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PSYC 3230 - Psychopathology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

this domain of assessment utilizes pictures of the brain

A

neuroimaging

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2
Q

two types of examinations of the brain:

A

structure and function

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3
Q

this examination of the brain assesses whether there is damage; size of various parts

A

structure

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4
Q

this examination of the brain assesses what parts are functioning during specific tasks; looks at blood flow

A

function

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5
Q

two imaging techniques used to assess brain structure:

A

computerized axial tomography (CAT or CT scan) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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6
Q

this scan utilizes x-rays of brain; pictures in slices

A

computerized axial tomography (CAT or CT scan)

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7
Q

does MRI have better resolution than CAT scan? or vice versa?

A

MRI has better resolution than CAT

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8
Q

this imaging technique operates via a strong magnetic field around the head
-more expensive, more time-consuming, and difficult for certain patients to tolerate

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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9
Q

three imaging techniques used to assess brain function:

A
  1. positron emission tomography (PET)
  2. single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
  3. functional MRI (fMRI)
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10
Q
  1. provide detailed information regarding brain function
  2. procedures are expensive; lack adequate norms
  3. procedures have limited clinical utility
A

advantages and limitations of imaging techniques that assess brain FUNCTION

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11
Q

methods used to assess brain structure, function, and activity of the nervous system

A

psychophysiological assessment

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12
Q
  1. electroencephalogram (EEG)
  2. heart rate and respiration
  3. electrodermal response and levels
  4. electromyography (EMG)
  5. penile plethysmograph
A

psychophysiological assessment domains

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13
Q

electroencephalogram (EEG) measures

A

brain wave activity

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14
Q

heart rate and respiration measures

A

cardiorespiratory activity

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15
Q

electrodermal response and levels measure

A

sweat gland activity

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16
Q

electromyography (EMG) measures

A

muscle tension

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17
Q

penile plethysmograph measures

A

sexual arousal

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18
Q

when is a penile plethysmograph used?

A

in instances where someone may not be willing to report sexual arousal

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19
Q

clinical assessment vs. psychiatric diagnosis:

assessment is an ___ approach

A

idiographic approach

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20
Q

this approach emphasizes what is unique to this person (personality traits, family, background, culture, or other circumstances)

A

idiographic approach

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21
Q

clinical assessment vs. psychiatric diagnosis:

diagnosis is a ___ approach

A

nomothetic approach

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22
Q

this approach applies what we know about a person to what we know about people more broadly

-seeing if specific problems fit with a general class of problems

A

nomothetic approach

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23
Q

is clinical assessment or psychiatric diagnosis more important in treatment planning and intervention?

A

both are important

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24
Q

diagnostic classification:

-classification is ___ to all sciences
-develop categories based on ___ attributes

A

central ; shared

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25
Q

terminology of classification systems:

___ is classification in a scientific context

A

taxonomy

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26
Q

terminology of classification systems:

___ is taxonomy in psychological/medical contexts

A

nosology

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27
Q

terminology of classification systems:

___ is nosological labels (ex. panic disorder)

A

nomenclature

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28
Q

two widely used classification systems used to diagnose and classify psychological disorders:

A

international classification of diseases and health related problems (ICD-11) and diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM)

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29
Q

the international classification of diseases and health related problems (ICD-11) is published by the ___

A

world health organization

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30
Q

the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM) is published by the ___

A

american psychiatric association

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31
Q

what is the most current version of the DSM?

A

DSM-5 (2013)

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32
Q

the nature and forms of classification systems:

3 approaches:

A
  1. classical (or pure) categorical approach
  2. dimensional approach
  3. prototypical approach
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33
Q

the nature and forms of classification systems:

classical (or pure) approach pertains to:

A

categories

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34
Q
  1. yes/no decisions
  2. each disorder viewed as fundamentally different from others
  3. clear underlying cause
  4. individual required to meet all requirements for classification
  5. viewed as inappropriate to complexity of psychological disorders
A

characteristics of the classical (or pure) approach

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35
Q

individual required to meet all requirements for classification

A

monothetic

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36
Q

is the classical (or pure) categorical approach monothetic or polythetic?

A

monothetic

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37
Q

the dimensional approach is characterized by classification along ___

A

dimensions

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38
Q
  1. symptoms or disorders existing on a continuum (ex. 0 to 100)
  2. patient might be mildly depressed (60) and moderately anxious (70)
  3. create a profile to represent person’s functioning
  4. no aggreement on number of dimensions or which dimensions required
A

4 characteristics of the dimensional approach

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39
Q

the prototypical approach is both:

A

classical and dimensional

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40
Q
  1. categorical (yes/no decisions) but individual does not have to for every symptom
  2. rather, patient must meet some minimal number of prototypical criteria (ex. 5 of 9 depression symptoms)
A

characteristics of the prototypical approach

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41
Q

is the prototypical approach monothetic or polythetic?

A

polythetic
(creates within-category heterogeneity and presumes homogeneity within the “yes” and “no” group)

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42
Q

3 purposes of the DSM system:

A
  1. aid communication
  2. evaluate prognosis and need for treatment
  3. treatment planning
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43
Q

evolution of the DSM:

these two versions, between these two times, relied on unproven theories and were unreliable
-very freudian - very psychoanalytically driven
-did not have the complex symptom list that they do now

A

DSM-I (1952) and DSM-II (1968)

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44
Q

evolution of the DSM:

DSM ___ through DSM ___
-atheoretical, emphasizing clinical description, not underlying etiology
-detailed criterion sets for disorders
-emphasis on reliability (inter-rater; test-retest)
-questions about validity (many decisions were not empirical - why have to have 4 panic attacks in a 4 week period; why have to be depressed for 2 weeks; why 5 of 9 depression symptoms?)

A

DSM-III (1980) through IV (2000)

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45
Q

evolution of the DSM:

this version of the DSM emphasizes the understanding that many (most) symptoms are not specific to a single disorder, but cut across many disorders (ex. anxiety, depression, suicidal ideation)
-introduction of new dimensional measures that exist across disorders

A

DSM-5 (2013)

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46
Q

-what problems cause distress or impair functioning?
-why do people behave in unusual ways?
-how can we help people behave in more adaptive ways?

A

questions driving a science of psychopathology

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47
Q

basic components of research:

research starts with a ___

A

hypothesis

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48
Q

true or false: all hypotheses are testable

A

false

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49
Q

true or false: a scientific hypothesis must be testable

A

true

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50
Q

can hypotheses be rejected or accepted?

A

yes

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51
Q

research design is a method to test ___

A

hypotheses

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52
Q

the variable that causes or influences behavior

A

independent variable

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53
Q

the behavior is influenced by the independent variable

A

dependent variable

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54
Q

ex. “exercise reduces depression”
what are the independent and dependent variables?

A

independent variable: exercise
dependent variable: ratings of depression

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55
Q

did the independent variable produce the outcomes?
-did you do the study in a competent way so you can have faith in its conclusions?

A

internal validity

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56
Q

are the findings generalizable (ex. to other settings, other locations, other types of samples, other problems)?

A

external validity

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57
Q

must first have ___ validity before external validity

A

internal validity

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58
Q

how can you increase internal validity?

A

by minimizing confounds

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59
Q

factors that might make the results uninterpretable

A

confounds

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60
Q

individuals not exposed to independent variable but are like the experimental group in every other way

A

control group

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61
Q

individuals are assigned to either experimental group or control group randomly; avoid some systematic bias

A

random assignment procedures

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62
Q

study related phenomenon in controlled conditions of laboratory setting (ex. alcohol)

A

analog models

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63
Q

relation between internal and external validity

A

can be at odds
-want to control any confounds that could impact results
-BUT, also want results to generalize to the “real world”

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64
Q

researchers work hard to balance these competing needs by:

A

creating multiple studies

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65
Q

these methods help protect against biases in evaluating data

A

statistical methods

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66
Q

are these results due to chance?

A

statistical significance

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67
Q

3 components of statistical significance:

A
  1. size of effect (correlation; difference in means)
  2. level of significance
  3. sample size
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68
Q

are the results clinically meaningful?

A

clinical significance

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69
Q

does statistical significance imply clinical meaningfulness?

A

no

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70
Q

extensive observation and detailed description of a client
-foundation for early developments in psychopathology

A

nature of the case study

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71
Q
  1. lack scientific rigor and suitable controls
  2. internal validity is typically weak
  3. often entails numerous confounds (finding unique to individual ; more inference from “researcher”)
A

limitations of case study

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72
Q

statistical relation between two or more variables
-no independent variable is manipulated

A

the nature of correlation

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73
Q

a problem of directionality (ex. breakups and depression) exists between ___ and ___

A

correlation and causation

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74
Q

true or false: correlation does not mean causation (ex. smoking and drinking)

A

true

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75
Q

nature or correlation and strength of association:

-rank from ___ to ___
___ vs. ___ correlation

A

rank from -1 to 1
negative vs. positive correlation

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76
Q

why use correlation studies?

A

in instances where you can’t randomly assign individual to groups and can’t manipulate the independent variable

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77
Q

this form of research studies incidence, prevalence, and course of disorders - looking for clues about the disorder

A

epidemiological research

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78
Q

number of new cases during a specified time

A

incidence

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79
Q

number of people with a disorder at any given time

A

prevalence

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80
Q

more or less common in certain populations

A

distribution

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81
Q

epidemiological research examines what factors are associated with ___
-ex. gender, socioeconomic status, certain behaviors

A

frequency

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82
Q

the goal of epidemiological research

A

to find clues as to the etiology of disorders

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83
Q

the nature of experimental research: 4 components

A
  1. manipulation of independent variables (ex. therapy or no)
  2. random assignment
  3. attempt to establish causal relationship
  4. premium on internal validity
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84
Q

____ are necessary to show that independent variable is responsible for observed changes

A

control groups

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85
Q

should the control group be nearly identical to the treatment groups?

A

yes

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86
Q

what does the placebo group ensure regarding treatment?

A

that the treatment effect is not due to an expectation that one will improve

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87
Q

placebo is easy to do with ___, but less so with ___ treatment

A

medications ; psychological treatment

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88
Q

within this control, both researchers and participants are unaware of their group assignment

A

double blind

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89
Q

this is often the next step after showing that treatment is better than placebo

A

type group design

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90
Q

this type of treatment design compares different forms of treatment in similar persons (psychotherapy vs. medication vs. combination)
-addressed treatment outcome (did change occur)

A

comparative treatment designs

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91
Q

dismantling studies (breaking study into parts and removing or focusing on certain aspects) is necessary to figure out the “___” components of the treatment

A

“active”

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92
Q

-systematic study of individuals under a variety of conditions
-rigorous study of single cases: manipulations of experimental conditions and time
-repeated measurement (rather than just once before and after)
-premium on internal validity

A

nature of single subject design

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93
Q

two types of single subject design:

A

withdrawal design and multiple baseline design

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94
Q

3 components of withdrawal design:

A
  1. baseline
  2. treatment
  3. withdrawal
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95
Q

gives psychologists a better sense if treatment causes changes

A

assets of the withdrawal design

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96
Q

involves removing a treatment that might be helpful; risking relapse; learning that it is impossible to “withdraw” most psychological treatments (once learned, can’t force a patient to unlearn them)

A

liabilities

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97
Q

this type of single subject design is characterized by not starting and stopping treatment, but rather starting intervention at different times across settings or behaviors

A

multiple baseline design

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98
Q

assets of multiple baseline design

A

don’t have to withdrawal treatment

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99
Q

liabilities of multiple baseline design

A

still making conclusion of the basis of a small number of people

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100
Q

this research strategy examines the interaction among genes, experience, and behaviors

A

genetic research strategiees

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101
Q

genetic research strategies examine the relationship between

A

phenotype (observable characteristics or behaviors) and genotype (genetic make-up)

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102
Q

4 strategies used in genetic research:

A
  1. family studies
  2. adoptee studies
  3. twin studies
  4. genetic wide association studies
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103
Q

this genetic research strategy examines the behavioral pattern/emotional traits in family members

A

family studies

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104
Q

problem with family studies

A

cannot distinguish between environmental and genetic factors

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105
Q

this genetic research strategy allows separation of environmental and genetic factors (are children more like adoptive parents or biological parents?)

A

adoptee studies

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106
Q

there are a number of studies looking at ___ via adoption studies

A

crime

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107
Q

does research suggest some heritable component for crime?

A

yes

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108
Q

this genetic research strategy evaluates psychopathology in fraternal vs. identical twins

A

twin studies

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109
Q

risk of developing schizophrenia (given the other twin has it) for both monozygotic and dizygotic twins:

A

mono: 48%
di: 17%

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110
Q

this genetic research strategy locates the site of related genes

A

genetic wide association studies

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111
Q

studying behavior over time may help us understand ____ factors for the manifestation of a disorder

A

precipitating factors

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112
Q

studying behavior over time is important in two forms of research:

A

prevention research and treatment research

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113
Q

study of risk factors for development of disorder (biological, psychological, environmental)

A

importance of studying behavior for prevention research

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114
Q

what helps individuals recover? (ex. psychoeducation, emotional support, medication, behavioral activation)

A

importance of studying behavior for treatment research

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115
Q

two types of time-based research strategies:

A

cross-sectional designs and longitudinal designs

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116
Q

this experimental design takes a cross selection of the population across different age groups and compares on a certain characteristic

A

cross-sectional design

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117
Q

is a cross-sectional study easier or harder than a longitudinal study? does it take more or less time?

A

easier ; less

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118
Q

cross-sectional designs are ___, meaning that all assessments are at the same time

A

all concurring

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119
Q

participants in each age group

A

cohorts

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120
Q

confounding effect of age and experience

A

cohort effect

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121
Q

what is a major limitation of cross-sectional designs?

A

cohort effect

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122
Q

2 limitations of cross-sectional designs

A
  1. tell us little about how problems develop
  2. can tell us that two variables are related, but not causal information
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123
Q

this experimental design follows one group over time and assesses changes in individuals

A

longitudinal design

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124
Q

is there a cohort effect problem within longitudinal designs?

A

no ; no cohort effect problem

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125
Q

this experimental design gets us closer to understanding causality (order of relationship, depression leads to fewer friends vs. fewer friends leads to depression)

A

longitudinal design

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126
Q

5 problems with longitudinal design:

A
  1. takes a long time to do
  2. expensive
  3. must worry about patient attrition
  4. study topic may no longer be relevant by the time the study is complete
  5. cross-generational effect
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127
Q

people leaving the study

A

attrition

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128
Q

may not be possible to generalize study effects to other groups whose experiences are quite different

A

cross-generational effect

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129
Q

true or false: good internal validity does not equate to good external validity

A

true

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130
Q

what is the ‘cohort effect equivalent’ of longitudinal designs?

A

cross-generational effect

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131
Q

value of cross-cultural research: (2)

A
  1. can be informative
  2. overcomes ethnocentric research
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132
Q

how is studying abnormal behavior from various cultures informative?

A

tells us about origins and treatment of disorders from different perspectives

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133
Q
  1. clarify how psychopathology manifests in different ethnic groups (same terminology may “look” or “feel” very different across cultures
  2. different thresholds for abnormal behavior
  3. treatment exists within cultural context
A

3 issues in cross cultural research

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134
Q

components of a research program:

true or false: no one study will definitively answer the question

true or false: studies proceed by asking slightly different questions, using slightly different procedures

A

true ; true

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135
Q

are research programs conducted in stages? do research programs involve replication?

A

yes ; yes

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136
Q

scientific knowledge typically builds incrementally or radically?

A

incrementally

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137
Q

what is vital for a research program?

A

replication

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138
Q

difference between anxiety and fear

A

anxiety is a future oriented mood state, while fear is a present-oriented mood state

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139
Q

how is anxiety characterized?

A

marked negative effect

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140
Q

anxiety is characterized by ___ symptoms of tension

A

somatic (ex. headache, muscle ache, gastrointestinal issues)

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141
Q

apprehension about future danger or misfortune

A

anxiety

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142
Q

fear is characterized by an immediate ___ or ___ response to danger or threat

A

fight or flight

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143
Q

fear is characterized by strong ___/___ tendencies

A

avoidance/escapist

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144
Q

fear abruptly activates the ___ nervous system

A

sympathetic

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145
Q

true or false: anxiety and fear are normal emotional states

A

true

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146
Q

3 characteristics of anxiety disorders:

A
  1. psychological disorders
  2. excessive avoidance and escapist tendencies
  3. causes clinically significant distress and impairment
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147
Q

pervasive and persistent symptoms of anxiety and fear

A

psychological disorders

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148
Q

abrupt experience of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by several physical symptoms

A

panic attack

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149
Q

2 types of panic attacks, according to the DSM-5

A

expected and unexpected

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150
Q

this panic attack happens in context of obvious cue or trigger

A

expected panic attack

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151
Q

this panic attack happens in context devoid of clear cue or trigger

A

unexpected panic attack

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152
Q

is panic disorder characterized by unexpected or expected panic attacks?

A

both

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153
Q

this type of panic attack may be seen more in phobias

A

expected

154
Q

true or false: panic attack specifier can be used for any diagnosis in DSM-5, anxiety or other (ex. depression with panic attacks)

A

true

155
Q

how common are panic attacks? what is the 12 month prevalence?

A

pretty common ; 11%

156
Q

how can ‘specifier’ be remembered?

A

as toppings on a pizza - can be added on

157
Q

biological contributions to anxiety and panic:

diathesis-stress

A

-inherit vulnerability for anxiety and panic, not disorders
2. stress and life circumstances activate vulnerability

158
Q

two biological causes and inherent vulnerabilities of anxiety and panic

A
  1. anxiety and brain circuits
  2. behavioral inhibition system
159
Q

3 anxiety and brain circuits

A

GABA, noradrenergic, and serotonergic system

160
Q

lower levels (GABA, serotonin) =

A

more anxiety

161
Q

higher levels (noradrenaline) =

A

more anxiety

162
Q

activated by signals from brain stem of unexpected events, such as major changes in bodily functioning, that might signal danger

A

behavioral inhibition system

163
Q

what type of measures are used within the behavioral inhibition system?

A

self-report measures

164
Q

when the ___ is activated, we tend to “freeze,” experience anxiety, and anxiously evaluate the environment for signs of danger

A

behavioral inhibition system (BIS)

165
Q

true or false: the behavioral inhibition system is thought to be distinct from circuit involved with panic

A

true

166
Q

when this system is aroused, it produces an immediate “alarm and escape” response

A

fight or flight system

167
Q

how may environmental factors change the sensitivity of brain circuits?

A

causing one to be more or less apt to develop an anxiety disorder

168
Q

this psychologist believed that anxiety is a psychological reaction to danger (but tied to early infant/childhood fears)

A

freud

169
Q

this view characterizes anxiety and fear as a result from classical and operant conditioning and modeling (vicarious learning)

A

behaviorist view

170
Q

early experiences with uncontrollability and/or unpredictability
-parents can, through their behavior, pass on lesson that the child had some impact on their environment, AND that the child can cope with a world that is unpredictable

A

psychological view

171
Q

is comorbidity common across anxiety disorders?

A

yes

172
Q

approximately ___% of patients with an anxiety disorder have another secondary diagnosis

A

50%

173
Q

what is the most common secondary diagnosis for anxiety disorders?

A

major depression

174
Q

excessive uncontrollable anxious apprehension and worry about a number of events of activities; worry and anxiety interfere with ability to function and/or cause distress

A

generalized anxiety disorders

175
Q

to be diagnosed with GAD, symptoms must persist for ___ months or more

A

6 months

176
Q

to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), an individual must have 3+ of the following symptoms: (6 total)

A
  1. restlessness
  2. easily fatigued
  3. difficulty concentrating/mind going blank
  4. irritability
  5. muscle tension
  6. sleep disturbance
177
Q

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and “normal worry”

more or less pervasive and distressing?

A

more pervasive and distressing

178
Q

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and “normal worry”

lasts longer or shorter?

A

lasts longer

179
Q

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and “normal worry”

occurs with or without triggers

A

occurs without triggers

180
Q

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and “normal worry”

do worries come with or without physical symptoms?

A

with physical symptoms

181
Q

differences between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and “normal worry”

associated with ___ symptoms, such as GI distress and exaggerated startle response

A

somatic

182
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) affects ___% of the general population

A

3%

183
Q

females outnumber males approximately ___:___ with GAD

A

2:1

184
Q

GAD onset is often

A

insidious

185
Q

median age of onset for GAD

A

30

186
Q

GAD presence ___ in middle age, and ___ later in life

A

peaks; declines

187
Q

symptoms of GAD tend to ___ and ___ across life ; full remission is ___

A

wax and wane ; rare

188
Q

___ onset of GAD is associated with greater comorbitity and impairment

A

earlier

189
Q

genetic factors account for ___% of the variability of GAD

A

30%

190
Q

temperamental factors of GAD:

___ behavioral inhibition; neuroticism
-adults who develop GAD were more emotionally-fragile children

A

high

191
Q

are environmental factors that cause GAD clear?

A

no

192
Q

cognitive factors of GAD

A

highly sensitive to threat

193
Q

treatment of GAD:

are drug or psychological interventions effective?

A

both

194
Q

2 medications used in treatment for GAD:

A

benzodiazepines and antidepressants

195
Q

help provide immediate, short-term relief for GAD
-impairs motor and cognitive functioning, can produce dependence (psychological and physical)
-abuse potential

A

benzodiazepines

196
Q

proving useful in treatment of GAD
-lower side effects

A

antidepressants

197
Q

this form of treatment for GAD has better long-term benefits
-cognitive-behavioral therapy evokes and confronts anxiety provoking images and thoughts by challenging automatic, “irrational” thoughts that lead to anxiety

A

psychological treatment

198
Q

recurrent unexpected panic attacks (discrete period of intense fear or discomfort with four or more symptoms (palpitations, sweating, trembling, sensation of shortness of breath, choking, chest pain, chills, or heat sensations, numbness/tingling, nausea, feeling dizzy, fear of dying))

A

panic disorder

199
Q

at least one of the attacks must be followed by 1 month or more of one or both:

A
  1. persistent worry about having additional attacks or their consequences
  2. significant maladaptive change in behavior related to attacks
200
Q

12 month prevalence of panic disorder

A

2-3%

201
Q

___ with panic disorder are female

A

2/3

202
Q

onset of panic disorder is often ___

A

acute

203
Q

when does onset of panic disorder begin?

A

between ages 20 to 24

204
Q

symptoms of panic disorder often ___ and ___ over lifespan, but tends to be ___ (if untreated)

A

wax and wane ; chronic

205
Q

waking from sleep while experiencing panic symptoms; not usually due to dreams

A

nocturnal panic attacks

206
Q

associated features of panic disorder:

are general physical/health concerns typical or atypical among those with panic disorder?

A

typical

207
Q

associated features of panic disorder:

true or false: those with panic disorder tend to be sensitive to medication side effects

A

true

208
Q

associated features of panic disorder:

do people with panic disorders have concerns about ability to function due to panic?

A

yes

209
Q

associated features of panic disorder:

is there any link between substance use and controlling panic?

A

may see excessive substance use to control panic

210
Q

associated features of panic disorder:

true or false: those with panic disorder avoid panic cues (ex. exercise)

A

true

211
Q

true or false: individuals with panic disorder have a biological predisposition to be “over-reactive” to life’s events. some will have an “emergency alarm reaction” (ex. heart racing, sweating, breathing heavily) as a response to a stressor

A

true

212
Q

medication treatment of panic disorder targets 3 systems:

A

serotonergic, noradrenergic, and benzodiazepine GABA systems

213
Q

what are the preferred drugs used in the treatment of panic disorders?

A

SSRIs

214
Q

are relapsee rates high or low for individuals with panic disorder after medication discontinuation?

A

high

215
Q

what type of psychological treatment is highly effective for panic disorder?

A

cognitive-behavioral therapy

216
Q

not going out in crowded places

A

agoraphobia

217
Q

true or false: it is helpful to create panic (mini-panic attacks) in cognitive-behavioral therapy sessions as exposure for those with panic disorder

A

true

218
Q

this therapy alone creates the best long-term outcome for those with panic disorder

A

cognitive-behavior therapy

219
Q

characterized by an extreme and irrational fear of a specific object or situation
-this object/situation almost always provokes intense fear and anxiety
-fear is out of proportion with actual danger
-causes significant distress/impairment
-still go to great lengths to avoid phobic objects or endures with great distress

A

specific phobia

220
Q

12 month prevalence of phobia

A

7-9% (one of the most prevalent)

221
Q

this phobia has an entirely different physiological response (drop in blood pressure and heart rate)
-may have strongest heritability
-unique susceptibility to fainting

A

blood-injury-injection phobia

222
Q

phobia of public transportation or enclosed placees (ex. planes)

A

situational phobia

223
Q

phobia of events occurring in nature (ex. heights, storms)

A

natural environment phobia

224
Q

phobia of animals and insects

A

animal phobia

225
Q

these phobias do not fit into the other categories (ex. fear of choking, vomiting, clowns, etc.)

A

other phobias

226
Q

is direct conditioning a cause of phobia?

A

yes

227
Q

is experiencing a panic attack in a specific situation a cause of phobia?

A

yes

228
Q

true or false: observing (vicarious learning) someone else’s fear is a cause of phobia

A

true

229
Q

is information transmission (being told about danger) a cause of phobia?

A

yes

230
Q

more likely to develop fear for certain objects - an inherited tendency to fear things that have always been dangerous to humans (ex. snakes, storms, heights)

A

biological and evolutionary vulerability

231
Q

____ are highly effective in treating phobias

A

cognitive-behavioral therapies

232
Q

this type of therapy builds an anxiety hierarchy, and can use counter-conditioning and modeling
-uses SUDS

A

exposure therapy

233
Q

subjective units of distress

A

SUDS

234
Q

marked fear/anxiety about one or more social situations in which individual is exposed to scrutiny/judgment of others

A

social anxiety

235
Q

social anxiety is most common in ___/___ situations (ex. speaking, eating, using restroom, writing, typing)

A

social/performance

236
Q

true or false: social situations must almost always provoke fear or anxiety for one to be diagnosed with social anxiety

A

true

237
Q

out of proportion fear from social anxiety causes distress and impairment ; must last for ___ months or more

A

6 months

238
Q

12 month prevalence of social anxiety

A

7%

239
Q

are females or males slightly more represented than males? the ratio is close to ___:___

A

females ; 2:1

240
Q

when does onset for social anxiety usually occur? majority have it onset between ___ and ___ years

A

adolescence ; 8 to 15 years

241
Q

evolutionary vulnerability to social anxiety

A

evolved to fear disapproving faces

242
Q

some individuals born with a shy, inhibited temperament. introverted individuals are chronically more aroused and thus need less stimulation. social/performance experiences may cause over-arousal

A

biological vulnerability to social anxiety

243
Q

taught that social evaluation is important and/or dangerous via direct conditioning, observational learning, or information transmission

A

psychological factors that can cause social anxiety

244
Q

4 medication treatments of social anxiety

A
  1. beta blockers
  2. tricyclic antidepressants
  3. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
  4. SSRI paxil
245
Q

this blood-pressure medication dampens the fight or flight response, but is somewhat ineffective
-can be taken before giving a big talk

A

beta blockers

246
Q

this medication reduces social anxiety (have to be on it for several weeks for it to be effective)

A

tricyclic antidepressants

247
Q

this medication reduces anxiety

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

248
Q

this medication is FDA approved for social anxiety disorder

A

SSRI Paxil

249
Q

are relapse rates for social anxiety high or low following medication discontinuation?

A

high

250
Q

are cognitive-behavioral therapies effective for social anxiety?

A

highly effective

251
Q

what appears to be the most important component within cognitive-behavioral therapy for social anxiety disorder?

A

exposure portion

252
Q

persistent, recurrent, and intrusive thoughts, images, or urges that one tries to resist or eliminate
-ex. “did i turn my stove off, did i turn my stove off…”

A

obsessions

253
Q

feels intrusive and out of one’s own control. not consistent with “regular” thought content

A

ego-dystonic

254
Q

repetitive thoughts or actions that a person feels driven to perform or according to rigid rules

A

compulsions

255
Q

goal of compulsions

A

to prevent or reduce distress associated with the obsession

256
Q

3 specifiers for OCD:

A
  1. good to fair insight
  2. poor insight
  3. absent insight/delusional
257
Q

recognizes OCD beliefs may not be true

A

good to fair insight

258
Q

OCD beliefs probably true

A

poor insight

259
Q

convinced OCD beliefs are true

A

absent insight/delusional

260
Q

12 month prevalence of OCD:

A

1.2%

261
Q

most people with OCD are ___ (although more ___ have the disorder in childhood)

A

female ; males

262
Q

OCD tends to be ___, especially if untreated

A

chronic

263
Q

onset is typically in early ___ or ___ (mean age = 20)
-high comorbidity with ___ disorders

A

adolescence or adulthood ; tic disorders

264
Q

are genetic factors a probable cause of OCD?

A

yes

265
Q

is lower or greater neuroticism a cause of OCD?

A

greater neuroticism

266
Q

having the thought becomes equated with the action
-ex. i thought about hitting that woman with my car - “i hit that woman with my car”

A

thought-action fusion

267
Q

medication treatment of OCD:

clomipramine and other SSRIs benefit about ___%

A

60%

268
Q

___ is used as a medication treatment for OCD in extreme cases

A

psychosurgery (lesion the brain only used in extreme cases)

269
Q

is relapse common or uncommon with medication discontinuation for OCD?

A

common

270
Q

this psychological treatment for OCD is most effective

A

cognitive-behavioral therapy

271
Q

CBT for OCD involves ___ and ___ prevention

A

exposure and response prevention

272
Q

requires exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence: directly experiencing events; witnessing, in person events; learning of events that occurred to close family member/friend; experiencing repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of traumatic events

A

post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

273
Q

recurrent, intrusive, involuntary memories; distressing dreams; dissociative reactions (flashbacks), intense distress at cues of events (internal or external) physiological reactions to cues

A

intrusive symptoms of PTSD

274
Q

is the avoidance of stimuli associated with events common for those with PTSD? (memories, thoughts, feelings associated with events ; reminders of events)?

A

yes

275
Q

inability to remember important details; exaggerated negative beliefs about oneself, others; world; distorted cognitions about cause (ex. blame), negative emotional states, diminished interest or participation in significant activities, detachment, or estrangement from others; anhedonia

A

negative alterations in thoughts or mood associated with PTSD

276
Q

loss of ability to feel pleasure

A

anhedonia

277
Q

irritability/anger; recklessness/self-destructive behavior; hypervigilance; exaggerated startle; sleep and concentration problems

A

alterations in arousal/reactivity associated with traumatic events

278
Q

to be diagnosed with PTSD, disturbance must last ___ month or more

A

1 month

279
Q

PTSD specifier:

A

with dissociative symptoms

280
Q

2 dissociative symptoms

A

depersonalization and derealization

281
Q

feel detached from oneself and one’s thoughts/feelings; behaviors

A

depersonalization

282
Q

sense of unreality; experience of world as distorted, surreal, or dreamlike

A

derealization

283
Q

lifetime prevalence vs. 12 month prevalence of PTSD

A

lifetime = 8.7%
12 month = 3.5%

284
Q

higher rates of PTSD among

A

veterans, certain vocations (police, EMT), survivors of rape, combat, captivity, etc.

285
Q

when do symptoms of PTSD usually begin?

A

within 3 months of trauma, although delayed expression is not uncommon

286
Q

childhood emotional problems, other mental disorders; lower education, lower socioeconomic status, prior trauma, lower intelligence, female gender and younger age at time of trauma

A

risk factors of PTSD prior to trauma

287
Q

severity of trauma, perceived life threat, personal injury, dissociation. for veterans, killing the enemy, witnessing atrocities, participating in atrocities
-peri trauma factors

A

risk factors for PTSD during trauma

288
Q

psychological treatment of PTSD

A

cognitive-behavioral treatment involving graduated or massed imaginal exposure (re-experience event in safe, controlled environment)

289
Q

___ may be effective in reducing the anxiety and panic associated with PTSD

A

SSRIs

290
Q

4 types of depressive disorders

A
  1. major depressive disorder
  2. persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)
  3. premenstrual depressive disorder
  4. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
291
Q

this depressive disorder has a longer duration, but less severe symptoms

A

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

292
Q

this depressive disorder refers to children who have a lot of temper tantrums

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

293
Q

3 bipolar and related disorders

A
  1. bipolar I disorder
  2. bipolar II disorder
  3. cyclothymic disorder
294
Q

5 or more symptoms present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from previous functioning. At least one must be depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure

-depressed mood most of day, nearly every day
-marked diminished interest or pleasure in all, or most activities
-significant weight loss when not dieting or gain or decrease/increase in appetite
-insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
-psychomotor agitation or retardation (observable to others)
-fatigue or loss of energy
-feelings of worthlessness or excessive/inappropriate guilt
-diminished ability to think clearly or concentrate; indecisive
recurrent thoughts of death, suicidal ideation, or attempt
-single episode - relatively unusual
-recurrent episodes (must be separated by two months during which criteria not met) - more common

A

major depressive disorder

295
Q

recurrance of major depressive disorder is higher in ___ individuals, people whose last episode was ___, and people who have already had ___ episodes

A

younger ; severe ; multiple

296
Q

depressed mood most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years (1 for children/adolescents)
-milder or fewer symptoms

2 of the following: poor appetite or overeating; insomnia or hypersomnia; low energy/fatigue; low self-esteem; poor concentration; difficulty making decisions; feelings of hopelessness

-can persist unchanged over long periods - greater than or equal to 20 years

A

dysthymia (persistent depressive disorder)

297
Q

onset for dysthymia

A

early onset - before age 21

298
Q

true or false: there is greater chonicity, poorer prognosis, and more comorbid diagnoses (ex. personality disorders, substance use) for dysthymia

A

true

299
Q

in majority of cycles, 5 symptoms in final week before onset of menses; start to improve after onset of menses, minimal or absent in week postmenses

-affective lability (mood swings)
-irritability; anger; interpersonal conflict
-depressed mood; hopelessness
-anxiety; tension
-decreased interest in activities
-poorer concentration
-lethargy; lack of energy
-change in appetite and sleep
-feel overwhelmed or out of control
-physical symptoms (bloating; tenderness)

A

premenstrual dysphoric disorder

300
Q

prevalence of premenstrual dysphoric disorder over 12 months

A

2.6%

301
Q

treatment for premenstrual dysphoric disorder (3)

A

SSRIs, cognitive-behavioral therapy, birth control pill

302
Q

essential feature of bipolar I disorder

A

occurrence of one or more manic episodes or mixed episodes (depression and mania)
-individuals typically have or will experience a major depressive episode

303
Q

distinct period of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally increased goal directed activity or energy: (1 week)

A

mania

304
Q

to be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder, individuals must portray ___ of the following symptoms:

-inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
-decreased need for sleep
-more talkative; pressured speech
-flight of ideas; racing thoughts
-distractibility
-increase in goal-directed behavior
-excessive involvement in pleasurable activities

A

3 or more

305
Q

average age of onset for bipolar I disorder

A

18 years

306
Q

___% or more of individuals with 1 manic episode have recurrent mood episodes

A

90%

307
Q

true or false: bipolar I disorder tends NOT to be chronic

A

false

308
Q

suicide rate for people with bipolar I disorder verses the general population

A

15x higher for those with bipolar I

309
Q

key difference between bipolar I and bipolar II

A

mania - bipolar I
hypomania - bipolar II

310
Q

in order to be diagnosed with bipolar II disorder, individuals must

A

meet criteria for current or past hypomanic episode and current or past depressive episode

311
Q

main difference from mania is that the symptoms aren’t severe enough to cause serious impairment or hospitalization

A

hypomania

312
Q

true or false: individuals with BP-II usually come to treatment because of depression
-learn of hypomania later on (often from informants)
-many don’t receive BP-II diagnosis until after experiencing multiple depressive episodes

A

true

313
Q

average age of onset for BP-II

A

mid 20s, but can begin in childhood

314
Q

true or false: most people with BP-II progress to full BP-I

A

false

315
Q

___% to ___% of BP-II cases progress to BP-I

A

5% to 15%

316
Q

does BP-II tend to be chronic and impairing?

A

yes

317
Q

is suicide risk for BP-II lower or higher than that for BP-I?

A

equally high

318
Q

more chronic version of bipolar disorder (2 years or more; 1 if child/adolescent)

-numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms (that don’t meet full criteria for hypomania) and depressive symptoms (that don’t meet the criteria for major depression)
-manic or depressive mood states are present for at least half of the time (without remitting for greater than 2 months)

A

cyclothymic disorder

319
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

tense; restless; worry; catastrophic thoughts; concerns for one that will lose control

A

anxious distress

320
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

symptoms of mania or hypomania during depressive episodes (ex. grandiosity; more talkative; increased energy)

A

mixed features

321
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

mood reactivity, weight gain/appetite increase, hypersomnia, sensitivity to rejection

A

atypical

322
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

near absence of pleasure; not reactive to pleasurable stimuli; profound despair, symptoms worse in the morning; EMAs (early morning awakenings); anorexia or weight loss; guilt

A

melancholic

323
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

absence of movement - very serious

A

catatonic

324
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

mood congruent or incongruent hallucinations/delusions

A

psychotic

325
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

depressive episodes during pregnancy or within 4 weeks of childbirth

A

peripartum

326
Q

additional defining criteria for mood disorders: symptom specifiers

pattern of relationships between onset of depressive episodes and seasons

A

seasonal pattern

327
Q

worldwide lifetime prevalence for major depression

A

16.1%

328
Q

worldwide lifetime prevalence for dysthymia

A

3.6%

329
Q

worldwide lifetime prevalence for bipolar

A

1.3%

330
Q

worldwide lifetime prevalence for cyclothymia

A

<1%

331
Q

___ are more likely to suffer from major depression (rate changes after puberty)

A

females

332
Q

___ disorders equally effect males and females

A

bipolar disorders

333
Q

does the prevalence of depression vary across subcultures?

A

no

334
Q

relation between anxiety and depression:

A

most depressed people are anxious, but not all anxious people are depressed

335
Q

according to family studies, the rate of mood disorders is ___ in relatives of probands

A

high

336
Q

the person with the disorder

A

proband

337
Q

rate of mood disorders is ___ to ___ times higher in family members of a mood disordered individual

A

2 to 3

338
Q

according to twin studies, concordance rates are ___ in identical twins

A

high

339
Q

according to twin studies, ___ cases have a sronger genetic contribution

A

severe

340
Q

according to twin studies, heritability rates are approximately ___ for men and women

A

equal

341
Q

___ regulates other neurotransmitters - most targeted by antidepressants

A

serotonin

342
Q

-low serotonin allows other neurotransmitter to vary more substantially and thus become dysregulated (too much or too little), which can lead to mood dysregulation
-balance between neurotransmitters probably more important than absolute levels

A

the “permissive” hypothesis

343
Q

endocrine system:

elevated ___ (“stress hormone” ; increases energy, attention ; lowered pain sensitivity)
-may impact depression by reducing the ability to develop new neurons (particularly in the hippocampus)

A

cortisol

344
Q

hallmark of most mood disorders

A

sleep disturbance

345
Q

enter REM sleep more quickly, experience less slow wave, “deep” sleep

A

relation between depression and sleep

346
Q

___ is strongly related to mood disorders

-poorer response to treatment
-longer time before remission
-better predictor of initial episodes than later recurrences

A

stress

347
Q

this theory of depression is related to a lack of perceived control over life events

A

the learned helplessness thoery of depression

348
Q

3 depressive attributional styles:

A
  1. internal attributions
  2. stable attributions
  3. global attribution
349
Q

Negative outcomes are one’s own fault

A

internal attribution

350
Q

Believing there is little room for change

A

Stable attributions

351
Q

Believing negative events will have wide-ranging effects

A

global attribution

352
Q

All three attributions contribute to a sense of hopelessness but it is the hopelessness that leads to ___

A

depression

353
Q

depressed persons engage in cognitive errors
-a tendency to interpret life events negatively

A

aaron t. beck’s cognitive theory of depression

354
Q

4 types of cognitive errors:

A
  1. arbitrary inference
  2. overgeneralization
  3. dichotomous thinking
  4. personalization
355
Q

this cognitive error is characterized by overemphasizing the negative

A

arbitrary inference

356
Q

this cognitive error is characterized by applying negatives to all situations

A

overgeneralization

357
Q

cognitive error characterized by thinking in black or white

A

dichotomous thinking

358
Q

cognitive error characterized by believing that others’ behavior is directed at you

A

personalization

359
Q

3 components of the depressive cognitive triad (thinking negatively about…)

A
  1. think negatively about oneself
  2. think negatively about the world
  3. think negatively about the future
360
Q

females over males for mood disorders ratio of ___:___

A

2:1

361
Q

widely used medication - examples include tofranil, elavil

A

tricyclic medication

362
Q

this medication blocks trip take (norepinephrine and other neurotransmitters)

A

Tricyclic medications

363
Q

How long does it take for the effects of tricyclic medications to be known

A

2 to 8 weeks

364
Q

Are negative side effects common or not common for tricyclic medications?
(Ex. Blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, weight gain, sexual dysfunction)

A

Common

365
Q

True or false: tricyclic medications may be lethal in excess doses

A

True

366
Q

Enzyme that breaks down serotonin/norepinephrine

A

Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

367
Q

MAO inhibitors ___ monoamine oxidase

A

Block

368
Q

Are MAO inhibitors more or less effective than tricyclics?

A

Slightly more

369
Q

Must avoid foods containing ___ while taking MAO

A

Tyramine

370
Q

Are MAOs frequently or rarely used?
Can they interact safely or dangerously with other medications?

A

Rarely ; dangerously

371
Q

This medication specifically blocks reuptake of serotonin
(Ex. celexa, lexapro, luvox, Paxil, Zoloft)

A

Selective serotonergic reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

372
Q

True or false: SSRIs pose no unique risk of suicide or violence

A

True

373
Q

Are side effects common for SSRIs? (Upset stomach, insomnia, physical agitation, sexual dysfunction, or lower sexual desire)

A

Common

374
Q

Are side effects of SSRIs generally more or less tolerable than other antidepressants?

A

More

375
Q

A type of mood stabilizer made of common salt found in the natural environment

A

Lithium

376
Q

Primary drug of choice for bipolar disorders

A

Lithium

377
Q

Is lithium best suited in lowering suicide risk?

A

Yes

378
Q

True or false: Antidepressants are often problematic for BP disorders if not paired with a mood stabilizer

A

True

379
Q

___ are also commonly used for BP disorders (tegretol and/or depakote)
___ effective at reducing suicide

A

Anticonvulsants ; less

380
Q

Dosage of lithium carefully monitored using ___ tests
Side effects may be ___

A

Blood tests ; severe

PSYC 3230 - Psychopathology (4 decks)

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