Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
3 important ramifications when defining a disorder: this colors the way we may interpret behavior
A
- insurance (reimbursement for treatment)
- legal responsibility for treatment
- disability
2
Q
3 examples of past and present diagnoses that have been controversial:
A
- drapetomania (propensity of slaves to run away)
- childhood masturbation disorder
- homosexuality
3
Q
why is there no single definition of psychological abnormality or normality?
A
most behaviors exist on a continuum (substance use, sleep, eating, etc.)
4
Q
wakefield argues disorder as ____
A
“harmful dysfunction”
5
Q
hybrid of “value judgment” (ex. harmful) and “biological disadvantage” (a failure of a mechanism to perform naturally)
A
harmful dysfunction
6
Q
wakefield’s 5 approaches to defining abnormal behavior: “disorder as ____”
A
- pure value concept
- whatever professionals treat
- statistical deviance (intellectual disability)
- biological disadvantage (evolution)
- distress or suffering
7
Q
judgment of desirability according to social norms and ideals
A
disorder defined as a pure value concept
8
Q
problem with defining disorder as a pure value concept:
A
very subjective
9
Q
2 problems with defining disorder as whatever professionals treat:
A
- clients come in for treatment for behaviors that are normal
- individuals do NOT come in when they are disordered
10
Q
-can be statistically deviant on many traits and it is a positive attribute (ex. IQ, strength)
-even undesirable behaviors that are statistically deviant may not be a disorder (ex. being rude)
A
problem with defining disorder as a statistical deviance (intellectual disability)
11
Q
- if behavior results in lower reproductive fitness
- if some mental mechanism is not performing the specific function it was designed to perform (ex. normal anxiety vs. pathological anxiety)
- when a mechanism fails to perform as it was designed AND it causes impairment
A
3 criteria for a disorder to be classified as a biological disadvantage
12
Q
toward a definition of abnormal behavior:
breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral function within the individual (it comes from the inside, aka within)
A
psychological dysfunction
13
Q
toward a definition of abnormal behavior:
difficulty performing appropriate and expected roles
-some disorders may emphasize one over the other (ex. antisocial personality disorder)
A
personal distress or disability (functional impairment)
14
Q
toward a definition of abnormal behavior:
reaction to abnormal behavior is outside cultural norms
A
atypical or unexpected cultural response
15
Q
widiger argues that two constructs are fundamental to the definition of mental disorder:
A
dyscontrol and maladaptively
16
Q
“an impaired ability to direct or regulate ovolition, emotion, behavior, or cognition, or some other area, which often entails inability to resist impulses and leads to abnormal behaviors without significant provocation” (APA)
A
dyscontrol
17
Q
“a condition in which biological traits or behavior patterns are detrimental, counterproductive, or otherwise interfere with optimal functioning in various domains, such as successful interaction with the environment and effectual coping with the challenges and stresses of daily life” (APA)
A
maladaptively
18
Q
true or false: some argue that we will never have a perfect definition of a mental disorder
A
true
19
Q
a widely accepted system that is used to classify psychological disorders and problems
A
DSM-5
20
Q
DSM stands for:
A
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders
21
Q
the DSM-5 contains diagnostic criteria for behaviors that: (4)
A
- fit a pattern
- cause dysfunction or stress
- are present for a specified duration
- are based on protoypes
22
Q
a typical or standard example of a disorder
A
prototype
23
Q
a clinical description of abnormality begins with the ____
A
presenting problem (what is bringing the client/patient into treatment)
24
Q
this description aims to distinguish clinically significant dysfunction from common human experience and to describe demographics, relevant symptoms, age of onset, and precipitating factors
A
clinical description
25
keep in mind three factors while using the clinical description of abnormality:
1. prevalence and incidence
2. course of disorders
3. onset of disorders
26
number of people in the population with a disorder
prevalence
27
number of new cases during a given time
incidence
28
course of disorders can be ___, ___, or ___
episodic, time-limited, or chronic
29
onset of disorders can be ___ or ___
acute (comes on quickly)
or insidious (comes on slowly)
30
factors that contribute to the development of psychopathology
etiology (diathesis-stress model)
31
combination of risk and a stressor - psychological disorders result from an interaction between inherent vulnerability and environmental stressors
diathesis-stress model
32
treatment development - how can we help to alleviate psychological suffering?
pharmacologic, psychosocial, and/or combined treatments
33
studies the effectiveness of clinical interventions, including the comparison of competing treatments
treatment outcome research
34
treatment outcome research - how do we know that we have helped?
we are limited in specifying actual causes of disorders
35
major psychological disorders have existed in all ____ and across all ____
cultures ; time periods
36
two types of antipsychotics came out in the ____ and revolutionized medicine in psychology
1950s
37
three dominant traditions regarding abnormal behavior include:
1. supernatural
2. biological
3. psychological
38
in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was viewed as ____ vs. ____
good vs. evil
39
in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was thought to be caused by:
demonic possession, witchcraft, and sorcery
40
in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was treated by means of:
exorcism, torture, beatings, and crude surgeries
41
some treatments that worked in the past during the supernatural tradition:
placebo, classical conditioning, and fear
42
other worldly causes of deviant behavior:
movement of the moon and stars (astrology)
-"lunacy" is derivative of "luna," or "moon"
43
people have long looked for physical causes of psychological disorders
the past: the biological tradition
44
who is the father of modern medicine?
hippocrates
45
____ believed that psychological disorders could be treated like any other disease. he believed "disease" was not the only potential cause, but that head trauma, brain pathology, and hereditary could impact disorders
hippocrates
46
____ extended hippocrates' work, creating the ____ theory of mental illness
galen ; humoral theory of mental illness
47
the idea that disease resulted from having too much or too little of a certain humor
humoral theory of mental illness
48
the humoral theory of mental illness is comprised of 4 major bodily fluids, or "humors" :
1. blood (heart)
2. black bile (spine)
3. yellow bile (liver)
4. phlegm (brain)
49
this tradition linked abnormality with brain chemical imbalances and foreshadowed modern views
galenic-hippocratic tradition
50
the biological condition comes of age:
interest in biological factors of mental illness fluctuated over the centuries until the 19th century. what happened to bolster the view that mental illness = physical illness, providing a biological basis for madness?
syphilis
51
a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterial infection
syphilis
52
advanced stage syphilis can result in ___ and ___
delusions and other psychotic behaviors (hallucinations)
53
who discovered the cause of syphilis, and what was the cause he discovered?
pasteur ; a bacterial microorganism
54
pasteur's discovery that syphilis was caused by a bacterial microorganism led to ____ as a successful treatment
penicillin
55
the biological tradition led to ___ treatments
biological
56
during this time, biological treatments were standard practice (insulin shock therapy, ECT, and brain surgery)
the 1930s
57
during this time, medications (such as neuroleptics aka antipsychotics) were becoming increasingly available
the 1950s
58
this medication reduces hallucinations, delusions, agitation, and aggressiveness
neuroleptics (antipsychotics)
59
during this time, benzodizepines (ex. valium) were introduced, and antidepressants began being developed
1970s
60
the past: the psychological tradition
plato and aristotle both thought that the ____ and ____ environment and ____ experiences impacted psychopathology
social and cultural environment ; early learning experiences
61
normalizing treatment of the mentally ill
-reinforce and model appropriate behaviors
-emphasize importance of a nurturing environment
the rise of moral therapy
62
1. worked best with smaller patient populations
2. dorothea dix led the mental hygiene movement
3. rise of mental hygiene movement - move from moral therapy to "custodial care"
4. rise of biological tradition and notion that mental illness was due to brain pathology and was incurable
4 reasons for the falling out of moral therapy:
63
the psychological tradition reemerges in the 1900s in three different forms:
1. psychoanalysis
2. humanism
3. behaviorism (and cognitive-behaviorism eventually)
64
the past: the psychoanalytic tradition was led by ___ and ___
freud and breuer
65
the past: the psychoanalytic tradition
breuer had patients describe psychological problems and conflicts under hypnosis, leading to two important "discoveries" :
unconscious mind and catharsis
66
under hypnosis, individuals revealed material that appeared to be outside of their explicit awareness
unconscious mind
67
individuals felt better after discussing and reliving emotionally painful events and feelings (release of emotional tension)
catharsis
68
unconscious needs or drives are at the heart of human motivation
-human behavior is influenced by unconscious memories, thoughts, and urges
freudian theory
69
structure and function of the mind (3 components)
1. id
2. ego
3. superego
70
think of the ___ as the brain, the ___ as the devil on your shoulder, and the ___ as the angel
-ego as the brain
-id as the devil on your shoulder
-superego as the angel
71
the pleasure principle (demands immediate gratification)
id
72
the most primitive part of the mind (part of the mind that is "like a four year old")
id
73
unique processing of information within the id
primary process
74
thinking that is emotional, irrational, fantastical, and primal (sex, aggression, and envy)
primary process
75
the id is the source of sexual and aggressive motives and "energy," which freud called ____
libido
76
instinctual drive for sex, pleasure, and fulfillment
eros
77
the "death instinct" - drive toward aggression and death
thanatos
78
the reality principle; must balance the needs of the id with rules of society
ego
79
the thinking style associated with the ego is called
secondary process
80
secondary process within the ego is characterized by ___ and ___
logic and reason
81
ego referred to as a rider on a horse (the horse being id)
the horse is stronger, but the man can usually control it
82
conscience - represents the moral ideas we learn from family, friends, and society
superego
83
how does our superego develop?
as a result of being rewarded and punished for various behaviors (or seeing others experience this via vicarious learning)
84
the purpose of the superego is to:
counteract the drive toward sex and aggression offered by the id
85
____ must mediate between the id and superego
ego
86
if mediation between the id and the superego is successful...
individuals can pursue higher goals
87
if mediation between the id and the superego is not successful... (if either the id or superego is overpowering)
we will experience intrapsychic conflict (an over-controlling superego can cause just as many problems as an over-controlling id)
88
freud felt that ___ and ___ were almost entirely unconscious
id and superego
89
when ego cannot maintain balance between the needs of id and superego, it results in ___
anxiety
90
anxiety serves as a warning that ego might be overwhelmed - results in use of ____
defense mechanisms
91
unconscious protective processes that keep primitive emotions associated with conflict in check so that the ego can continue with its coordinating function
defense mechanisms
92
defense mechanisms can be ____ or ____ (some call them "coping styles")
adaptive or maladaptive
93
8 defense mechanisms:
1. affiliation
2. humor
3. sublimation
4. displacement
5. intellectualization
6. reaction formation
7. repression
8. projection
94
deal with conflict by turning to others for help and support
affiliation
95
emphasize the amusing or ironic aspects of conflict or stressor
humor
96
deal with conflict or stressors by channeling potentially maladaptive feelings or impulses into socially acceptable behavior
sublimation
97
ex. of sublimation as a defense mechanism:
someone with anger issues may channel their aggressive urges into sports instead of lashing out at others physically or verbally
98
transfer feelings about, or response to, one object onto another (usually less threatening) substitute object
displacement
99
ex. of displacement as a defense mechanism
a person who is angry at their boss may "take out" their anger on a family member by shouting at them
100
excessive use of abstract thinking or the making of generalizations to control or minimize disturbing feelings
intellectualization
101
ex. of intellectualization as a defense mechanism
a person might focus on funeral arrangements rather than dealing with their own grief, or spending all of their time researching an illness they have been diagnosed with, rather than talking about how they feel about the diagnosis
102
substitutes behavior, thoughts, or feelings that are the direct opposite of unacceptable ones
reaction formation
103
ex. of reaction formation as a defense mechanism
a young boy who bullies a young girl because, on a subconscious level, he is attracted to her
104
blocks disturbing wishes, thoughts, or experiences from conscious awareness
repression
105
falsely attributing own unacceptable feelings, impulses, or thoughts to another individual
projection
106
ex. of projection as a defense mechanism
the classroom bully who teases other children for crying but is quick to cry
107
stages of child development in which a child's pleasure-seeking urges are focused on specific areas of the body called erogenous zones
psychosexual stages of development
108
freud posited 5 basic stages of psychosexual stages of development
1. oral stage
2. anal stage
3. phallic stage
4. latency stage
5. genital stage
109
inadequate or inappropriate gratification in any stage would lead to a "____," which would be reflected in the individual's adult behavior
"fixation"
110
the oral stage occurs from ___ to age ___ to ___
birth to age 1.5 to 2
111
the oral stage is characterized by a central focus on ____ (sucking; lips, tongue, and mouth become focus of pleasure)
food
112
ex. of an oral fixation
smoking or chewing on something
113
the anal stage occurs from age ___ to ___
2 to 3
114
the anal stage is characterized by a central focus on the ____ and the ____ vs. ____ of feces
anus ; expulsion vs. retention
115
the anal stage is resolved when:
toilet training is completed
116
ex. of anal fixation
anal retentive (OCD, "you're so anal")
anal explosive (sloppy, disorganized, "out-there")
117
the phallic stage occurs from age ___ to ___ or ___
3 to 5 or 6
118
the phallic stage is characterized by a focus on the ___ region
genital region ; as the child becomes more interested in his genitals, and in the genitals of others
119
2 major conflicts during the phallic stage:
oedipus complex and electra complex
120
young boys have sexual fantasies tied to interactions with mother
oedipus complex
121
the oedipus complex leads to anger toward the father because they see father as an obstacle, but fears father - results in identification with father
castration anxiety
122
young girls want to replace mother and possess father
electra complex
123
girls desire a penis, so as to be more like father (resolved when girls develop a healthy heterosexual relationship)
penis envy
124
the latency stage occurs from age ___ or ___ until ___
5 or 6 until puberty
125
sexual interest lies ___ during the latency stage, and energy (___) is put into nonsexual interests, such as friendships, school, sports, and play
dormant ; libido
126
the genital stage occurs during ____
puberty
127
during the genital stage, the central focus returns to the ____ and interest in sexual relationships ____
genitals ; increases
128
freud believed that progress during the genital stage was ____ if the child remained fixated at earlier stages
impeded
129
the purpose of this therapy is to unearth the hidden intrapsychic conflicts through catharsis and insight (focus on childhood)
psychoanalysis
130
psychoanalysis is ____ (2-5 years) and high ____ (3-5 times per week)
long-term ; high frequency
131
-to analyze and resolve conflicts
-to restructure personality
-focus is NOT on symptom reductive
-ambitious goals - are issue focused
goals of psychotherapy
132
-patient lies on couch, analyst sits behind couch
-free association - no censoring!
-dream analysis - content reflects primary process (id)
examine transference and counter-transference issues
psychoanalysis techniques
133
the key to psychoanalysis - ____ is good
transference
134
projecting onto the therapist the conflicts/issues one has in a stable way
transference
135
this occurs when the therapist projects their own unresolved conflicts onto the client
counter-transference
136
issue with psychoanalysis
efficacy data are limited
137
this theory focuses on affect and patient's expression of emotions (may comment on; more reflection back)
psychodynamic theory
138
nonverbal expressions of emotion
affect
139
-explore patients’ avoidance of topics or decisions to engage in behaviors that hinder therapy
-identify patterns in patients’ behaviors, thoughts, and feelings (personality)
-emphasis on role of past experiences
-focus on interpersonal experiences
-emphasis on therapeutic relationship
-exploration of patients' fantasies, dreams, and wishes
characteristics of psychodynamic theory
140
common factor in therapy: whether you like your therapist, can trust your therapist, etc. determines outcome of therapy (whether or not one will get better)
therapeutic alliance
141
notion that there was a positive, uplifting quality of humanity (humans as beings that strive for improvement and excellence)
- much more optimistic notion (gives humans the benefit of the doubt)
humanistic theory
142
to attain one's highest potential is to reach ____
-only possible if overcome obstacles (ex. more basic needs, psychological problems, interpersonal problems)
self-actualization
143
3 major players in humanistic theory:
carl rogers, abraham maslow, and fritz perls
144
this person practiced client (or person)-centered therapy
carl rogers
145
-therapist conveys empathy, unconditional positive regard
-minimal therapist interpretation
-convey genuineness
-belief that client has the resources to solve his/her own problems if given adequate support
-belief that the client-therapist relationship was the most important aspect of the treatment
carl rogers treatment characteristics
146
carl rogers uses ____ the most, bouncing back what the patient says
reflection
147
maslow's hierarchy of needs
abraham maslow
148
maslow's hierarchy of needs begins at the base with ____ needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active
physiological needs
149
5 components of maslow's hierarchy of needs:
1. physical
2. security
3. social
4. ego
5. self-actualization
150
this model emphasizes behavior and the ways in which it is learned
behavioral model
151
two components of the behavioral model:
classical conditioning and operant conditioning
152
a common form of learning, this type of conditioning is characterized by the pairing of neutral stimuli and unconditioned stimuli
classical conditioning
153
an automatic response to a stimulus
unconditioned response
154
something that reflects a natural automatic response
unconditioned stimulus
155
a stimulus that leads to an automatic response
conditioned stimuli
156
an automatic response from training or experience
conditioned response
157
if the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus for too long, ____ occurs
extinction
158
who is known as the father of behaviorism?
watson
159
another common form of learning, this type of conditioning posits that voluntary behavior is controlled by consequences (positive or negative)
operant conditioning
160
increases the likelihood of behavior
reinforcement
161
decreases the likelihood of behavior
punishment
162
skinner noted that many behaviors are ____ elicited by unconditioned stimuli
not
163
behavior is either strengthened (more likely to occur) or weakened (less likely to occur) depending on the consequences of that behavior
thorndike's law of effect
164
3 ideas posited by skinner:
reinforcement, punishment, and shaping
165
positive and negative ; increases behavior
reinforcement
166
ex. of positive reinforcement
professor gives extra credit to students who come to class
167
ex. of negative reinforcement
professor allows students who come to class to leave 10 minutes early (ELIMINATES AN AVERSIVE STIMULUS)
168
positive and negative ; decreases behavior
punishment
169
ex. of positive punishment
child brings home a bad report card, gets spanked
170
ex. of negative punishment
child brings home a bad report card, phone gets taken away (REMOVAL OF STIMULUS)
171
reinforce successive approximations of desired behavior
shaping
172
from behaviorism to behavior therapy:
this movement was against psychoanalysis and non-scientific approaches
reactionary movement
173
3 early pioneers of the reactionary movement
1. wolpe
2. beck
3. bandura
174
systematic desensitization was practiced by:
wolpe
175
cognitive therapy was practiced by:
beck
176
social learning/cognitive-behavior therapy was practiced by:
bandura
177
this type of therapy tends to be time-limited, direct, here-and-now focused (have widespread empirical support)
behavior therapy
178
this model explains behavior in terms of a single cause (could mean a paradigm, school, or conceptual approach)
one-dimensional models
179
problem with one-dimensional models:
other information is often ignored
180
interdisciplinary, eclectic, and integrative model ("system" of influences that cause and maintain suffering)
-uses information from several sources
-abnormal behavior as multiply determined
multidimensional models
181
multidimensional models of abnormal behavior include 5 factors:
1. biological factors (genetics, physiology, neurobiology)
2. behavioral factors
3. emotional factors
4. social factors
5. developmental factors
182
according to social factors, ____ stressors are most potent
interpersonal
183
ex. of a social factor or interpersonal stressor
a romantic relationship ending, feeling ostracized from a social group, feeling dissociated, etc.
184
ex. of a developmental factor
most people with schizophrenia were behind their siblings in fundamental developmental areas at a young age
185
genetic contributions to psychopathology: ___ vs. ___
phenotype vs. genotype
186
observable characteristics
phenotype
187
do we know much more about phenotype than we do about genotype? or vice versa?
more about phenotype
188
genetic makeup
genotype
189
does an identical twin or a fraternal twin have a higher chance of having schizophrenia if their twin does?
identical 50% chance (both children are equally at risk of schizophrenia because it is in their genotype) ; fraternal 19% chance
190
development and behavior is often ____ (contribution to many genes)
polygenetic
191
overall genetic contribution to psychopathology is less than ___%, but schizophrenia is around ___%
50% ; 80%
192
in some studies, depression is ___% to ___% heritable
20% to 40%
193
eating disorders are ___% to ___% heritable
40% to 50%
194
who proposed that learning could affect genes by turning them on or activating them?
genetic structure is malleable and receptive to the environment - what is this interaction referred to as?
eric kandel ; gene-environment interactions
195
a genetic vulnerability or predisposition (diathesis) interacts with the environment and life events (stressors) to trigger behaviors or psychological disorders
diathesis-stress model
196
when a third variable affects the strength or direction of the relationship between two variables
interaction
197
true or false: gene-environment correlations are kind of a falsehood
true
198
in many cases, ____ and ___ are correlated
(robustness to psychopathology (resilience) is correlated to both
genes and environment
199
genes can ____ the probability that an individual will experience environmental events (which might increase the likelihood of experiencing psychological problems)
-adoption studies are interesting because genes and environment can be parsed
increase
200
nothing about your behavior played a role in this stressor
independent stressor
201
ex. of an independent stressor
getting hit by a drunk driver on the way home from class
202
stressors that our own characteristics contribute to
dependent stressors
203
ex. of dependent stressor
getting into frequent fights with your partner because of the type of partner you tend to choose
204
three types of gene-environment correlations
1. passive
2. evocative
3. provocative
205
types of genes a child inherits may be correlated with the environment one is raised in
passive
206
you play no role (no bearing on what you did right or wrong, but rather the role that both genetics and environment play)
passive
207
ex. of passive gene-environment correlation
individuals could inherit genes for lower IQ and be raised in a non-intellectually rich environment
208
individual's genes may lead to behavior that evokes a response from the environment
evocative
209
evocative gene-environment correlation is ____ produced only due to negative influences
NOT
210
ex. of evocative gene-environment correlation
antisocial child (noncompliant, aggressive) may evoke certain responses from the environment (harsh, punitive parenting)
211
individual’s genes make the selection of certain environments more likely
-personality tends to stabilize (become fixed) as we age because we have created niches for ourselves (ex. introversion vs. extraversion)
provocative
212
environment (diet, stressors, behaviors, experiences) can affect how genes are expressed (ex. turning them on or off)
epigenetics
213
some genes will ___ express themselves unless in a certain environment
-and, some environments may have ___ effect unless the genetic predisposition is there
never ; little
214
if someone has a predisposition to alcohol abuse, but lives in an environment in which alcohol is prohibited, they will likely not develop alcoholism
ex. of epigenetics
215
how are neurotransmitters related to psychopathology?
almost all current psychiatric drugs impact one or more neurotransmitters
216
functions of neurotransmitters (study by introducing three classifications):
1. agonist
2. antagonist
3. inverse agonist
217
increase activity by mimicking its effects
agonist
218
decrease or block a neurotransmitter
antagonists
219
produce effects opposite to those produced by a neurotransmitter
inverse agonist
220
this neurotransmitter regulates behavior, mood, and cognition
serotonin
221
disinhibition, emotional reactivity, and impulsivity are linked to ___ levels of serotonin
low
222
serotonin is related to ___, ___, ___, and ___
aggression, suicide, depression, and over-eating
223
treated with ___
SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
224
ex. of SSRIs
prozac, celexa, paxil, zoloft
225
SSRI would be a serotonin ___
agonist
226
excitatory transmitter (causes action)
glutamate
227
this neurotransmitter reduces postsynaptic activity (inhibitory effect) and has a broad influence on mood and behavior
gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
228
this neurotransmitter affects anxiety and arousal in general (reducing anxiety, emotional reactivity, anger, aggression, and positive mood states, too)
gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
229
____ are drugs that are believed to increase GABA
benzodiazepines (ex. valium, xanax, klonopin)
230
this neurotransmitter increases heart rate and blood pressure (may be active in fight or flight situations)
norepinephrine (noradrenaline)
231
____ are used for hypertension and to reduce anxiety responses
beta-blockers
232
blocks beta receptors that are activated by norepinephrine
beta-blockers
233
this neurotransmitter works as the "switch" that impacts the effects of other neurotransmitters
dopamine
234
____ implicated in exploratory, reward-seeking behaviors
dopamine
235
high levels of dopamine are implicated in ____
schizophrenia
236
hallucinations and delusions will reduce if given a dopamine ___
inhibitor
237
learning from psychopharmacology and various scanning procedures (fMRI, PET) the function and structure of the brain and what roles they play in psychopathology
relations between the brain and abnormal behavior
238
____ influences can change brain function (particularly early experiences, with regard to feelings of control, safety, attachment)
psychosocial
239
therapy...
also changes brain function
240
psychosocial factors interact with brain ___ and ___
structures and function
241
ex. identical groups of monkeys
-group 1 has control (when to eat; what toys to play with)
-group 2 has no control (food and toys access determined by group 1)
when given a drug causing strong anxiety, "no control" group ____, and the "control" group became ____
cowered ; became aggressive
242
neurotransmitters interact with ____ factors to affect current behavior
psychosocial
243
____ conditioning found that it was not just the pairing of the uncontrolled stimulus and controlled stimulus, but that it had to be consistent
classical conditioning
244
seligman's belief that one is helpless to impact life leads to depression
learned helplessness
245
the opposite of learned helplessness is true, and has huge effect on health:
learned optimism
246
bandura's ____ is characterized by modeling and observational learning (vicarious learning)
-plays a role in substance abuse, aggression, interpersonal relationships
social learning
247
according to ____ learning, we are evolutionarily programmed to learn certain things better than others (ex. we fear snakes, heights not trees, rocks) food poisoning - rare case of one time learning
prepared learning
248
the nature of ___ is to elicit or evoke action (fight or flight; repair damaged relationships; promote the continuation of behavior)
the nature of emotion
249
short lived, temporary states
emotion
250
a more persistent, enduring state
mood
251
momentary emotional tone that accompanies behavior
affect
252
___/___ are to mood what weather is to climate
affect/emotion
253
strong link between ___ and ___ with heart disease due to a decreased pumping efficiency for the heart
anger and hostility
254
all of the basic emotions (fear, anger, sadness, excitement) can be linked to psychological disorders if they occur too ___, without "___," too ___, or without ___ control
frequently ; "cause" ; strongly ; internal
255
chronically depressed mood
depression
256
overly positive, excited mood
mania
257
strong fear response despite a lack of threatening stimuli
panic
258
these factors of psychopathology contribute to the influence and expression of behavior
cultural factors
259
most people across different cultures experience ___ symptoms, but ___ are different
similar ; attributions
260
contrast european americans with schizophrenia to latinos with schizophrenia
european americans: describe life using terms related to mental illness
latinos: use “nerves” - seen as less pejorative and elicits more sympathy
261
___ has a strong effect on psychopathology
gender (ex. depression, eating disorders, phobias, antisocial personality disorder)
262
___ have higher rates of internalizing disorders across cultures (even in more matriarchal societies)
ex. anxiety, depression
women
263
___ have higher rates of externalizing disorders
ex. antisocial personality, substance abuse
men
264
social effects on health and behavior:
___ and ___ of social interaction are important
frequency and quality
265
relationships have a protective quality against both physical and psychological disorders for three reasons:
1. give meaning to life
2. help us cope with physical and psychological pain
3. encourage health-promoting behaviors
266
____ of social support may be most vital
perceptions
267
this perspective addresses developmental changes
(different periods of life associated with different challenges that might influence psychological health)
life-span developmental perspective
268
developmental stage will also influence how disorders are manifested and treated (ex. antisocial men at 50 may look different than at 20)
heterotypic continuity
269
multiple paths to a given outcome (ex. psychosis)
equifinality
270
same events (ex. trauma, genes) can lead to different outcomes
multifinality
271
this field examines the role of the nervous system in disease and behavior
the field of neuroscience
272
branches of the human nervous system:
central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)
273
two components of the central nervous system (CNS)
the brain and spinal cord
274
two branches of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)
somatic and autonomic branches
275
the autonomic nervous system (ANS) of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of two divisions:
sympathetic division and parasympathetic division
276
the neuron is composed of five components:
1. soma
2. dendrites
3. axon
4. axon terminals
5. synapses
277
the soma is the ___
cell body
278
branches that receive messages from other neurons (chemical messages are converted into electrical impulses)
dendrites
279
trunk of the neuron that sends messages to other neurons
axon
280
buds at the end of the axon from which chemical messages are sent
axon terminals
281
small gaps that separate neurons
synapses
282
neurons are not connected - they are separated by the ___
synaptic cleft
283
___ are released into the cleft and communicate with the next neuron
neurotransmitters
284
two main parts of the brain:
brainstem and forebrain
285
the most ancient part of the brain that is found in most animals and controls basic processes (ex. breathing, sleeping, physical coordination)
brainstem
286
largest and most recently evolved part of the brain
forebrain
287
three main divisions of the brain:
1. hindbrain
2. midbrain
3. forebrain
288
hindbrain consists of three parts:
1. medulla
2. pons
3. cerebellum
289
this part of the hindbrain regulates heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration
medulla
290
this part of the hindbrain regulates sleep stages
pons
291
this part of the hindbrain is involved in physical coordination
cerebellum
292
this division of the brain coordinates movement with sensory input and contains parts of the reticular activating system (RAS)
midbrain
293
this part of the midbrain is related to arousal and consciousness; sleep cycles
reticular activating system (RAS)
294
the forebrain is also referred to as the ___
cerebral cortex
295
most sensory, emotional, and cognitive processing occurs within this division of the brain, within two specialized hemispheres
forebrain (cerebral cortex)
296
four lobes of the cerebral cortex:
1. frontal
2. parietal
3. occipital
4. temporal
297
thinking and reasoning abilities and memory are controlled by this lobe of the cerebral cortex
frontal
298
touch recognition is controlled by this lobe of the cerebral cortex
parietal
299
this lobe of the cerebral cortex integrates visual input
occipital
300
this lobe of the cerebral cortex controls recognition of sights, smells, sounds, and long-term memory storage; process complex stimuli
temporal
301
the hippocampus, amygdala, septum, and cingulated gyrus compose which system?
limbic system
302
this system is related to emotion, motivation, and memory
limbic system
303
this part of the brain receives and integrates sensory information
thalamus
304
eating, drinking, aggression, and sexual activity are controlled by this part of the brain
hypothalamus
305
the 2 hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are connected by the ___
corpus callosum
306
this hemisphere deals with visual-spatial processing, visual imagery, and creativity
right
307
this hemisphere deals with language and reasoning
left
308
which hemisphere is usually dominant?
left
309
what are the two branches of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
somatic branch and autonomic branch
310
this branch of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) controls voluntary muscles and movement
somatic branch
311
the autonomic branch of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of two branches:
sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS
312
these branches regulate the cardiovascular system and body temperature, and regulate the endocrine system and aid in digestion
sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS
313
this system of the ANS mobilizes the body during times of stress (fight or flight; heart races, increased respiration, decreased digestion)
sympathetic system
314
this system of the ANS takes over when not stressed - focuses on restoring energy and equilibrium (increased digestion; slowed breathing and heart rate)
REST AND DIGEST
parasympathetic system
315
hormones (chemicals) are released into the bloodstream (affect response to stress, growth, metabolism, sexual characteristics)
the endocrine system
316
systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person presenting with a possible psychological disorder
clinical assessment
317
process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all criteria for psychological disorder set forth in the DSM-5
diagnosis
318
the purpose of clinical assessment (4 components)
1. to understand the individual
2. to predict behavior
3. to plan treatment
4. to evaluate treatment outcome
319
analogous to a funnel
1. starts broad
2. multidimensional in approach
3. narrow to specific problem areas
320
3 fundamentals to successful assessments
1. reliability
2. validity
3. standardization and norms
321
degree to which a measure is repeatable and consistent
reliability
322
across time (test-retest), rather (inter-rater reliability), items (internal consistency)
consistency in measurement
323
the degree to which a measure captures what it is designed to do (ex. does an IQ test measure intelligence?)
what does the test measure, and how well does it do so
validity
324
you cannot have validity if you do not have ___
reliability
325
reliability does not mean that you have ___
validity
326
reliability is a necessary but ___ sufficient aspect of validity
NOT
327
the degree to which the content of a test is representative of the domain it is supposed to cover
does the measure capture a full range of concepts?
content validity
328
___ questions could be a good component of content validity
somatic
329
a mathematics teacher develops an end-of-semester algebra test for her class
-the test should cover every form of algebra that was taught in the class
-if some types of algebra are left out, then the results may not be an accurate indication of students' understanding of the subject
-similarly, if she includes questions that are not related to algebra, the results are no longer a valid measure of algebra knowledge
example of content validity
330
scores on the measure are related to other measures of the same construct
is it related to other validated measures of the same construct?
convergent validity
331
the scores of two tests, one measuring self-esteem and the other measuring extroversion, are likely to be correlated—individuals scoring high in self-esteem are more likely to score high in extroversion
example of convergent validity
332
the extent to which a measure is related to an outcome
is it related to other constructs that are thought to be related to?
criterion validity
333
a university professor creates a new test to measure applicants' english writing ability
-to assess how well the test really does measure students' writing ability, she finds an existing test that is considered a valid measurement of english writing ability, and compares the results when the same group of students take both tests. If the outcomes are very similar
example of criterion validity
334
scores on the measure are not related to other measures that are theoretically different
-want to show that it has specificity and is more narrowed, correlates to things it should or shouldn't be related
discriminant validity
335
the scores of two tests measuring security and loneliness theoretically should not correlate
example of discriminant validity
336
extent to which respondents can tell what the items are measuring
does it appear to measure what it is supposed to measure?
"do you feel sad?" is more collaborative with patient, but could be potentially skewed because patient will lie for things knowing what the questions are for
face validity
337
you create a survey to measure the regularity of people's dietary habits
-you review the survey items, which ask questions about every meal of the day and snacks eaten in between for every day of the week
-on its surface, the survey seems like a good representation of what you want to test
example of face validity
338
the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior
does it predict important and relevant outcomes?
predictive validity
339
SAT scores are considered predictive of student retention: students with higher SAT scores are more likely to return for their sophomore year
example of predictive validity
340
the degree to which a test measures the construct, or psychological concept or variable, at which it is aimed; context dependent
construct validity
341
which measure of validity is most important?
construct validity
342
there is no objective, observable entity called "depression" that we can measure directly, but based on existing psychological research and theory, we can measure depression based on a collection of symptoms and indicators, such as low self-confidence and low energy levels
example of construct validity
343
-foster consistent use of techniques
-provide population benchmarks for comparison
standardization and norms
344
examples of ___ and ___ include: administration procedures, scoring, and evaluation of data and IQ tests
standardization and norms
345
an interview method in which the researcher uses a flexible, conversational style to probe for the participant's point of view
clinical interview
346
the most common clinical assessment method
clinical interview
347
no fixed set of questions and no systematic scoring procedure - involves asking probing questions to find out what the applicant is like
unstructured interview
348
this interview method is most commonly used for time and convenience (could lead to a misdiagnosis)
unstructured interview
349
there is a list of questions that have been worked out in advance, but interviewers are also free to ask follow up questions when they feel it is appropriate
semi-structured interview
350
this interview method is less spontaneous and feels less natural and takes more time (commonly used in for research purposes)
semi-structured interview
351
interview in which the researcher has determined what questions are important, the order in which they will be asked, and how they will be structured (no departure, and you cannot ask to clarify)
fully structured interview
352
college students could use this interview method since they do not have the expertise
fully structured interview
353
questions that should be asked in an interview: (8)
1. presenting problem (when it started, participating in events)
2. current and past behavior relevant to the problem
3. detailed history including trauma and abuse
4. educational history
5. work history
6. romance
7. substance abuse
8. past psychological and physical problems; treatment used
