressive attributional styles:

Answer 698

1. internal attributions 2. stable attributions 3. global attributions

Question 699

negative outcomes are one's own fault

Answer 699

internal attribution

Question 700

believing there is little room for change

Answer 700

stable attributions

Question 701

believing negative events will have wide-ranging effects

Answer 701

global attributions

Question 702

all three attributions contribute to a sense of hopelessness but it is the hopelessness that leads to ___

Answer 702

depression

Question 703

depressed persons engage in cognitive errors -a tendency to interpret life events negatively

Answer 703

aaron t. beck's cognitive theory of depression

Question 704

4 types of cognitive errors:

Answer 704

1. arbitrary inference 2. overgeneralization 3. dichotomous thinking 4. personalization

Question 705

this cognitive error is characterized by overemphasizing the negative

Answer 705

arbitrary inference

Question 706

this cognitive error is characterized by applying negatives to all situations

Answer 706

overgeneralization

Question 707

cognitive error characterized by thinking in black or white

Answer 707

dichotomous thinking

Question 708

cognitive error characterized by believing that others' behavior is directed at you

Answer 708

personalization

Question 709

3 components of the depressive cognitive triad (thinking negatively about...)

Answer 709

1. think negatively about oneself 2. think negatively about the world 3. think negatively about the future

Question 710

females over males for mood disorders ratio of ___:___

Answer 710

2:1

Question 711

widely used medication - examples include tofranil, elavil

Answer 711

tricyclic medication

Question 712

this medication blocks trip take (norepinephrine and other neurotransmitters)

Answer 712

tricyclic medications

Question 713

how long does it take for the effects of tricyclic medications to be known

Answer 713

2 to 8 weeks

Question 714

are negative side effects common or not common for tricyclic medications? (ex. blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, weight gain, sexual dysfunction)

Answer 714

common

Question 715

true or false: tricyclic medications may be lethal in excess doses

Answer 715

true

Question 716

enzyme that breaks down serotonin/norepinephrine

Answer 716

monoamine oxidase (MAO)

Question 717

MAO inhibitors ___ monoamine oxidase

Answer 717

block

Question 718

are MAO inhibitors more or less effective than tricyclics?

Answer 718

slightly more

Question 719

must avoid foods containing ___ while taking MAO

Answer 719

tyramine

Question 720

are MAOs frequently or rarely used? can they interact safely or dangerously with other medications?

Answer 720

rarely ; dangerously

Question 721

this medication specifically blocks reuptake of serotonin (ex. celexa, lexapro, luvox, paxil, zoloft)

Answer 721

selective serotonergic reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Question 722

true or false: SSRIs pose no unique risk of suicide or violence

Answer 722

true

Question 723

are side effects common for SSRIs? (upset stomach, insomnia, physical agitation, sexual dysfunction, or lower sexual desire)

Answer 723

common

Question 724

are side effects of SSRIs generally more or less tolerable than other antidepressants?

Answer 724

more

Question 725

a type of mood stabilizer made of common salt found in the natural environment

Answer 725

lithium

Question 726

primary drug of choice for bipolar disorders

Answer 726

lithium

Question 727

is lithium best suited in lowering suicide risk?

Answer 727

yes

Question 728

true or false: antidepressants are often problematic for BP disorders if not paired with a mood stabilizer

Answer 728

true

Question 729

___ are also commonly used for BP disorders (tegretol and/or depakote) ___ effective at reducing suicide

Answer 729

anticonvulsants ; less

Question 730

dosage of lithium carefully monitored using ___ tests side effects may be ___

Answer 730

blood tests ; severe

Question 731

this psychological treatment of mood disorders addresses cognitive errors in thinking, with the hope of substituting more realistic thoughts -also includes behavioral components (ex. exercise, increased social activities) -collaborative, empirical approach -structured, time-limited; use of homework (thought records)

Answer 731

cognitive therapy (CBT)

Question 732

this psychological treatment of mood disorders involves increased contact with reinforcing events

Answer 732

behavioral activation

Question 733

two components of behavioral activation

Answer 733

exercise and increased social contact

Question 734

this psychological treatment of mood disorders focuses on problematic interpersonal relationships

Answer 734

interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)

Question 735

are psychological treatments (CBT and IPT) comparable to medications?

Answer 735

yes

Question 736

true or false: combined treatment (psychotherapy and medication) may be more useful for chronic depression

Answer 736

true

Question 737

is maintenance treatment important for the prevention of relapse?

Answer 737

yes

Question 738

these studies emphasize the role of family tension in relapses -didactics about illness -work on family communication

Answer 738

milkowitz studies

Question 739

what is the 10th leading cause of death in the US (2010)?

Answer 739

suicide

Question 740

suicide is overwhelmingly a phenomenon among which racial populations?

Answer 740

white and native american

Question 741

two protective factors for suicide:

Answer 741

1. religion (african americans tend to be more religious) 2. familial support (more prevalent in african american cultures)

Question 742

states with the highest rates of suicide:

Answer 742

white, rural, conservative places -high gun ownership -mental health more stigmatized -high white population -lots of alcohol consumption

Question 743

are suicide rates very high or low in elderly populations?

Answer 743

very high

Question 744

are suicide rates higher or lower in those divorced, separated, widowed?

Answer 744

higher ; lowest in those married

Question 745

most common method of suicide

Answer 745

firearm (50% completed)

Question 746

gender differences of suicide: ___ are more likely to commit suicide (4-5x) higher ___ are more likely to attempt suicide (3x higher)

Answer 746

males (commit) ; females (attempt)

Question 747

___ choose more lethal methods (gun, jumping, etc.), while ___ tend more to use pills (more latitude for surviving)

Answer 747

men ; women

Question 748

suicidal attempts (___:___) -ratio of attempts to completions

Answer 748

25:1

Question 749

mental illness is prevalent in ___% of completed suicides

Answer 749

90%

Question 750

true or false: suicide risk may be 6x higher if family member committed suicide

Answer 750

true ; probably a biological connection

Question 751

risk factors for suicide: ___ dysregulation (related to depression, impulsivity, and aggression)

Answer 751

serotonin dysregulation

Question 752

is evidence of a pre existing psychological disorder a risk factor for suicide? -depression is linked to suicide but redundant - ___ is key

Answer 752

yes ; hopelessness is key

Question 753

alcohol use and abuse is implicated in ___-___% of suicides

Answer 753

25-50%

Question 754

is past suicidal behavior a risk factor for suicide?

Answer 754

yes

Question 755

interpersonal-psychological theory of suicide (joiner) 3 key factors:

Answer 755

1. sense of thwarted belongingness 2. perception of self as a burden 3. acquired capability for suicide

Question 756

feeling socially isolated and alone is characteristic of

Answer 756

a sense of thwarted belongingness

Question 757

the belief that others would be better off if individual was not alive is characteristic of

Answer 757

the perception of self as a burden

Question 758

person must desensitize the thought of death and physical pain -repeated attempts (the norm) and non-suicidal self-injury may help with both aspects

Answer 758

acquired capability for suicide

Question 759

professions with high rates of suicide

Answer 759

doctors, vets, first responders, police officers, emts, pilots, army vets, military personnel

Question 760

treatment intervention for suicide: (5 characteristics)

Answer 760

1. never be afraid to ask about suicide 2. well-developed plan? 3. means? 4. no suicide contract - specific treatment plan 5. hospitalization (last resort)

Question 761

three major types of DSM-5 eating disorders

Answer 761

anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge eating disorder

Question 762

characterized by severe disruptions in eating behavior, and extreme fear and apprehension about gaining weight

Answer 762

eating disorders

Question 763

do eating disorders have strong sociocultural origins?

Answer 763

yes ; westernized views

Question 764

what percentage of eating disorders are young females from wealthy families?

Answer 764

90%

Question 765

a collection of signs and symptoms which is restricted to a limited number of cultures primarily be reason of certain of their psychosocial features

Answer 765

culturally bound syndrome

Question 766

is anorexia culturally bound?

Answer 766

no ; descriptions of similar syndrome described in other cultures, a long time ago -AN has been seen in every non-western culture

Question 767

is bulimia culturally bound?

Answer 767

yes ; exists in non-western cultures, but not in the absence of western influence

Question 768

what is the hallmark of bulimia?

Answer 768

binge eating

Question 769

eating excessive amounts of food ; eating is perceived as uncontrollable

Answer 769

binge

Question 770

compensatory behaviors related to bulimia nervosa:

Answer 770

purging and excessive exercise or fasting

Question 771

self-induced vomiting, diuretics, laxatives

Answer 771

purging

Question 772

binge eating and compensatory behaviors occur at least __ a week for ___ months

Answer 772

1 a week for 3 months

Question 773

most are 10% within normal weight -purging can result in severe medical problems -erosion of dental enamel -electrolyte imbalance of sodium and potassium -kidney failure, cardiac arrhythmia, seizures, intestinal problems, permanent colon damage

Answer 773

associated medical features of bulimia nervosa

Question 774

most are overly concerned with body shape -fear of gaining weight -between binges, individuals will typically restrict calories and avoid high fat foods and "trigger foods" -high comorbidity - anxiety, mood, and substance abuse

Answer 774

associated psychological features of bulimia nervosa

Question 775

what is the hallmark of anorexia nervosa?

Answer 775

successful weight loss

Question 776

restriction of energy intake relative to requirements that lead significantly low body weight in context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and health -defined as 15% below expected weight (DSM-IV)

Answer 776

anorexia nervosa

Question 777

how does anorexia often begin?

Answer 777

with dieting ; intense fear of obesity

Question 778

two DSM-5 subtypes of anorexia:

Answer 778

restricting subtype and binge-eating/purging subtype

Question 779

this subtype of anorexia is characterized by limiting caloric intake via diet, fasting, and excessive exercise

Answer 779

restricting subtype

Question 780

this subtype of anorexia is like bulimia, but with significant weight loss

Answer 780

binge-eating/purging subtype

Question 781

marked disturbance in body image -high comorbidity with other psychological disorders -weight loss methods have life threatening consequences -never satisfied with weight - need continuous loss to feel comfortable

Answer 781

associated features of anorexia nervosa

Question 782

amenorrhea (loss of period) -dry skin -brittle nails and hair -sensitivity to cold temperatures -lanugo (downy hair on limbs and cheeks) -cardiovascular problems

Answer 782

medical consequences of anorexia

Question 783

depression, withdrawal, anxiety, irritability, reduced sex drive (may be secondary to starvation)

Answer 783

psychological consequences of anorexia

Question 784

this disorder is characterized by engaging in food binges without compensatory behaviors -perceived loss of control during binges -binging associated with eating more rapidly, until uncomfortably full, when not hungry, feeling embarrassed about intake, feeling disgusted/guilty after -distressed about binge eating

Answer 784

binge eating disorder

Question 785

how often must binge eating occur to be considered binge eating disorder?

Answer 785

once a week for three months

Question 786

many are normal weight or overweight or obese -often older than bulimics or anorexics -more psychopathology vs. non-binging obese people -concerned about shape and weight -binging used as a coping mechanism -no major differences across gender or cultural/racial groups

Answer 786

associated features of binge eating disorder

Question 787

true or false: majority of those with bulimia are female

Answer 787

true (90%)

Question 788

onset for bulimia

Answer 788

16-19 years of age

Question 789

___-___% of college women suffer from bulimia

Answer 789

6-8%

Question 790

does bulimia tend to be chronic if left untreated?

Answer 790

yes

Question 791

risk factors for bulimia (2)

Answer 791

childhood obesity and early pubertal onseet

Question 792

majority of those who have anorexia are:

Answer 792

females from middle-to-upper middle class families

Question 793

when does anorexia usually develop?

Answer 793

around age 13 or early adolescence

Question 794

is anorexia more or less chronic and resistant to treatment than bulimia?

Answer 794

more

Question 795

anorexia is found in ___ cultures

Answer 795

westernized

Question 796

medical treatment of bulimia nervosa: ___ help reduce binging and purging, but are not efficacious in the long term

Answer 796

antidepressants

Question 797

psychological treatment of choice for bulimia nervosa

Answer 797

CBT or interpersonal psychotherapy (does not work as fast as CBT)

Question 798

medical treatment for binge eating disorder

Answer 798

sibutramine (meridian) - used to control hunger

Question 799

psychological treatment for binge eating disorder

Answer 799

CBT, interpersonal therapy

Question 800

medical tretament of anorexia nervosa

Answer 800

none exists with demonstrated efficacy

Question 801

psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa: primary goal

Answer 801

weight restoration

Question 802

is the longterm prognosis for anorexia better or poorer than bulimia?

Answer 802

poorer

Question 803

schizophrenia vs. psychosis

Answer 803

psychosis: broad term (ex. hallucinations, delusions) schizophrenia: a type of psychosis

Question 804

nature of schizophrenia and psychosis: this person used the term dementia praecox (premature dementia) -focused on subtypes of schizophrenia (paranoid, catatonic) -recognized it as a "disease of the brain" -recognized that several distinct symptoms appeared to be part of a broader syndrome -differentiated "dementia praecox" from manic-depressive illness

Answer 804

emil kraepelin

Question 805

nature of schizophrenia and psychosis: this person introduced the term "schizophrenia" -"splitting of the mind" ; inability to keep a consistent train of thought -described "positive" and "negative" symptoms

Answer 805

eugen bleuler

Question 806

characteristic symptoms: two (or more) of the following, each present for a significant portion of time during a 1-month period (or less if successfully treated): -delusions -hallucinations -disorganized speech (frequent derailment or incoherence) -grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior -social/occupational dysfunction -continuous signs of disturbance for at least 6 months -not schizoaffective or mood disorder -not due to substance abuse

Answer 806

DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia

Question 807

active and obvious manifestations of abnormal behavior, excess or distortion of normal behavior

Answer 807

the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

Question 808

two positive symptoms of schizophrenia

Answer 808

delusions and hallucinations

Question 809

distortion in thought content -erroneous beliefs that usually involve a misinterpretation of perception or experiences. beliefs are typically held very strongly

Answer 809

delusions

Question 810

the most common delusion -"the FBI is after me"

Answer 810

persecutory delusion

Question 811

___ delusion: "when madonna waved to the audience, she was really signaling to me"

Answer 811

referential delusion

Question 812

___ delusion: "madonna is in love with me"

Answer 812

erotomanic delusion

Question 813

___ delusion: "my liver is dead and rotting inside me"

Answer 813

somatic delusion

Question 814

___ delusion: "the world is ending"

Answer 814

nihilistic delusion

Question 815

___ delusion: "I am the president of the entire world"

Answer 815

grandiose delusion

Question 816

___ delusions: thought insertion, thought withdrawal, outside forces are controlling one's body or actions

Answer 816

"bizarre" delusions

Question 817

experience of sensory events without environmental input -can experience any sensory mode (auditory, visual, olfactory, gustatory, tactile)

Answer 817

hallucinations

Question 818

___ are the most common hallucinations; usually in the form of "voices," familiar or not, that are heard as being distinct from own thoughts

Answer 818

auditory hallucinations

Question 819

scary form = "___" hallucinations

Answer 819

command hallucinations

Question 820

___ or more voices conversing or ___ voice keeping a running commentary are considered highly characteristic of schizophrenia

Answer 820

two ; one

Question 821

absence or insufficiency of normal behavior

Answer 821

the negative symptoms of schizophrenia

Question 822

spectrum of negative symptoms: (5 A's)

Answer 822

1. avolition (or apathy) 2. alogia 3. anhedonia 4. asociality 5. affective flattening

Question 823

lack of initiation and persistence (ex. lack of hygiene)

Answer 823

avolition (or apathy)

Question 824

relative absence of speech - may be due to a decrease in thought production

Answer 824

alogia

Question 825

lack of pleasure, or indifference

Answer 825

anhedonia

Question 826

limited interest in social interactions

Answer 826

asociality

Question 827

little expressed emotion

Answer 827

affective flattening

Question 828

the disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia include severe and excess disruptions in: (3 components)

Answer 828

1. speech 2. behavior 3. emotion

Question 829

the nature of disorganized speech (3 components)

Answer 829

1. tangentiality (going off on a tangent) 2. loose associations (conversation in unrelated directions) 3. word salad; neologisms (make up new words)

Question 830

nature of disorganized affect

Answer 830

inappropriate emotional behavior - behavior not consistent with context

Question 831

ex. of disorganized affect

Answer 831

smiling when talking about death

Question 832

includes a variety of unusual behaviors (disheveled; odd appearance; inappropriate or unpredictable behavior) -catatonia (wild agitation, waxy flexibility, immobility)

Answer 832

the nature of disorganized behavior

Question 833

schizophrenic symptoms for a few months (less than 6; more than 1) -impaired functioning not required -some never progress on to schizophrenia, but more do (or schizoaffective disorder)

Answer 833

schizophreniform disorder

Question 834

symptoms of schizophrenia and a mood disorder (unlike a mood disorder with psychotic features) -both disorders are independent of one another (at times, you are psychotic when you are not in a mood state) -prognosis is similar for people with schizophrenia -such persons do not tend to get better on their own -need to have delusions and/or hallucinations that are present for at least two weeks in the absence of the mood disorder

Answer 834

schizoaffective disorder

Question 835

two types of schizoaffective disorder:

Answer 835

bipolar type and depressive type

Question 836

if mania is part of the presentation

Answer 836

bipolar type

Question 837

if only major depressive episodes are part of the presentation

Answer 837

depressive type

Question 838

may reflect a less severe form of schizophrenia -immense idiosyncrasies -lies on the schizophrenia spectrum

Answer 838

schizotypal personality disorder

Question 839

defunct subtypes of schizophrenia: (5 types)

Answer 839

1. paranoid type 2. disorganized type (hebephrenic) 3. catatonic type 4. undifferentiated type 5. residual type

Question 839

presence of prominent hallucinations and delusions (usually persecutory or grandeur) but have relatively intact cognitive skills and affect; organized around coherent theme -do not show disorganized behavior (speech, thought, or affect) -later onset -the best prognosis of all types of schizophrenia

Answer 839

paranoid type

Question 839

classification systems and their relation to schizophrenia: process vs. reactive distinction

Answer 839

process: insidious onset, biologically based, negative symptoms, poor prognosis reactive acute onset (extreme stress), notable behavioral activity, best prognosis

Question 840

past diagnosis of schizophrenia -absence of prominent delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech and behavior (positive symptoms have faded, negative symptoms remain) -continue to display less extreme residual symptoms

Answer 840

residual type

Question 841

marked disruptions in speech and behavior -flat or inappropriate affect -hallucinations and delusions, if present, tend to be fragmented (unlike paranoid type) -develops early, tends to be chronic, associated with a continuous course without remissions

Answer 841

disorganized type (hebephrenic)

Question 841

onset of first psychotic episode for men vs. women

Answer 841

men - early to mid 20s women - late 20s bimodal distribution for women (second onset in 40s)

Question 841

when does schizophrenia usually develop?

Answer 841

early adulthood

Question 841

are positive or negative symptoms more treatable?

Answer 841

positive

Question 842

schizophrenia affects males and females about equally, but there is a slightly higher prevalence in ___

Answer 842

men

Question 842

____ tend to have a better long-term prognosis for schizophrenia

Answer 842

females

Question 842

classification systems and their relation to schizophrenia: type I vs. type II distinction

Answer 842

type I: positive symptoms, good response to medication, optimistic prognosis, and absence of intellectual impairment type II: negative symptoms, poor response to medication, pessimistic prognosis, and intellectual impairments

Question 842

wastebasket category (if a patient did not fit in another subtype, they would be classified in this way) -major symptoms of schizophrenia -fail to meet criteria for another type

Answer 842

undifferentiated type

Question 842

high comorbidity of schizophrenia with ___ use disorder and ___ disorders

Answer 842

tobacco use disorders and anxiety disorders

Question 842

what percentage of those with schizophrenia die via suicide? what percentage of those attempt suicide?

Answer 842

5-6% die via suicide ; 20% attempt suicide

Question 843

____ deficits (ex. working memory) are common and partially explain significant functional impairment

Answer 843

cognitive deficits

Question 843

true or false: schizophrenia has a weak genetic component

Answer 843

false ; strong genetic component

Question 844

family studies: inherit a ___ for schizophrenia ; do not inherit specific forms of schizophrenia

Answer 844

tendency

Question 844

monozygotic twins vs. fraternal (dizygotic) twins risk for schizophrenia:

Answer 844

monozygotic: 48% fraternal: 17%

Question 845

according to adoption studies, risk for schizophrenia remains ___ in cases where a biological parent has schizophrenia

Answer 845

high

Question 845

twin studies: both parents schizophrenic - ___% one schizophrenic parent - ___%

Answer 845

46% ; 16%

Question 845

among the most prominent theories of schizophrenia -drugs that increase dopamine (agonists, amphetamines, L-Dopa) result in schizophrenic like behavior -drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) reduce schizophrenic-like behavior and produce side effects that look like parkinson's disease, which is known to be related to too little dopamine

Answer 845

the dopamine hypothesis

Question 846

is the dopamine hypothesis problematic?

Answer 846

yes

Question 847

current theories emphasize many ____ -higher density of dopamine receptors -may make and release more dopamine -excessive stimulation of dopamine D2 receptors in the striatum -deficient stimulation of prefrontal dopamine D1 receptors

Answer 847

neurotransmitters

Question 848

enlarged lateral ventricles (50 studies) ; real problem is that the areas next to the ventricles may never have developed fully or atrophied ; not found in all schizophrenics ; found in "healthy" siblings of schizophrenic patients -less active frontal and temporal lobes -less frontal, temporal, and whole-brain volume (smaller hippocampus - most reliable difference) -BRAIN DYSFUNCTION APPEARS BEFORE ONSET OF SCHIZOPHRENIA

Answer 848

structural and functional abnormalities in the brain

Question 849

classification systems and their relation to schizophrenia: good vs. poor premorbid functioning in schizophrenia

Answer 849

focus on functioning prior to developing schizophrenia (no longer widely used)

Question 849

show unusual motor responses and odd mannerisms (immobility, excessive motor activity, motor negativism - resistance to instructions or attempts to be moved, waxy flexibility) -tends to be severe and quite rare

Answer 849

catatonic type

Question 849

those with schizophrenia exhibit higher or lower intelligence and achievement scores than healthy siblings as children

Answer 849

lower

Question 849

presence of one or more delusions that persist for one month or more -lack other positive and negative symptoms -rare (0.2%) -better prognosis than schizophrenia

Answer 849

delusional disorder

Question 850

normalities or abnormalities in social behavior? more or less socially responsive, more or less positive emotion, better or poorer social adjustment?

Answer 850

abnormalities ; less ; less ; poorer

Question 851

one or more positive symptoms of schizophrenia (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized behavior/speech) -lasts at least 1 day but not longer than 1 month -not due to substance use -usually precipitated by extreme stress or trauma -tends to remit on its own

Answer 851

brief psychotic disorder

Question 852

true or false: delays and abnormalities in motor development (ex. walking)

Answer 852

true

Question 853

subclinical signs of psychosis (unusual ideas and sensory experiences; eccentric behavior - signs of schizotypal personality disorder) show during ___

Answer 853

adolescence

Question 854

mothers exposed to influenza in second trimester may have children more predisposed

Answer 854

viral infections during early prenatal development

Question 855

cognitive dysfunctions are substantial and are linked with functional impairment (2)

Answer 855

episodic memory and executive functioning

Question 856

medical treatment of schizophrenia: historical precursors (5)

Answer 856

1. wrap in wet sheets 2. electric shock 3. insulin comas 4. frontal lobotomies 5. institutionalized

Question 857

what is often a problem with medications for schizophrenic patients?

Answer 857

compliance with medications (3/4 patients stop taking medication for at least 1 week in a two year period)

Question 857

usually the first line treatment for schizophrenia

Answer 857

antipsychotics (neuroleptics)

Question 857

most antipsychotics reduce or eliminate ___ symptoms

Answer 857

positive

Question 858

true or false: acute and permanent side effects are common

Answer 858

true

Question 859

extrapyramidal side effects

Answer 859

movement probleems

Question 860

expressionless face, slow motor activity, shuffling gait

Answer 860

parkinsonian symptoms

Question 861

feeling restless and a need to move

Answer 861

akathisia

Question 862

abnormal muscle tone - muscle spasms

Answer 862

dystonia

Question 863

involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, and jaw (ex. tongue sticking out, chewing motions)

Answer 863

tardive dyskinesia

Question 864

according to this psychologist, personality is an individual's characteristic patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior together with the psychological motivation behind those patterns

Answer 864

finder

Question 865

according to this psychologist, a personality trait is a long-standing pattern of behavior expressed across time and in many different situations

Answer 865

millon

Question 866

five factor model: OCEAN

Answer 866

Openness to experience Conscientiousness Extraversion Agreeableness Neuroticism

Question 867

personality disorders are composed of personality traits that are: (3)

Answer 867

1. inflexible 2. maladaptive 3. cause signification, functional impairment, or subjective distress

Question 868

various ___ disorders are associated with: -decreased social functions -decreased occupation functions -increased risk of substance abuse -increased risk of depression/anxiety -increased risk of schizophrenia -increased risk of suicide -increased risk of imprisonment -increased risk of hospitalization

Answer 868

personality disorders

Question 869

an enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates markedly from the expectations of an individual's culture. this pattern is manifested in two (or more) of the following areas: -cognition -affectivity -interpersonal functions -impulse control

Answer 869

DSM-IV/5 criteria for personality disorders

Question 870

the ways of perceiving and interpreting self, other people, and events

Answer 870

cognition

Question 871

range, intensity, lability, and appropriateness of emotional response

Answer 871

affectivity

Question 872

theoretical issues with personality disorders: comorbidity

Answer 872

if diagnosed with a personality disorder, likely to have more than one

Question 873

certain personality disorders are believed to be more common in men vs. women ___: paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal (cluster A); antisocial, narcissistic, OCPD ___: histrionic, borderline, dependent

Answer 873

men ; women

Question 874

coverage: most common personality disorder diagnosis in clinical practice

Answer 874

PD NOS

Question 875

PD NOS

Answer 875

personality disorder not otherwise specified (have a PD not recognized by the DSM or have features of more than one PD but don't meet criteria for any specific PD but features cause distress/impairment)

Question 876

DSM-5 personality disorders: cluster A is referred to as

Answer 876

"the weird"

Question 877

three cluster A ("the weird") personality disorders

Answer 877

paranoid PD, schizoid PD, and schizotypal PD

Question 878

a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness such that others' motives are interpreted as malevolent

Answer 878

paranoid PD

Question 879

a pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression

Answer 879

schizoid PD

Question 880

a pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and eccentricities of behavior

Answer 880

schizotypal PD

Question 881

which two cluster A personality disorders were almost removed as a diagnosable disorder from DSM-5

Answer 881

paranoid PD and schizoid PD ; only schizotypal to remain

Question 882

DSM-5 cluster B personality disorders are referred to as

Answer 882

"the wild" (dramatic/erratic)

Question 883

4 cluster B ("the wild") personality disorders:

Answer 883

1. antisocial personality disorder 2. borderline personality disorder 3. histrionic personality disorder 4. narcissistic personality disorder

Question 884

a pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others -chronic criminality - chronic violation of rules, laws, norms

Answer 884

antisocial PD

Question 885

a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity -tremendous emotional instability -variability in how you view yourself - no core sense of identity

Answer 885

borderline PD

Question 886

a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking -emotions change in a manipulative/attention-seeking way

Answer 886

histrionic PD

Question 887

a pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy

Answer 887

narcissistic PD

Question 888

DSM-5 cluster C personality disorders are referred to as

Answer 888

"the worried"

Question 889

three cluster C ("the worried") personality disorders:

Answer 889

1. avoidant PD 2. dependent PD 3. OCPD

Question 890

a pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation

Answer 890

avoidant PD

Question 891

a pattern of submissive and clinging behavior related to the excessive need to be taken care of -"you need someone to captain your ship")

Answer 891

dependent PD

Question 892

a patten of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control

Answer 892

OCPD (obsessive-compulsive personality disorder)

Question 893

a pervasive pattern of grandiosity (in fantasy or behavior), need for admiration, and lack of empathy, beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts, as indicated by five (or more) of the following: 1. has a grandiose sense of self-importance 2. is preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, brilliance, beauty, or ideal love 3. believes that he or she is "special" and unique and can only be understood by, or should associate with other special or high-status people (or institutions) 4. requires excessive admiration 5. has a sense of entitlement 6. is interpersonally exploitative 7. lacks empathy 8. is often envious of others or believes that others are envious of him or her 9. shows arrogant, haughty behaviors or attitudes

Answer 893

DSM-5 criteria for narcissistic personality disorder (NPD)

Question 894

assessment issues: self-report vs. other report

Answer 894

problems with both

Question 895

gold standard assessment:

Answer 895

semi-structured interviews

Question 896

psychopathy described by the five factor model: (11 characteristics)

Answer 896

1. glib and superficial charm 2. grandiose sense of self-worth 3. pathological lying 4. conning/manipulative 5. lack of remorse or guilt 6. callous lack of empathy 7. impulsivity 8. irresponsibility 9. early behavior problems 10. parasitic lifestyle 11. failure to accept responsibility for own actions

Question 897

theoretical implications: using a general model of personality is very clearly a dimensional approach - no attempt to delineate normal from "disordered"

Answer 897

dimensional vs. categorical

Question 898

theoretical implications: the number of PD diagnoses patients typically receive varies: 2.4 and 4.6 -comorbidity expected to the extent that the same broad domains and/or specific traits underlie the various PDs

Answer 898

comorbidity

Question 899

theoretical implications: gender differences in prevalence rates of PDs should be consistent with gender differences in general personality functioning

Answer 899

gender differences

Question 900

men lower in aggreableness

Answer 900

antisocial ; narcissistic

Question 901

women higher in neuroticism

Answer 901

borderline ; dependent

Question 902

coverage: most common PD diagnosis in clinical practice

Answer 902

PD NOS (personality disorder not otherwise specified)

Question 903

DSM-5 was set to use a radical new approach, derived largely from the type of FFM-like work -viewed as too untested at the last moment, and was put in section ___ for further study

Answer 903

section III

Question 904

this DSM-5 section approach is: -moderate or greater impairment in personality (self/interpersonal) functioning -one or more pathological traits -inflexible/pervasive -longstanding

Answer 904

section III approach

Question 905

two forms of impairment

Answer 905

self and interpersonal

Question 906

two components of self impairment

Answer 906

identity and self-direction

Question 907

experience oneself as unique, with clear boundaries between self and others; stability of self-esteem and accuracy of self-appraisal; capacity/ability to regulate emotional experience -impairment potentially evidence of a personality disorder

Answer 907

identity

Question 908

pursuit of coherent and meaningful short and long-term goals; use of constructive and prosocial internal standards of behavior; ability to self-reflect

Answer 908

self-direction

Question 909

two components of interpersonal impairment

Answer 909

empathy and intimacy

Question 910

comprehension and appreciation of others’ experiences and motivations; tolerance of differing perspectives; understanding the effects of one’s own behavior on others

Answer 910

empathy

Question 911

depth and duration of connection with others; desire and capacity for closeness; mutuality of regard reflected in interpersonal behavior

Answer 911

intimacy

Question 912

DSM-5 trait model: 5 domains (25 specific traits)

Answer 912

1. negative affectivity 2. detachment 3. antagonism 4. disinhibition 5. psychoticism

Question 912

according to the DSM-5 trait model, only six disorders would remain:

Answer 912

1. schizotypal (cluster A) 2. antisocial (cluster B) 3. borderline (cluster B) 4. narcissistic (cluster B) 5. avoidant (cluster C) 6. OCPD (cluster C)

Question 913

prevalence of personality disorders in the general population

Answer 913

about 0.5% to 2.5% of the general population

Question 914

personality disorders are thought to begin in ___ -predicted by sexual, physical, emotional abuse, neglect

Answer 914

childhood

Question 915

___-___% prevalence of personality disorders in inpatient settings

Answer 915

10-30%

Question 915

personality disorders run a ___ course

Answer 915

chronic

Question 916

comorbidity rates are ___ both within and across different psychopathology (other personality disorders and other disorders)

Answer 916

high

Question 917

men are more likely to have cluster ___ PDs, APD, NPD, OCPD

Answer 917

A

Question 918

women are more likely to have

Answer 918

borderline, histrionic, dependent

Question 919

pervasive and unjustified mistrust and suspicion causes: -biological and psychological contributions are unclear -early learning that the world is a dangerous place -evidence unclear whether it is a variant of a psychotic disorder; research suggests "no" or "maybe" treatment: -few seek professional help on their own -treatment focuses on development of trust -cognitive therapy to counter negativistic thinking -lack of good outcome studies

Answer 919

paranoid PD

Question 920

pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships -not interested in close relationships -little interest in sexual experiences -no close friends -indifferent to praise or criticism -very limited range of emotions in interpersonal situations (takes pleasure in few things; flattened affectivity - appear cold, detached) causes: -etiology unclear -preference for social isolation resembles autism; extreme variant of shyness/introversion treatment options: -few seek professional help on their own -focus on the value of interpersonal relationships -building empathy and social skills -lack good outcome studies

Answer 920

schizoid PD

Question 921

which cluster A PDs were almost removed from the DSM-5? (2)

Answer 921

paranoid and schizoid were going to be removed - only schizotypal to remain

Question 922

odd and unusual behavior, appearance, and cognition -most are socially isolated, highly suspicious (paranoid) -magical thinking, ideas of reference, and illusions -unusual perceptual experiences -many meet criteria for major depression causes: -phenotype of a schizophrenia genotype? -diagnosis came about as a result of research on family members of schizophrenics; higher rates of schizotypal PD in family members of schizophrenic -generalized cognitive deficits treatment options: -main focus on developing social skills -treatment also addresses comorbid depression -medical treatment similar to schizophrenia - use of antipsychotics -treatment prognosis is generally poor

Answer 922

schizotypal PD

Question 923

noncompliance with social norms -violate rights of others -irresponsible, impulsive, and deceitful -lack empathy and remorse -lack concern for safety of self or others -must be evidence of conduct disorder before age 15

Answer 923

antisocial PD

Question 924

early histories of behavioral problems (ex. conduct disorder) -families with inconsistent parental discipline and support -families have histories of criminal and violent behavior

Answer 924

relation with conduct disorder and early behavioral problems

Question 925

neurobiological contributions and treatment of antisocial personality brain damage - little or large support for this view?

Answer 925

little support

Question 926

neurobiological contributions and treatment of antisocial personality underarousal hypothesis: ___ -future criminals have lower skin conductance activity, lower resting heart rate, and more slow frequency brain activity

Answer 926

cortical arousal is too low

Question 927

neurobiological contributions and treatment of antisocial personality cortical immaturity hypothesis - ___ -based on evidence that theta waves are correlated with psychopathy. theta waves uncommon in adults; could be due to lack of anxiety

Answer 927

cortex is not fully developed

Question 928

neurobiological contributions and treatment of antisocial personality fearlessness hypothesis - ___

Answer 928

fail to respond to danger cues

Question 929

this model proposes an underactive "behavioral inhibition system" paired with overactive "behavioral activation system"

Answer 929

gray's model of behavioral inhibition and activation

Question 930

cognitive problem: once psychopathic people have a routine set, they do not take in new information to change course very easily

Answer 930

response modulation difficulties

Question 931

There is a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts, as indicated by 5 (or more) of the following: -Frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment -A pattern of unstable and intense interpersonal relationships characterized by alternating between extremes of idealization and devaluation -Identity disturbance: marked and persistently unstable self-image or sense of self Impulsivity in at least two areas that are potentially self-damaging -Recurrent suicidal behavior, gestures, or threats, or self-mutilating behavior -Affective instability due to marked reactivity of mood -Chronic feelings of emptiness -Inappropriate, intense anger or difficulty controlling anger -Transient stress-related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms

Answer 931

borderline PD

Question 932

most common of ten DSM-IV personality disorders in psychiatric settings

Answer 932

borderline PD

Question 933

the causes: runs in families (see higher rates in families with mood disorders) -early trauma and abuse seem to play some role

Answer 933

causes of borderline PD

Question 934

major theory: biosocial theory (linehan) - two components

Answer 934

emotionally vulnerable individual and invalidating environment

Question 934

excessive reaction to stress; long recovery rate following stressor

Answer 934

emotionally vulnerable individual

Question 935

broadly conceived, being told feelings are not okay or reasonable, being told perceptions are wrong; physical or sexual abuse - invalidates one's autonomy, sense of boundaries, privacy

Answer 935

invalidating environment

Question 936

antidepressant medications - short-term relief antipsychotic - reduces aggression -dealectical behavior therapy (DBT) - most promising treatment

Answer 936

treatment options for borderline PD

Question 937

overly dramatic, sensational, and sexually provocative -impulsive and need to be the center of attention -thinking and emotions are perceived as shallow -common diagnosis in females

Answer 937

histrionic PD

Question 938

etiology largely unknown -sex-typed variant of antisocial personality? variant of NPD?

Answer 938

the causes of histrionic PD

Question 938

focus attention seeking long-term consequences -address problematic interpersonal behaviors -little evidence that treatment is effective

Answer 938

treatment options for histrionic PD

Question 939

exaggerated/unreasonable sense of self-importance -preoccupation with receiving attention -lack sensitivity and compassion for other people -sensitive to criticism, envious, and arrogant -mainly causes social impairment. mildly distressing over time, but secondary to impairment it causes

Answer 939

narcissistic PD

Question 940

link with early failure to learn empathy as a child because of parents’ failure to effectively “mirror” child (Kohut) -parents are spiteful and cold but find 1 talent or quality in the child to reward (ex. Athlete, student, genius). Grandiosity conceals concerns about defectiveness (Kernberg) -child over-valued - parents provide non-contingent praise, attention, and tribute to the child (Millon) Appears that over OR under valuation can cause it. Too much or too little attention; pampering or neglecting; excessive praise or no praise

Answer 940

causes of NPD

Question 941

-extreme sensitivity to the opinions of others -highly avoidant of most interpersonal relationships -interpersonally anxious and fearful of rejection -“look like” schizoid individuals - different motivations for similar outward behavior

Answer 941

avoidant PD

Question 942

numerous factors have been proposed -difficult temperament and early rejection -recall feeling isolated and rejected in childhood -extreme variant of introversion?

Answer 942

causes of avoidant PD

Question 943

several well-controlled treatment outcome studies exist -treatment is similar to that used for social phobia -treatment targets include social skills and anxiety-reduction

Answer 943

treatment options for avoidant PD

Question 944

which cluster C personality disorder was proposed to be removed from DSM-5?

Answer 944

dependent PD

Question 945

reliance on others to make major and minor life decisions -unreasonable fear of abandonment -clingy and submissive in interpersonal relationships -focused on maintenance of supportive/nurturing relationships -correlates strongly with borderline PD

Answer 945

dependent PD

Question 946

still largely unclear -may be due to feelings of incompetence and low self-efficacy -linked to early disruptions in learning independence -early disruption of important attachment relationships -temperamental differences in negative emotionality

Answer 946

causes of dependent PD

Question 947

research on treatment efficacy is lacking -therapy typically progresses gradually -treatment targets include skills that foster independence -on surface, seem to be perfect patient population; must confront patients' dependence on therapy and therapist

Answer 947

treatment options for dependent PD

Question 948

excessive and rigid fixation on doing things the right way (ex. "my way or the highway") -frugal -highly perfectionistic, orderly, and emotionally shallow -true obsessions and compulsions are rare -"can't see the forest for the trees" -looking at the specifics, missing the full picture

Answer 948

obsessive-compulsive PD

Question 949

largely unknown -impairment may be more limited than other PDs

Answer 949

causes of OCPD

Question 950

data supporting treatment are limited -addresses fears related to the need for orderliness -address rumination, procrastination

Answer 950

treatment options for OCPD