Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

3 important ramifications when defining a disorder: this colors the way we may interpret behavior

A
  1. insurance (reimbursement for treatment)
  2. legal responsibility for treatment
  3. disability
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2
Q

3 examples of past and present diagnoses that have been controversial:

A
  1. drapetomania (propensity of slaves to run away)
  2. childhood masturbation disorder
  3. homosexuality
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3
Q

why is there no single definition of psychological abnormality or normality?

A

most behaviors exist on a continuum (substance use, sleep, eating, etc.)

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4
Q

wakefield argues disorder as ____

A

“harmful dysfunction”

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5
Q

hybrid of “value judgment” (ex. harmful) and “biological disadvantage” (a failure of a mechanism to perform naturally)

A

harmful dysfunction

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6
Q

wakefield’s 5 approaches to defining abnormal behavior: “disorder as ____”

A
  1. pure value concept
  2. whatever professionals treat
  3. statistical deviance (intellectual disability)
  4. biological disadvantage (evolution)
  5. distress or suffering
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7
Q

judgment of desirability according to social norms and ideals

A

disorder defined as a pure value concept

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8
Q

problem with defining disorder as a pure value concept:

A

very subjective

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9
Q

2 problems with defining disorder as whatever professionals treat:

A
  1. clients come in for treatment for behaviors that are normal
  2. individuals do NOT come in when they are disordered
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10
Q

-can be statistically deviant on many traits and it is a positive attribute (ex. IQ, strength)

-even undesirable behaviors that are statistically deviant may not be a disorder (ex. being rude)

A

problem with defining disorder as a statistical deviance (intellectual disability)

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11
Q
  1. if behavior results in lower reproductive fitness
  2. if some mental mechanism is not performing the specific function it was designed to perform (ex. normal anxiety vs. pathological anxiety)
  3. when a mechanism fails to perform as it was designed AND it causes impairment
A

3 criteria for a disorder to be classified as a biological disadvantage

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12
Q

toward a definition of abnormal behavior:

breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral function within the individual (it comes from the inside, aka within)

A

psychological dysfunction

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13
Q

toward a definition of abnormal behavior:

difficulty performing appropriate and expected roles
-some disorders may emphasize one over the other (ex. antisocial personality disorder)

A

personal distress or disability (functional impairment)

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14
Q

toward a definition of abnormal behavior:

reaction to abnormal behavior is outside cultural norms

A

atypical or unexpected cultural response

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15
Q

widiger argues that two constructs are fundamental to the definition of mental disorder:

A

dyscontrol and maladaptively

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16
Q

“an impaired ability to direct or regulate ovolition, emotion, behavior, or cognition, or some other area, which often entails inability to resist impulses and leads to abnormal behaviors without significant provocation” (APA)

A

dyscontrol

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17
Q

“a condition in which biological traits or behavior patterns are detrimental, counterproductive, or otherwise interfere with optimal functioning in various domains, such as successful interaction with the environment and effectual coping with the challenges and stresses of daily life” (APA)

A

maladaptively

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18
Q

true or false: some argue that we will never have a perfect definition of a mental disorder

A

true

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19
Q

a widely accepted system that is used to classify psychological disorders and problems

A

DSM-5

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20
Q

DSM stands for:

A

diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders

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21
Q

the DSM-5 contains diagnostic criteria for behaviors that: (4)

A
  1. fit a pattern
  2. cause dysfunction or stress
  3. are present for a specified duration
  4. are based on protoypes
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22
Q

a typical or standard example of a disorder

A

prototype

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23
Q

a clinical description of abnormality begins with the ____

A

presenting problem (what is bringing the client/patient into treatment)

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24
Q

this description aims to distinguish clinically significant dysfunction from common human experience and to describe demographics, relevant symptoms, age of onset, and precipitating factors

A

clinical description

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25
Q

keep in mind three factors while using the clinical description of abnormality:

A
  1. prevalence and incidence
  2. course of disorders
  3. onset of disorders
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26
Q

number of people in the population with a disorder

A

prevalence

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27
Q

number of new cases during a given time

A

incidence

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28
Q

course of disorders can be ___, ___, or ___

A

episodic, time-limited, or chronic

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29
Q

onset of disorders can be ___ or ___

A

acute (comes on quickly)
or insidious (comes on slowly)

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30
Q

factors that contribute to the development of psychopathology

A

etiology (diathesis-stress model)

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31
Q

combination of risk and a stressor - psychological disorders result from an interaction between inherent vulnerability and environmental stressors

A

diathesis-stress model

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32
Q

treatment development - how can we help to alleviate psychological suffering?

A

pharmacologic, psychosocial, and/or combined treatments

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33
Q

studies the effectiveness of clinical interventions, including the comparison of competing treatments

A

treatment outcome research

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34
Q

treatment outcome research - how do we know that we have helped?

A

we are limited in specifying actual causes of disorders

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35
Q

major psychological disorders have existed in all ____ and across all ____

A

cultures ; time periods

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36
Q

two types of antipsychotics came out in the ____ and revolutionized medicine in psychology

A

1950s

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37
Q

three dominant traditions regarding abnormal behavior include:

A
  1. supernatural
  2. biological
  3. psychological
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38
Q

in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was viewed as ____ vs. ____

A

good vs. evil

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39
Q

in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was thought to be caused by:

A

demonic possession, witchcraft, and sorcery

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40
Q

in the past, with respect to the supernatural tradition, deviant behavior was treated by means of:

A

exorcism, torture, beatings, and crude surgeries

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41
Q

some treatments that worked in the past during the supernatural tradition:

A

placebo, classical conditioning, and fear

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42
Q

other worldly causes of deviant behavior:

A

movement of the moon and stars (astrology)
-“lunacy” is derivative of “luna,” or “moon”

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43
Q

people have long looked for physical causes of psychological disorders

A

the past: the biological tradition

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44
Q

who is the father of modern medicine?

A

hippocrates

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45
Q

____ believed that psychological disorders could be treated like any other disease. he believed “disease” was not the only potential cause, but that head trauma, brain pathology, and hereditary could impact disorders

A

hippocrates

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46
Q

____ extended hippocrates’ work, creating the ____ theory of mental illness

A

galen ; humoral theory of mental illness

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47
Q

the idea that disease resulted from having too much or too little of a certain humor

A

humoral theory of mental illness

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48
Q

the humoral theory of mental illness is comprised of 4 major bodily fluids, or “humors” :

A
  1. blood (heart)
  2. black bile (spine)
  3. yellow bile (liver)
  4. phlegm (brain)
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49
Q

this tradition linked abnormality with brain chemical imbalances and foreshadowed modern views

A

galenic-hippocratic tradition

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50
Q

the biological condition comes of age:

interest in biological factors of mental illness fluctuated over the centuries until the 19th century. what happened to bolster the view that mental illness = physical illness, providing a biological basis for madness?

A

syphilis

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51
Q

a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterial infection

A

syphilis

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52
Q

advanced stage syphilis can result in ___ and ___

A

delusions and other psychotic behaviors (hallucinations)

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53
Q

who discovered the cause of syphilis, and what was the cause he discovered?

A

pasteur ; a bacterial microorganism

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54
Q

pasteur’s discovery that syphilis was caused by a bacterial microorganism led to ____ as a successful treatment

A

penicillin

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55
Q

the biological tradition led to ___ treatments

A

biological

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56
Q

during this time, biological treatments were standard practice (insulin shock therapy, ECT, and brain surgery)

A

the 1930s

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57
Q

during this time, medications (such as neuroleptics aka antipsychotics) were becoming increasingly available

A

the 1950s

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58
Q

this medication reduces hallucinations, delusions, agitation, and aggressiveness

A

neuroleptics (antipsychotics)

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59
Q

during this time, benzodizepines (ex. valium) were introduced, and antidepressants began being developed

A

1970s

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60
Q

the past: the psychological tradition

plato and aristotle both thought that the ____ and ____ environment and ____ experiences impacted psychopathology

A

social and cultural environment ; early learning experiences

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61
Q

normalizing treatment of the mentally ill
-reinforce and model appropriate behaviors
-emphasize importance of a nurturing environment

A

the rise of moral therapy

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62
Q
  1. worked best with smaller patient populations
  2. dorothea dix led the mental hygiene movement
  3. rise of mental hygiene movement - move from moral therapy to “custodial care”
  4. rise of biological tradition and notion that mental illness was due to brain pathology and was incurable
A

4 reasons for the falling out of moral therapy:

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63
Q

the psychological tradition reemerges in the 1900s in three different forms:

A
  1. psychoanalysis
  2. humanism
  3. behaviorism (and cognitive-behaviorism eventually)
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64
Q

the past: the psychoanalytic tradition was led by ___ and ___

A

freud and breuer

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65
Q

the past: the psychoanalytic tradition

breuer had patients describe psychological problems and conflicts under hypnosis, leading to two important “discoveries” :

A

unconscious mind and catharsis

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66
Q

under hypnosis, individuals revealed material that appeared to be outside of their explicit awareness

A

unconscious mind

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67
Q

individuals felt better after discussing and reliving emotionally painful events and feelings (release of emotional tension)

A

catharsis

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68
Q

unconscious needs or drives are at the heart of human motivation
-human behavior is influenced by unconscious memories, thoughts, and urges

A

freudian theory

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69
Q

structure and function of the mind (3 components)

A
  1. id
  2. ego
  3. superego
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70
Q

think of the ___ as the brain, the ___ as the devil on your shoulder, and the ___ as the angel

A

-ego as the brain
-id as the devil on your shoulder
-superego as the angel

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71
Q

the pleasure principle (demands immediate gratification)

A

id

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72
Q

the most primitive part of the mind (part of the mind that is “like a four year old”)

A

id

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73
Q

unique processing of information within the id

A

primary process

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74
Q

thinking that is emotional, irrational, fantastical, and primal (sex, aggression, and envy)

A

primary process

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75
Q

the id is the source of sexual and aggressive motives and “energy,” which freud called ____

A

libido

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76
Q

instinctual drive for sex, pleasure, and fulfillment

A

eros

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77
Q

the “death instinct” - drive toward aggression and death

A

thanatos

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78
Q

the reality principle; must balance the needs of the id with rules of society

A

ego

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79
Q

the thinking style associated with the ego is called

A

secondary process

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80
Q

secondary process within the ego is characterized by ___ and ___

A

logic and reason

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81
Q

ego referred to as a rider on a horse (the horse being id)

A

the horse is stronger, but the man can usually control it

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82
Q

conscience - represents the moral ideas we learn from family, friends, and society

A

superego

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83
Q

how does our superego develop?

A

as a result of being rewarded and punished for various behaviors (or seeing others experience this via vicarious learning)

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84
Q

the purpose of the superego is to:

A

counteract the drive toward sex and aggression offered by the id

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85
Q

____ must mediate between the id and superego

A

ego

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86
Q

if mediation between the id and the superego is successful…

A

individuals can pursue higher goals

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87
Q

if mediation between the id and the superego is not successful… (if either the id or superego is overpowering)

A

we will experience intrapsychic conflict (an over-controlling superego can cause just as many problems as an over-controlling id)

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88
Q

freud felt that ___ and ___ were almost entirely unconscious

A

id and superego

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89
Q

when ego cannot maintain balance between the needs of id and superego, it results in ___

A

anxiety

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90
Q

anxiety serves as a warning that ego might be overwhelmed - results in use of ____

A

defense mechanisms

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91
Q

unconscious protective processes that keep primitive emotions associated with conflict in check so that the ego can continue with its coordinating function

A

defense mechanisms

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92
Q

defense mechanisms can be ____ or ____ (some call them “coping styles”)

A

adaptive or maladaptive

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93
Q

8 defense mechanisms:

A
  1. affiliation
  2. humor
  3. sublimation
  4. displacement
  5. intellectualization
  6. reaction formation
  7. repression
  8. projection
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94
Q

deal with conflict by turning to others for help and support

A

affiliation

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95
Q

emphasize the amusing or ironic aspects of conflict or stressor

A

humor

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96
Q

deal with conflict or stressors by channeling potentially maladaptive feelings or impulses into socially acceptable behavior

A

sublimation

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97
Q

ex. of sublimation as a defense mechanism:

A

someone with anger issues may channel their aggressive urges into sports instead of lashing out at others physically or verbally

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98
Q

transfer feelings about, or response to, one object onto another (usually less threatening) substitute object

A

displacement

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99
Q

ex. of displacement as a defense mechanism

A

a person who is angry at their boss may “take out” their anger on a family member by shouting at them

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100
Q

excessive use of abstract thinking or the making of generalizations to control or minimize disturbing feelings

A

intellectualization

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101
Q

ex. of intellectualization as a defense mechanism

A

a person might focus on funeral arrangements rather than dealing with their own grief, or spending all of their time researching an illness they have been diagnosed with, rather than talking about how they feel about the diagnosis

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102
Q

substitutes behavior, thoughts, or feelings that are the direct opposite of unacceptable ones

A

reaction formation

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103
Q

ex. of reaction formation as a defense mechanism

A

a young boy who bullies a young girl because, on a subconscious level, he is attracted to her

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104
Q

blocks disturbing wishes, thoughts, or experiences from conscious awareness

A

repression

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105
Q

falsely attributing own unacceptable feelings, impulses, or thoughts to another individual

A

projection

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106
Q

ex. of projection as a defense mechanism

A

the classroom bully who teases other children for crying but is quick to cry

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107
Q

stages of child development in which a child’s pleasure-seeking urges are focused on specific areas of the body called erogenous zones

A

psychosexual stages of development

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108
Q

freud posited 5 basic stages of psychosexual stages of development

A
  1. oral stage
  2. anal stage
  3. phallic stage
  4. latency stage
  5. genital stage
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109
Q

inadequate or inappropriate gratification in any stage would lead to a “____,” which would be reflected in the individual’s adult behavior

A

“fixation”

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110
Q

the oral stage occurs from ___ to age ___ to ___

A

birth to age 1.5 to 2

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111
Q

the oral stage is characterized by a central focus on ____ (sucking; lips, tongue, and mouth become focus of pleasure)

A

food

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112
Q

ex. of an oral fixation

A

smoking or chewing on something

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113
Q

the anal stage occurs from age ___ to ___

A

2 to 3

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114
Q

the anal stage is characterized by a central focus on the ____ and the ____ vs. ____ of feces

A

anus ; expulsion vs. retention

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115
Q

the anal stage is resolved when:

A

toilet training is completed

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116
Q

ex. of anal fixation

A

anal retentive (OCD, “you’re so anal”)
anal explosive (sloppy, disorganized, “out-there”)

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117
Q

the phallic stage occurs from age ___ to ___ or ___

A

3 to 5 or 6

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118
Q

the phallic stage is characterized by a focus on the ___ region

A

genital region ; as the child becomes more interested in his genitals, and in the genitals of others

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119
Q

2 major conflicts during the phallic stage:

A

oedipus complex and electra complex

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120
Q

young boys have sexual fantasies tied to interactions with mother

A

oedipus complex

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121
Q

the oedipus complex leads to anger toward the father because they see father as an obstacle, but fears father - results in identification with father

A

castration anxiety

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122
Q

young girls want to replace mother and possess father

A

electra complex

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123
Q

girls desire a penis, so as to be more like father (resolved when girls develop a healthy heterosexual relationship)

A

penis envy

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124
Q

the latency stage occurs from age ___ or ___ until ___

A

5 or 6 until puberty

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125
Q

sexual interest lies ___ during the latency stage, and energy (___) is put into nonsexual interests, such as friendships, school, sports, and play

A

dormant ; libido

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126
Q

the genital stage occurs during ____

A

puberty

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127
Q

during the genital stage, the central focus returns to the ____ and interest in sexual relationships ____

A

genitals ; increases

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128
Q

freud believed that progress during the genital stage was ____ if the child remained fixated at earlier stages

A

impeded

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129
Q

the purpose of this therapy is to unearth the hidden intrapsychic conflicts through catharsis and insight (focus on childhood)

A

psychoanalysis

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130
Q

psychoanalysis is ____ (2-5 years) and high ____ (3-5 times per week)

A

long-term ; high frequency

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131
Q

-to analyze and resolve conflicts
-to restructure personality
-focus is NOT on symptom reductive
-ambitious goals - are issue focused

A

goals of psychotherapy

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132
Q

-patient lies on couch, analyst sits behind couch
-free association - no censoring!
-dream analysis - content reflects primary process (id)
examine transference and counter-transference issues

A

psychoanalysis techniques

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133
Q

the key to psychoanalysis - ____ is good

A

transference

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134
Q

projecting onto the therapist the conflicts/issues one has in a stable way

A

transference

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135
Q

this occurs when the therapist projects their own unresolved conflicts onto the client

A

counter-transference

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136
Q

issue with psychoanalysis

A

efficacy data are limited

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137
Q

this theory focuses on affect and patient’s expression of emotions (may comment on; more reflection back)

A

psychodynamic theory

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138
Q

nonverbal expressions of emotion

A

affect

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139
Q

-explore patients’ avoidance of topics or decisions to engage in behaviors that hinder therapy
-identify patterns in patients’ behaviors, thoughts, and feelings (personality)
-emphasis on role of past experiences
-focus on interpersonal experiences
-emphasis on therapeutic relationship
-exploration of patients’ fantasies, dreams, and wishes

A

characteristics of psychodynamic theory

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140
Q

common factor in therapy: whether you like your therapist, can trust your therapist, etc. determines outcome of therapy (whether or not one will get better)

A

therapeutic alliance

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141
Q

notion that there was a positive, uplifting quality of humanity (humans as beings that strive for improvement and excellence)

  • much more optimistic notion (gives humans the benefit of the doubt)
A

humanistic theory

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142
Q

to attain one’s highest potential is to reach ____

-only possible if overcome obstacles (ex. more basic needs, psychological problems, interpersonal problems)

A

self-actualization

143
Q

3 major players in humanistic theory:

A

carl rogers, abraham maslow, and fritz perls

144
Q

this person practiced client (or person)-centered therapy

A

carl rogers

145
Q

-therapist conveys empathy, unconditional positive regard
-minimal therapist interpretation
-convey genuineness
-belief that client has the resources to solve his/her own problems if given adequate support
-belief that the client-therapist relationship was the most important aspect of the treatment

A

carl rogers treatment characteristics

146
Q

carl rogers uses ____ the most, bouncing back what the patient says

A

reflection

147
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

abraham maslow

148
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs begins at the base with ____ needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active

A

physiological needs

149
Q

5 components of maslow’s hierarchy of needs:

A
  1. physical
  2. security
  3. social
  4. ego
  5. self-actualization
150
Q

this model emphasizes behavior and the ways in which it is learned

A

behavioral model

151
Q

two components of the behavioral model:

A

classical conditioning and operant conditioning

152
Q

a common form of learning, this type of conditioning is characterized by the pairing of neutral stimuli and unconditioned stimuli

A

classical conditioning

153
Q

an automatic response to a stimulus

A

unconditioned response

154
Q

something that reflects a natural automatic response

A

unconditioned stimulus

155
Q

a stimulus that leads to an automatic response

A

conditioned stimuli

156
Q

an automatic response from training or experience

A

conditioned response

157
Q

if the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus for too long, ____ occurs

A

extinction

158
Q

who is known as the father of behaviorism?

A

watson

159
Q

another common form of learning, this type of conditioning posits that voluntary behavior is controlled by consequences (positive or negative)

A

operant conditioning

160
Q

increases the likelihood of behavior

A

reinforcement

161
Q

decreases the likelihood of behavior

A

punishment

162
Q

skinner noted that many behaviors are ____ elicited by unconditioned stimuli

A

not

163
Q

behavior is either strengthened (more likely to occur) or weakened (less likely to occur) depending on the consequences of that behavior

A

thorndike’s law of effect

164
Q

3 ideas posited by skinner:

A

reinforcement, punishment, and shaping

165
Q

positive and negative ; increases behavior

A

reinforcement

166
Q

ex. of positive reinforcement

A

professor gives extra credit to students who come to class

167
Q

ex. of negative reinforcement

A

professor allows students who come to class to leave 10 minutes early (ELIMINATES AN AVERSIVE STIMULUS)

168
Q

positive and negative ; decreases behavior

A

punishment

169
Q

ex. of positive punishment

A

child brings home a bad report card, gets spanked

170
Q

ex. of negative punishment

A

child brings home a bad report card, phone gets taken away (REMOVAL OF STIMULUS)

171
Q

reinforce successive approximations of desired behavior

A

shaping

172
Q

from behaviorism to behavior therapy:

this movement was against psychoanalysis and non-scientific approaches

A

reactionary movement

173
Q

3 early pioneers of the reactionary movement

A
  1. wolpe
  2. beck
  3. bandura
174
Q

systematic desensitization was practiced by:

A

wolpe

175
Q

cognitive therapy was practiced by:

A

beck

176
Q

social learning/cognitive-behavior therapy was practiced by:

A

bandura

177
Q

this type of therapy tends to be time-limited, direct, here-and-now focused (have widespread empirical support)

A

behavior therapy

178
Q

this model explains behavior in terms of a single cause (could mean a paradigm, school, or conceptual approach)

A

one-dimensional models

179
Q

problem with one-dimensional models:

A

other information is often ignored

180
Q

interdisciplinary, eclectic, and integrative model (“system” of influences that cause and maintain suffering)
-uses information from several sources
-abnormal behavior as multiply determined

A

multidimensional models

181
Q

multidimensional models of abnormal behavior include 5 factors:

A
  1. biological factors (genetics, physiology, neurobiology)
  2. behavioral factors
  3. emotional factors
  4. social factors
  5. developmental factors
182
Q

according to social factors, ____ stressors are most potent

A

interpersonal

183
Q

ex. of a social factor or interpersonal stressor

A

a romantic relationship ending, feeling ostracized from a social group, feeling dissociated, etc.

184
Q

ex. of a developmental factor

A

most people with schizophrenia were behind their siblings in fundamental developmental areas at a young age

185
Q

genetic contributions to psychopathology: ___ vs. ___

A

phenotype vs. genotype

186
Q

observable characteristics

A

phenotype

187
Q

do we know much more about phenotype than we do about genotype? or vice versa?

A

more about phenotype

188
Q

genetic makeup

A

genotype

189
Q

does an identical twin or a fraternal twin have a higher chance of having schizophrenia if their twin does?

A

identical 50% chance (both children are equally at risk of schizophrenia because it is in their genotype) ; fraternal 19% chance

190
Q

development and behavior is often ____ (contribution to many genes)

A

polygenetic

191
Q

overall genetic contribution to psychopathology is less than ___%, but schizophrenia is around ___%

A

50% ; 80%

192
Q

in some studies, depression is ___% to ___% heritable

A

20% to 40%

193
Q

eating disorders are ___% to ___% heritable

A

40% to 50%

194
Q

who proposed that learning could affect genes by turning them on or activating them?

genetic structure is malleable and receptive to the environment - what is this interaction referred to as?

A

eric kandel ; gene-environment interactions

195
Q

a genetic vulnerability or predisposition (diathesis) interacts with the environment and life events (stressors) to trigger behaviors or psychological disorders

A

diathesis-stress model

196
Q

when a third variable affects the strength or direction of the relationship between two variables

A

interaction

197
Q

true or false: gene-environment correlations are kind of a falsehood

A

true

198
Q

in many cases, ____ and ___ are correlated

(robustness to psychopathology (resilience) is correlated to both

A

genes and environment

199
Q

genes can ____ the probability that an individual will experience environmental events (which might increase the likelihood of experiencing psychological problems)

-adoption studies are interesting because genes and environment can be parsed

A

increase

200
Q

nothing about your behavior played a role in this stressor

A

independent stressor

201
Q

ex. of an independent stressor

A

getting hit by a drunk driver on the way home from class

202
Q

stressors that our own characteristics contribute to

A

dependent stressors

203
Q

ex. of dependent stressor

A

getting into frequent fights with your partner because of the type of partner you tend to choose

204
Q

three types of gene-environment correlations

A
  1. passive
  2. evocative
  3. provocative
205
Q

types of genes a child inherits may be correlated with the environment one is raised in

A

passive

206
Q

you play no role (no bearing on what you did right or wrong, but rather the role that both genetics and environment play)

A

passive

207
Q

ex. of passive gene-environment correlation

A

individuals could inherit genes for lower IQ and be raised in a non-intellectually rich environment

208
Q

individual’s genes may lead to behavior that evokes a response from the environment

A

evocative

209
Q

evocative gene-environment correlation is ____ produced only due to negative influences

A

NOT

210
Q

ex. of evocative gene-environment correlation

A

antisocial child (noncompliant, aggressive) may evoke certain responses from the environment (harsh, punitive parenting)

211
Q

individual’s genes make the selection of certain environments more likely
-personality tends to stabilize (become fixed) as we age because we have created niches for ourselves (ex. introversion vs. extraversion)

A

provocative

212
Q

environment (diet, stressors, behaviors, experiences) can affect how genes are expressed (ex. turning them on or off)

A

epigenetics

213
Q

some genes will ___ express themselves unless in a certain environment

-and, some environments may have ___ effect unless the genetic predisposition is there

A

never ; little

214
Q

if someone has a predisposition to alcohol abuse, but lives in an environment in which alcohol is prohibited, they will likely not develop alcoholism

A

ex. of epigenetics

215
Q

how are neurotransmitters related to psychopathology?

A

almost all current psychiatric drugs impact one or more neurotransmitters

216
Q

functions of neurotransmitters (study by introducing three classifications):

A
  1. agonist
  2. antagonist
  3. inverse agonist
217
Q

increase activity by mimicking its effects

A

agonist

218
Q

decrease or block a neurotransmitter

A

antagonists

219
Q

produce effects opposite to those produced by a neurotransmitter

A

inverse agonist

220
Q

this neurotransmitter regulates behavior, mood, and cognition

A

serotonin

221
Q

disinhibition, emotional reactivity, and impulsivity are linked to ___ levels of serotonin

A

low

222
Q

serotonin is related to ___, ___, ___, and ___

A

aggression, suicide, depression, and over-eating

223
Q

treated with ___

A

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

224
Q

ex. of SSRIs

A

prozac, celexa, paxil, zoloft

225
Q

SSRI would be a serotonin ___

A

agonist

226
Q

excitatory transmitter (causes action)

A

glutamate

227
Q

this neurotransmitter reduces postsynaptic activity (inhibitory effect) and has a broad influence on mood and behavior

A

gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

228
Q

this neurotransmitter affects anxiety and arousal in general (reducing anxiety, emotional reactivity, anger, aggression, and positive mood states, too)

A

gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

229
Q

____ are drugs that are believed to increase GABA

A

benzodiazepines (ex. valium, xanax, klonopin)

230
Q

this neurotransmitter increases heart rate and blood pressure (may be active in fight or flight situations)

A

norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

231
Q

____ are used for hypertension and to reduce anxiety responses

A

beta-blockers

232
Q

blocks beta receptors that are activated by norepinephrine

A

beta-blockers

233
Q

this neurotransmitter works as the “switch” that impacts the effects of other neurotransmitters

A

dopamine

234
Q

____ implicated in exploratory, reward-seeking behaviors

A

dopamine

235
Q

high levels of dopamine are implicated in ____

A

schizophrenia

236
Q

hallucinations and delusions will reduce if given a dopamine ___

A

inhibitor

237
Q

learning from psychopharmacology and various scanning procedures (fMRI, PET) the function and structure of the brain and what roles they play in psychopathology

A

relations between the brain and abnormal behavior

238
Q

____ influences can change brain function (particularly early experiences, with regard to feelings of control, safety, attachment)

A

psychosocial

239
Q

therapy…

A

also changes brain function

240
Q

psychosocial factors interact with brain ___ and ___

A

structures and function

241
Q

ex. identical groups of monkeys

-group 1 has control (when to eat; what toys to play with)
-group 2 has no control (food and toys access determined by group 1)

when given a drug causing strong anxiety, “no control” group ____, and the “control” group became ____

A

cowered ; became aggressive

242
Q

neurotransmitters interact with ____ factors to affect current behavior

A

psychosocial

243
Q

____ conditioning found that it was not just the pairing of the uncontrolled stimulus and controlled stimulus, but that it had to be consistent

A

classical conditioning

244
Q

seligman’s belief that one is helpless to impact life leads to depression

A

learned helplessness

245
Q

the opposite of learned helplessness is true, and has huge effect on health:

A

learned optimism

246
Q

bandura’s ____ is characterized by modeling and observational learning (vicarious learning)
-plays a role in substance abuse, aggression, interpersonal relationships

A

social learning

247
Q

according to ____ learning, we are evolutionarily programmed to learn certain things better than others (ex. we fear snakes, heights not trees, rocks) food poisoning - rare case of one time learning

A

prepared learning

248
Q

the nature of ___ is to elicit or evoke action (fight or flight; repair damaged relationships; promote the continuation of behavior)

A

the nature of emotion

249
Q

short lived, temporary states

A

emotion

250
Q

a more persistent, enduring state

A

mood

251
Q

momentary emotional tone that accompanies behavior

A

affect

252
Q

___/___ are to mood what weather is to climate

A

affect/emotion

253
Q

strong link between ___ and ___ with heart disease due to a decreased pumping efficiency for the heart

A

anger and hostility

254
Q

all of the basic emotions (fear, anger, sadness, excitement) can be linked to psychological disorders if they occur too ___, without “___,” too ___, or without ___ control

A

frequently ; “cause” ; strongly ; internal

255
Q

chronically depressed mood

A

depression

256
Q

overly positive, excited mood

A

mania

257
Q

strong fear response despite a lack of threatening stimuli

A

panic

258
Q

these factors of psychopathology contribute to the influence and expression of behavior

A

cultural factors

259
Q

most people across different cultures experience ___ symptoms, but ___ are different

A

similar ; attributions

260
Q

contrast european americans with schizophrenia to latinos with schizophrenia

A

european americans: describe life using terms related to mental illness

latinos: use “nerves” - seen as less pejorative and elicits more sympathy

261
Q

___ has a strong effect on psychopathology

A

gender (ex. depression, eating disorders, phobias, antisocial personality disorder)

262
Q

___ have higher rates of internalizing disorders across cultures (even in more matriarchal societies)
ex. anxiety, depression

A

women

263
Q

___ have higher rates of externalizing disorders
ex. antisocial personality, substance abuse

A

men

264
Q

social effects on health and behavior:

___ and ___ of social interaction are important

A

frequency and quality

265
Q

relationships have a protective quality against both physical and psychological disorders for three reasons:

A
  1. give meaning to life
  2. help us cope with physical and psychological pain
  3. encourage health-promoting behaviors
266
Q

____ of social support may be most vital

A

perceptions

267
Q

this perspective addresses developmental changes
(different periods of life associated with different challenges that might influence psychological health)

A

life-span developmental perspective

268
Q

developmental stage will also influence how disorders are manifested and treated (ex. antisocial men at 50 may look different than at 20)

A

heterotypic continuity

269
Q

multiple paths to a given outcome (ex. psychosis)

A

equifinality

270
Q

same events (ex. trauma, genes) can lead to different outcomes

A

multifinality

271
Q

this field examines the role of the nervous system in disease and behavior

A

the field of neuroscience

272
Q

branches of the human nervous system:

A

central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)

273
Q

two components of the central nervous system (CNS)

A

the brain and spinal cord

274
Q

two branches of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

somatic and autonomic branches

275
Q

the autonomic nervous system (ANS) of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of two divisions:

A

sympathetic division and parasympathetic division

276
Q

the neuron is composed of five components:

A
  1. soma
  2. dendrites
  3. axon
  4. axon terminals
  5. synapses
277
Q

the soma is the ___

A

cell body

278
Q

branches that receive messages from other neurons (chemical messages are converted into electrical impulses)

A

dendrites

279
Q

trunk of the neuron that sends messages to other neurons

A

axon

280
Q

buds at the end of the axon from which chemical messages are sent

A

axon terminals

281
Q

small gaps that separate neurons

A

synapses

282
Q

neurons are not connected - they are separated by the ___

A

synaptic cleft

283
Q

___ are released into the cleft and communicate with the next neuron

A

neurotransmitters

284
Q

two main parts of the brain:

A

brainstem and forebrain

285
Q

the most ancient part of the brain that is found in most animals and controls basic processes (ex. breathing, sleeping, physical coordination)

A

brainstem

286
Q

largest and most recently evolved part of the brain

A

forebrain

287
Q

three main divisions of the brain:

A
  1. hindbrain
  2. midbrain
  3. forebrain
288
Q

hindbrain consists of three parts:

A
  1. medulla
  2. pons
  3. cerebellum
289
Q

this part of the hindbrain regulates heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration

A

medulla

290
Q

this part of the hindbrain regulates sleep stages

A

pons

291
Q

this part of the hindbrain is involved in physical coordination

A

cerebellum

292
Q

this division of the brain coordinates movement with sensory input and contains parts of the reticular activating system (RAS)

A

midbrain

293
Q

this part of the midbrain is related to arousal and consciousness; sleep cycles

A

reticular activating system (RAS)

294
Q

the forebrain is also referred to as the ___

A

cerebral cortex

295
Q

most sensory, emotional, and cognitive processing occurs within this division of the brain, within two specialized hemispheres

A

forebrain (cerebral cortex)

296
Q

four lobes of the cerebral cortex:

A
  1. frontal
  2. parietal
  3. occipital
  4. temporal
297
Q

thinking and reasoning abilities and memory are controlled by this lobe of the cerebral cortex

A

frontal

298
Q

touch recognition is controlled by this lobe of the cerebral cortex

A

parietal

299
Q

this lobe of the cerebral cortex integrates visual input

A

occipital

300
Q

this lobe of the cerebral cortex controls recognition of sights, smells, sounds, and long-term memory storage; process complex stimuli

A

temporal

301
Q

the hippocampus, amygdala, septum, and cingulated gyrus compose which system?

A

limbic system

302
Q

this system is related to emotion, motivation, and memory

A

limbic system

303
Q

this part of the brain receives and integrates sensory information

A

thalamus

304
Q

eating, drinking, aggression, and sexual activity are controlled by this part of the brain

A

hypothalamus

305
Q

the 2 hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are connected by the ___

A

corpus callosum

306
Q

this hemisphere deals with visual-spatial processing, visual imagery, and creativity

A

right

307
Q

this hemisphere deals with language and reasoning

A

left

308
Q

which hemisphere is usually dominant?

A

left

309
Q

what are the two branches of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

somatic branch and autonomic branch

310
Q

this branch of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) controls voluntary muscles and movement

A

somatic branch

311
Q

the autonomic branch of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of two branches:

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS

312
Q

these branches regulate the cardiovascular system and body temperature, and regulate the endocrine system and aid in digestion

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS

313
Q

this system of the ANS mobilizes the body during times of stress (fight or flight; heart races, increased respiration, decreased digestion)

A

sympathetic system

314
Q

this system of the ANS takes over when not stressed - focuses on restoring energy and equilibrium (increased digestion; slowed breathing and heart rate)

REST AND DIGEST

A

parasympathetic system

315
Q

hormones (chemicals) are released into the bloodstream (affect response to stress, growth, metabolism, sexual characteristics)

A

the endocrine system

316
Q

systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person presenting with a possible psychological disorder

A

clinical assessment

317
Q

process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all criteria for psychological disorder set forth in the DSM-5

A

diagnosis

318
Q

the purpose of clinical assessment (4 components)

A
  1. to understand the individual
  2. to predict behavior
  3. to plan treatment
  4. to evaluate treatment outcome
319
Q

analogous to a funnel

A
  1. starts broad
  2. multidimensional in approach
  3. narrow to specific problem areas
320
Q

3 fundamentals to successful assessments

A
  1. reliability
  2. validity
  3. standardization and norms
321
Q

degree to which a measure is repeatable and consistent

A

reliability

322
Q

across time (test-retest), rather (inter-rater reliability), items (internal consistency)

A

consistency in measurement

323
Q

the degree to which a measure captures what it is designed to do (ex. does an IQ test measure intelligence?)

what does the test measure, and how well does it do so

A

validity

324
Q

you cannot have validity if you do not have ___

A

reliability

325
Q

reliability does not mean that you have ___

A

validity

326
Q

reliability is a necessary but ___ sufficient aspect of validity

A

NOT

327
Q

the degree to which the content of a test is representative of the domain it is supposed to cover

does the measure capture a full range of concepts?

A

content validity

328
Q

___ questions could be a good component of content validity

A

somatic

329
Q

a mathematics teacher develops an end-of-semester algebra test for her class
-the test should cover every form of algebra that was taught in the class
-if some types of algebra are left out, then the results may not be an accurate indication of students’ understanding of the subject
-similarly, if she includes questions that are not related to algebra, the results are no longer a valid measure of algebra knowledge

A

example of content validity

330
Q

scores on the measure are related to other measures of the same construct

is it related to other validated measures of the same construct?

A

convergent validity

331
Q

the scores of two tests, one measuring self-esteem and the other measuring extroversion, are likely to be correlated—individuals scoring high in self-esteem are more likely to score high in extroversion

A

example of convergent validity

332
Q

the extent to which a measure is related to an outcome

is it related to other constructs that are thought to be related to?

A

criterion validity

333
Q

a university professor creates a new test to measure applicants’ english writing ability
-to assess how well the test really does measure students’ writing ability, she finds an existing test that is considered a valid measurement of english writing ability, and compares the results when the same group of students take both tests. If the outcomes are very similar

A

example of criterion validity

334
Q

scores on the measure are not related to other measures that are theoretically different

-want to show that it has specificity and is more narrowed, correlates to things it should or shouldn’t be related

A

discriminant validity

335
Q

the scores of two tests measuring security and loneliness theoretically should not correlate

A

example of discriminant validity

336
Q

extent to which respondents can tell what the items are measuring

does it appear to measure what it is supposed to measure?

“do you feel sad?” is more collaborative with patient, but could be potentially skewed because patient will lie for things knowing what the questions are for

A

face validity

337
Q

you create a survey to measure the regularity of people’s dietary habits
-you review the survey items, which ask questions about every meal of the day and snacks eaten in between for every day of the week
-on its surface, the survey seems like a good representation of what you want to test

A

example of face validity

338
Q

the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior

does it predict important and relevant outcomes?

A

predictive validity

339
Q

SAT scores are considered predictive of student retention: students with higher SAT scores are more likely to return for their sophomore year

A

example of predictive validity

340
Q

the degree to which a test measures the construct, or psychological concept or variable, at which it is aimed; context dependent

A

construct validity

341
Q

which measure of validity is most important?

A

construct validity

342
Q

there is no objective, observable entity called “depression” that we can measure directly, but based on existing psychological research and theory, we can measure depression based on a collection of symptoms and indicators, such as low self-confidence and low energy levels

A

example of construct validity

343
Q

-foster consistent use of techniques
-provide population benchmarks for comparison

A

standardization and norms

344
Q

examples of ___ and ___ include: administration procedures, scoring, and evaluation of data and IQ tests

A

standardization and norms

345
Q

an interview method in which the researcher uses a flexible, conversational style to probe for the participant’s point of view

A

clinical interview

346
Q

the most common clinical assessment method

A

clinical interview

347
Q

no fixed set of questions and no systematic scoring procedure - involves asking probing questions to find out what the applicant is like

A

unstructured interview

348
Q

this interview method is most commonly used for time and convenience (could lead to a misdiagnosis)

A

unstructured interview

349
Q

there is a list of questions that have been worked out in advance, but interviewers are also free to ask follow up questions when they feel it is appropriate

A

semi-structured interview

350
Q

this interview method is less spontaneous and feels less natural and takes more time (commonly used in for research purposes)

A

semi-structured interview

351
Q

interview in which the researcher has determined what questions are important, the order in which they will be asked, and how they will be structured (no departure, and you cannot ask to clarify)

A

fully structured interview

352
Q

college students could use this interview method since they do not have the expertise

A

fully structured interview

353
Q

questions that should be asked in an interview: (8)

A
  1. presenting problem (when it started, participating in events)
  2. current and past behavior relevant to the problem
  3. detailed history including trauma and abuse
  4. educational history
  5. work history
  6. romance
  7. substance abuse
  8. past psychological and physical problems; treatment used