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Bacteriology and Mycology > Final exam Clicker Questions > Flashcards

Final exam Clicker Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A prokaryote is an organism with:

A. No chromosome
B. No Nucleus
C. No proteins
D. No nucleic acid

A

B. No nucleus

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2
Q

Which of the following is a prokaryote?

A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Protozoa
D. Helminth

A

A. Bacteria

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3
Q

In general, bacteria has

A. Nucleus
B. Histone
C. Sterol in the cell wall
D. Chromosomes
E. Ribosomes
F. Membrane bound organelles
A

D. Chromosomes

F. Ribosomes

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4
Q

Bacteria does not have:

A. Nucleus
B. Histones
C. Complex cell wall
D. Peptidoglycan
E. Chromosome
F. Ribosomes
G. Membrane bound organelle
A

A. Nucleus
B. Histones
G. Membrane bound organelle

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5
Q

Mycology is the study of

A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Fungus
D. Protozoa
E. Virus
A

C. Fungus

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6
Q

Which of the following is widely used for bacterial phylogenetic analysis?

A. Mitochondria genes
B. Lysosomal genes
C. Chromosomes
D. DNA coding for ribosomes

A

D. DNA coding for ribosomes

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7
Q

Which one of the following is a cell wall component unique to bacteria?

A. Proteoglycan
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Mycolic acid

A

B. Peptidoglycan

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8
Q

Choose the correct statement?

A. All bacteria have an outer membrane
B. Mycobacteria have lipopolysaccharide
C. Peptidoglyan is present only in Gram postive
D. Mycobacteria are the only acid fast positive bacteria
E. Teichoic acid is unique to Gram positive bacteria

A

E. Teichoic acid is unique to Gram positive bacteria

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9
Q

Identify the mismatched pair:

A. Flagella - Motility
B. Fimbriae - adherence
C. Capsule - protect from phagocytosis
D. Spores - survival
E. Endoflagella - binary fission
A

E. Endoflagella - binary fission

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10
Q

Which of the following in not a dimorphic yeast

A. Blastomyces
B. Histoplasma
C. Coccidioides
D. Cryptococcus

A

D. Cryptococcus

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11
Q

Animal A Brucella titer = 1:256
Animal B Brucella titer = 1:16
Interpretation: Animal A has higher Ab in the serum than Animal B.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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12
Q

Choose the incorrect statement regarding antibody titers.

A. A positive antibody titer is always diagnostic
B. False positive response can be due to previous exposure or vaccination
C. False negative response can occur in early infection
D. False negative results can occur due to anergy in the late stages of the disease
E. Four fold increase in the convalescent titer is suggestive of an active infection

A

A. A positive antibody titer is always diagnostic

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13
Q

Which of the following conditions would investigate when a dog presented with this type of lesion? (picture of dog with dark red lesions on bridge of nose)

A. Bacterial infection
B. Allergy
C. Immune mediated skin conditions
D. Parasitic infections
E. Neoplasm
F. Trauma
A 
A. Bacterial infection
B. Allergy
C. Immune mediated skin conditions
D. Parasitic infections
E. Neoplasm
F. Trauma
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14
Q

A common bacterial isolate from canine pyoderma

A. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
B. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
C. Staphylococcus intermedius
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

A. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

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15
Q

Greasy pig disease in pigs is caused by?

A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B. Hemophilus parasuis
C. Staphylococcus hyicus
D. Streptococcus suis

A

C. Staphylococcus hyicus

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16
Q

Giemsa stained smear from a dog with a subcutaneous nodular lesion. Which of the bacteria will be in the top of your differential diagnosis list? (picture of a dark purple macrophage with negative contrast rod shape organisms)

A. Pseudomonas
B. Streptococcus
C. Mycobacterium
D. Bacillus

A

C. Mycobacterium

Missing the outer membrane of the cell wall.

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17
Q

Skin lesion from a horse from a swampy area from Florida; Most likely etiology:

A. Histoplasma
B. Prototheca
C. Pythium
D. Trichosporon

A

C. Pythium

aka swamp cancer

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18
Q

Select correct disease organism pair

A. Strangles: Streptococcus equi subsp. equi
B. Pigeon fever: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
C. Glanders: Burkholderia mallei
D. Melioidosis: Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

These are all correct …. fuck me right!

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19
Q

Diamond skin disease pathogenesis?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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20
Q

Pathognomonic skin lesions observed in swine erysipelas is a local suppurative dermatitis.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

A systemic infection. Attack endothelium and why you see diamond shaped lesions.

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21
Q

What is the best treatment for a mature staphylococcal abscess?

A

Lysis! and then topical application of drug

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22
Q

The most like etiology in this condition in cattle? Picture cloudy eyes with pink eye.

A. Corynebacterium bovis
B. Moraxella bovis
C. Mycobacterium bovis

A

B. Moraxella bovis

This is a gram negative bacteria.

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23
Q

Giemsa stained smear from the ear of a dog; Organisms seen is : (picture of footprint shaped stained cells)

A. Malassezia
B. Candida
C. Bacillus
D. Sporothrix

A

A. Malassezia

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24
Q

In horses, guttural pouch mycoses occurs as a complication of

A. Strangles
B. Pigeon fever
C. Glanders
D. Pseudoglanders

A

A. Strangles

Caused my streptococcus equi subsp. equi

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25
Q

Which of the following bacteria is not generally involved in shipping fever pneumonia in cattle?

A. Mannheimia hemolytica
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Histophilus somni
D. Actinobacilllus pleuropneumoniae

A

D. Actinobacilllus pleuropneumoniae

An obligate swine pathogen.

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26
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Foal pneumonia is caused by Rhodococcus equi
B. R. equi is facultative intracellular bacteria
C. R. equi is partially acid fast positive
D. Penicillin is the antibiotic of choice in treating R. equi

A

D. Penicillin is the antibiotic of choice in treating R. equi

Your choice of antibiotic is Rifampin

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27
Q

Most likely differential diagnosis. (Xray picture with lesions in the lungs and bones).

A. Histoplasma
B. Blastomyces
C. Sporothrix
D. Coccidiodes
E. Cryptococcus
A

D. Coccidiodes

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28
Q

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for enterotoxemia in animals?

A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostriudium chauvoei
C. E. coli
D. Salmonella

A

A. Clostridium perfringens

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29
Q

Prototheca is a:

A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Algae
D. oomycets

A

C. Algae

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30
Q

Brucellosis is suspected in a dog with

A. Reproductive disorders in a female dog
B. Acute orchitis in a male dog
C. General illness and lymphadendopathy
D. Discospondylitis or osteomyelitits
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

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31
Q

Which of the following is not a histotoxic Clostridium sp.

A. C. chauvoei
B. C. novyi
C. C. septicum
D. C. difficule

A

D. C. difficule

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32
Q

Which of the following organisms does not have a predilection for nervous tissue?

A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Histophilus somni
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Salmonella

A

D. Salmonella

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33
Q

Pleocytosis is the presence:

A. Pleomorphic cells in the blood
B. Pleomorphic cells in the CSF
C. Pleomorphic cells int he nervous tissue
D. Increased number of cells in the cerebral spinal fluid

A

D. Increased number of cells in the cerebral spinal fluid

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34
Q

In regards to fungal organisms, which of the following is incorrect?

A. Eukaryotic
B. Unicellular yeast
C. Sexual and asexual reproduction
D. Contain peptidoglycan

A

D. Contain peptidoglycan

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35
Q

In regards to staining, which of the following is mismatched?

A. Gram + = thick peptidoglycan, presence of techioc acid, violet organism on stain
Gram - = thin peptidoglycan presence of LPS (lipid A endotoxin), pink organisms on stain
C. Acid fast + = pink on acid fast stain, mycolic acid, can also be gram + i.e. Mycobacterium
D. Negative staining = will be pink as in Gram (-)

A

D. Negative staining = will be pink as in Gram (-)

\+ = pink
- = blue
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36
Q

Pathogenicity is the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease by overcoming the defense mechanisms of the host. Where as virulence is the degree of pathogenicity.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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37
Q

Which of the following is True?

A. An antibody titer of 1:100000000 is indicative of a non-infection
B. Sending a fecal sample in a glass blood tube (red top) is standard protocol.
C. A kiry Bauer disk diffusion can be used to determine MIC
D. Concentration dependent antimicrobials are usually given at high doses to achieve plasma concentration above the MIC to kill bacteria

A

D. Concentration dependent antimicrobials are usually given at high doses to achieve plasma concentration above the MIC to kill bacteria

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38
Q

Which of the following is the most common Gram + isolate from skin?

A. Staphylococcus pseudintermeidius
B. Streptococcus pseudintermedius
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium tetani

A

A. Staphylococcus pseudintermeidius

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39
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause a skin lesion in a cat?

A. Mycobacterium lepraemurium
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Pasteuralla sp.
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

D. Listeria monocytogenes

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40
Q

A Male Chihuahua in the neighborhood decides he is alpha male. His owners accidentally let him out the front door and he goes for a stroll in the neighborhood. Another much bigger dog shows up and they decide to see who is truly alpha male. Many bite wounds later, the dogs and their owners end up at the emergency clinic. No major injuries other than the bite wounds. Which of the following bacteria is least likely to cause an abscess from the bite wounds?

A. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
B. Streptococcus spp.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

D. Listeria monocytogenes

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41
Q

You swabbed pyoderma on a dog and the retropharyngeal lymphonode of a horse. Unforunately you forgot to label which was which. The horse has been at a trainer for the past few weeks and is unvaccinated. The trainer also has multiple other unvaccinated horses as well. You decided to gram stain a swab. What species do you suspect this swab came from? (picture of purple cocci chains)

A. The dog
B. The horse

A

B. The horse

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42
Q

A foal 2 (months old) comes to you clinic with progressing pneuonia, gastroenteritis, and multiple limb lameness. The foal is euthanized and sample-s are taken from the lungs and mesenteric lymphonodes. What is you top differential? (picture of granulomas on the lungs and lymph nodes)

A. Streptococcus equi
B. Streptococcu equi sbsp. Equi
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

C. Rhodococcus equi

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43
Q

A group of cows present to your clinic with neurological signs. The owner reports changing to silage to maintain a higher daily energy intake for winter. On distance exam you notice cows just walking in circles and head pressing. Which of the following is your top differential?

A. Salmonella dublin
B. VTEC
C. Corynebacterium bovis
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

D. Listeria monocytogenes

44
Q

What is this? (picture of diamond shaped lesions on a pig’s ass)

A. VTEC
B. Streptococcus porcinus
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Staphylococcus hycius

A

C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

45
Q

You are called out to examine some cows that died during the night. Upon arrival, you notice the bodies are extremely bloated. You pull blood, put it in the cooler and go back to the clinic. 2 hours, later after an emergency pyometria, you remember the blood from the cooler. You pull it out cooler and note that it has not clotted. What are you immediately worried about?

A. ETEC
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

C. Bacillus anthracis

46
Q

What species is most likely to be affected by the below picture? (picture of tram track bacteria)

A. Canine
B. Feline
C. Equine
D. Bovine

A

D. Bovine

Dermatophilus congolensis

47
Q

What is causing this lesion in the bovine? (lesion on the jaw)

A. Actinomyces bovis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycobacterium bovis

A

A. Actinomyces bovis

48
Q

What is causing these animals to be the way they are? (calves and dog splayed out stiff on ground)

A. Clostridium novyi
B. Clostridium piliforme
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Bacillus anthracis

A

C. Clostridium tetani

49
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. Clostridium perfringens Type D: Pulpy kidney disease
B. Clindamycin: Diarrhea in horse due to C. difficile
C. Fusobacterium necrophorum: molar tooth colonies
D. Fusobacterium necrophorum: Foot rot, calf diptheria (necrotic laryngitis) and liver abscess possible

A

C. Fusobacterium necrophorum: molar tooth colonies

50
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. VTEC: Edema disease in pigs
B. ETEC: Small intestine in pigs
C. E. coli O78, O2: Scabby hip/necrotic dermatitis in broilers
D. LT: heat stabile toxin

A

D. LT: heat stabile toxin

51
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Salmonella Dublin (bovine): Ileum and large intestine colonization
B. Salmonella Typhimurium (Pigs): animals usually under 50 kg, diarrhea, general symptoms, cyansis in acute form
C. Salmonella Pullorum & Gallinarum: antigentically the same, and antigentically similar to S. Enteriditis
D. Salmonela enterica ssp. arizonae: biggest threat of zoonotic Salmonellaosis from eating raw/undercooked chicken eggs

A

D. Salmonela enterica ssp. arizonae: biggest threat of zoonotic Salmonellaosis from eating raw/undercooked chicken eggs

52
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Klebsiella: metritis caused by mare to mare transmission by fomites (Speculum).
B. Yersinia pestis: flea vector
C. Yersinia pestis: more likely in upper North East USA - NY to Maine area
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculois: Fat liver disease or rodentiosis in Passeriformes

A

C. Yersinia pestis: more likely in upper North East USA - NY to Maine are

53
Q

All of the following are high differentials for Otitis externa except?

A. Proteus mirabilis
B. Malassezia pachydermatis
C. Pseudomonoas aeruginosa
D. Yersinia pestis

A

D. Yersinia pestis

54
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT?

A. Pseudomonas: Gram + motile rods, Facultative pathogen, usually secondary infections
B. Pseudomonas: Cats and dogs associated with pyoderma, cystitis, and otitis externa - can have blue gree purulent discharge
C. Burkholderia mallei: melioidosis
D. Burkholderia pseudomallei: glanders

A

B. Pseudomonas: Cats and dogs associated with pyoderma, cystitis, and otitis externa - can have blue gree purulent discharge

55
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Taylorella equigenitalis: Contagious equine metritis
B. Brucella: Obligate pathogen
C. Brucella canis: Transient fever with very long infection, Euth. Should be considered
D. Brucella abortus: extracellular pathogen ONLY

A

D. Brucella abortus: extracellular pathogen ONLY

56
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica: Kennel cough in dogs
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica: Atrophic rhinitis in pigs
C. Bordetella avium: Coryza in turkeys
D. Clindamycin and lincomycine: antibiotics of choice in rabbits

A

D. Clindamycin and lincomycine: antibiotics of choice in rabbits

57
Q

Which of the following is correct?

A. Morazella bovis: “Bleeding ulcer” “pink eye” serous to purulent conjunctvitis and keratitis in bovine
B. Pasteruella multocida: only agent involved in progressive atrophic rhinitis of pigs.
C. Pasteruella multocida: Snuffles in cats
D. Staphylococcus aureus: most common bite wound pathogen (Cats biting other animals)

A

A. Morazella bovis: “Bleeding ulcer” “pink eye” serous to purulent conjunctvitis and keratitis in bovine

58
Q

Which of the following would not be a top differential for broncho-pneumonia in calves?

A. Mannheimia hemolytica
B. Mycoplasma bovis
C. Salmonella dublin
D. Streptococcus bovis

A

D. Streptococcus bovis

59
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Haemophilus parasuis: Glasser’s Disease, septicemia, meningitis, polyserositis, and poly arthritis
B. Histophilus somnei: otitis, considered worst possible outcome
C. Actinobacillus equuli: sleeply foal disease
D. Actinobacillus pleurophenumonia: high infection dose in pigs can result in death in a few hours

A

B. Histophilus somnei: otitis, considered worst possible outcome

60
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. M. tuberculosis complex and M. avium ssp. Paratuberculosis: ALL OBLIGATE pathogens.
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans: Mycolactone/macrolide toxin
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis: cattle infection passed to humans via milk
D. Mycobacterium bovis: can cause type IV hypersensitivity which leads to caseous necrosis

A

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis: cattle infection passed to humans via milk

61
Q

Which of the following incorrect?

A. Mycobacterium lepraemurium: Feline and Murine leprosy, single or multiple cutaneous nodules or ulcerated lesions. Dog ears as well!
B. Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis: tuberculosis in avian species
C. Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis: chronic progressive granulomatous enteritis in ruminants (thickened ileal mucosa)
D. Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis: utilization of mycobactin dependency confirms differentiation from other species.

A

B. Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis: tuberculosis in avian species

62
Q

Which of the following is false?

A. Brachyspira hyodysentary: polar flagella outside of periplasmic space
B. Brachyspira hyodysentary: highly infectious disease in grower and finisher pigs causing lesion in large intestine only resulting in dysentary.
C. Treponema paraluis-cuniculi: Rabbit syphilis or vent disease - perineal and facial lesions
D. Borrelia burgdorferi: lyme disease transmitted by tick

A

A. Brachyspira hyodysentary: polar flagella outside of periplasmic space

63
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Rickettsia and Chlamydia: Intracellular organisms
B. Rickettsia rickettsia: “Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever” attacks endothelial cells of small blood vessels = vasculitis and platelet activation
C. Anaplasmataceae: Neorickettsia, Ehrlichia, and Anaplasma
D. Anaplasma Phagocytophilum: attack platelets (primary target) leading to DIC in horses

A

D. Anaplasma Phagocytophilum: attack platelets (primary target) leading to DIC in horses

64
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Anaplasma platys: Attacks platelets
B. Anaplasma marginale: Attack erythrocytes
C. Erhlichia ewingii: tropical pancytopenia
D. Erhlichia ruminatium: heart water disease, reportable in USA, replicates in macrophages and endothelial cells, tick vector

A

C. Erhlichia ewingii: tropical pancytopenia

65
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Neorickettsia risticii: Potomac horse fever
B. Neorickettsia helminthoeca: Salmon poisoning in pacific NW USA
C. Neorickettsia helminthoeca: Hemorrhagic diarrea
D. Neorickettsia risticii: vaccination important in protection

A

D. Neorickettsia risticii: vaccination important in protection

66
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Chlamydia: reticulate body, active replicating body, metabolically active. NON-infectious
B. Chlamydia: Elementary body, NON active, smaller body is infectious
C. Chlamydia abortus: Stiff lamb disease
D. Chlamydia felis: conjunctivitis in cats

A

C. Chlamydia abortus: Stiff lamb disease

67
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Mollicutes: fried egg colonies, they use cholesterol for osmotic stability, no cell wall
B. Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides large colony variant: contagious bovine
C. Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides small colony variant: contagious bovine
D. Mycoplasma hyosynoviae: arthritis in growing pigs 3-6 months of age

A

B. Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides large colony variant: contagious bovine

68
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A.Mycoplasma felis: can cause disease in both horses and cats
B. Mycoplasma wenyonii: hemotrophic Mollicute in bovine
C. Mycoplasma canis: hemotrophic Mollicute in dogs
D. Mycoplasma suis: hemotrophic Mollicute in pigs

A

C. Mycoplasma canis: hemotrophic Mollicute in dogs

69
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Camplyobacter: S-shaped or “gull winged” bacteria, cytolethal distending toxin only toxin
B. Target or donut shaped lesions: Pathognomonic finding for lambs with Camplyobacter jejuni or C. getus ssp. Fetus
C. Urease - decreases pH in stomach to allow growth of bacteria
D. Helicobacter: LPS, vacuolating cytotoxin, cytolethal distending toxin can be present

A

C. Urease - decreases pH in stomach to allow growth of bacteria

70
Q

Which of the following is incorrecty?

A. Lawsonia intracellularis: porcine proliferative enteropathy, intracellular pathogen of distal jejunum and ileum, and requires interaction with unknown flora to cause disease
B. Fungi: eukaryotic, cell wall, chitin, ergosterol
C. Multicellular fungi: yeasts
D. Dimorphic fungi: yeast at body temperature and mycelial form at room temperature

A

C. Multicellular fungi: yeasts

71
Q

You examine a skin lesion on a dog. You suspect dermatophytosis specifically Microsporum canis. You decide to use a woods lamp to further examine the lesion. NO fluorescence occurs. You can safely rule M. canis.

A. True
B. False

72
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Aspergillus Hyaline fungus (transparent)
B. Candida Yeast
C. Blastomyces Dimorphic
D. Cryptococcus Dimorphic

A

D. Cryptococcus Dimorphic

73
Q

Which of the following is incorrect in regards to dermatophytosis?

A. Cattle: T. verrucosum, usually calves
B. Horses: T. equinum, M. canis (=M. equinum); rarely M. gypseum, T. mentagrophytes, and T. verrocosum. Young horses horses associated with tack and grooming gear
C. Pigs: T. verrucosum
D. Poultry: M. gallinae, avian ringowrm of favus, comb and wattles mainly, possily feather follicles

A

C. Pigs: T. verrucosum

74
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Cryptococcus: More common in dogs causing rhinitis, nasal granaulomas, and possible CNS involvement
B. Malassesia pachydermatis: Common pathogen involved in otitis externa or seborrheic dermatitis also feline chin acne
C. Sporothrux schenkii: Rose handler’s disease, cats mainly affected, cutaneous and SQ pyogranulomatous inflammation. Dissemination rare in immunocompetent host
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis: usually begins as lung infection but progresses to skin, eyes, bone, and bone

A

A. Cryptococcus: More common in dogs causing rhinitis, nasal granaulomas, and possible CNS involvement

75
Q

Which of the following is false?

A. Coccidioides immitis: valley fever, Texas to California, lesions in lungs and bone. Young boxers and dobermans particularly susceptible.
B. Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum: Mississippi and Ohio river valleys, bat fevers, intracellular fungi, pointing breeds
C. Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum: epizootic lymphangitis, “african horse farcy”, equine pathogen (to me “frosted flake cereal” colonies)
D. Pythium: “Swamp caner” pyogranulomatous cutaneous lesions “kunkers and leeches”

A

C. Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum: epizootic lymphangitis, “african horse farcy”, equine pathogen (to me “frosted flake cereal” colonies)

76
Q

What biochemical test can be used to differentiate Staphylococcus and Streptococcus?

A. Coagulase
B. Lancefield
C. Catalase

A

C. Catalase

77
Q

When doing a sensitivity of S. aureus, if it is resistant to erythromycin, is it ok to treat with clindamycin?

A. Yes
B. No

78
Q

Gram + species have all of the following except?

A. Peptidoglycan
B. Teichoic acids
C. Exotoxins
D. Endotoxins

A

D. Endotoxins

79
Q

What bacteria is your top differential in this condition?
(picture of pig with enormous swollen jaw)

A. VTEC
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus hyicus
D. Streptococcus porcinus

A

D. Streptococcus porcinus

80
Q

All of the following are associated with Streptococcus equi except?

A. Purpura hemmorhagica
B. Contagious to bovine species
C. Bastard strangles
D. Guttural pouch chondroids

A

B. Contagious to bovine species

81
Q

Which of the followig is not a member of Corynebacterium renale group?

A. C. renale
B. C. pseudotuberculosis
C. C. cystiditis
D. C. pilosum

A

B. C. pseudotuberculosis

82
Q

A local sheep and goat rancher calls for you to come examine his herds. He has been ranching all his life and has never found something like this before. His goats have these lesions on the peripheral lymphonodes, while his sheep have these lesions within internal lymphnodes. What is causing this?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Streptococcus equi
C. Clostridium novi type B
D. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

D. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

83
Q

Corynebacterium bovis causes?

A. Tubercule formation in cattle
B. Lymphadenitis in cattle
C. Septicemia in cattle
D. Hyperkeratosis in mice

A

D. Hyperkeratosis in mice

84
Q

Which agent causes bovine farcy?

A. Necrophorum farciminosum
B. Noccardia asteroides
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. E. coli

A

B. Noccardia asteroides

85
Q

Which species causes “flaccid” paralysis?

A. Clostridium novyi
B. Closridium piliforme
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium Botulinum

A

D. Clostridium Botulinum

86
Q

Your sheep and goat farmer calls you back for one of his different flocks of sheep. You go to examine the animals. One died the night before arriving so you decide to do a post mortem evaluation. You notice a fluid-distended intestine with petechia on the serosal surface. You also notice the kidneys spotted below. What is causing this?

A. Clostridium perfringens type C
B. Clostridium novyi
C. Clostridium perfringens Type D
D. Clostridium chauvoei

A

C. Clostridium perfringens Type D

87
Q

Clindamycin use in horses can lead to dysbiosis of normal gut flora, this then can lead to diarrhea caused by C. difficule?

A. True
B. False

88
Q

Which one of these is mismatched?

A. C. spiroforme - explosive diarrheal disease rabbits
B. C. difficile - clindamycine induced diarrhea in horses
C. C. piliforme - Tyzzer’s disease
D. C. piliforme - Gram +

A

D. C. piliforme - Gram +

89
Q

Which of the following is false with anaerobic infections?

A. Foul smelling discharges
B. Necrotic tissue, abscess
C. Gas in tissues or discharges
D. Infections that can be treated with aminoglycosides

A

D. Infections that can be treated with aminoglycosides

90
Q

You are called to consult on a pig farm. A colleague of yours sends you a picture and is perplexed. He aspirated fluid from the eyelid and was unable to culture anything. Why? Other clinical signs include: hoarse voice, diarrhea, anorexia, and CNS signs?

A. The bacteria causing this cannot be grown in culture
B. The bacteria causing this lesion are not actually found in this lesion. It is the toxin produced by these bacteria that is causing this.
C. The bacteria in this lesion can only be identified PCR

A

B. The bacteria causing this lesion are not actually found in this lesion. It is the toxin produced by these bacteria that is causing this.

91
Q

Which of the following is your top differential for swine with diarrhea? (pink rods)

A. E. coli
B. Lawsonia intracellularis
C. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
D. Clostridium difficile

A

A. E. coli

92
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. VTEC -

A

C. Neonatal ETEC - Heat stable toxin

93
Q

Which species of Yersinia is not zoonotic?

A. Y. pestis
B. Y. pseudotuberculosis
C. Y. enterolitica
D. Y. ruckeri

A

D. Y. ruckeri

94
Q

Which species cause diarrhea in adult cattle?

A. Steptococcus Zooepidemicus
B. Salmonella dublin
C. Klebsiella
D. Shigella

A

B. Salmonella dublin

95
Q

Contagious Equine Metritis is caused by (CEM)

A. Salmonella abortus - equi
B. E. coli
C. Taylorella Equigenitalis
D. Pseudomonas

A

C. Taylorella Equigenitalis

96
Q

Which of the following causes fowl typhoid?

A. S. enterica ssp. arizonae
B. S. enteriditis
C. S. pullorum
D. S. Gallinarum

A

D. S. Gallinarum

97
Q

Proteus is a primary pathogen for otitis externa in dogs.

A. True
B. False

98
Q

Francisella tularensis is a rare pathogen which rarely causes disease when patients are infected.

A. True
B. False

99
Q

Which species of brucella effects dogs?

A. Brucella abortus
B. Brucella canis
C. Brucella melitensis
D. Brucella ceti

A

B. Brucella canis

100
Q

You are called to a pig farm to investigate facial deformities in pigs. Upon arrival you see that the facility is indoors and poorly ventilated. You also see that 40% of the pigs are effected with the deformity. The owner agrees to necropsy one pigs to try to determine cause. What is causing this lesion?

A. Streptococcus porcinus
B. Staphylococcus hyicus
C. Bordetella bronchiseptica
D. Mycoplasma hyorhinis

A

C. Bordetella bronchiseptica

101
Q

Which of the following cause rhinitis in rabbits (SNUFFLES)?

A. Staphyulococcus aureus
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. E. coli

A

C. Pasteurella multocida

102
Q

Which of the following is not usually a primary pathogen in bronchopneumonia in calves?

A. M. haemolytica
B. Mycoplasma bovis
C. Salmonella dublin
D. Pasteurella multocida

A

D. Pasteurella multocida

103
Q

Which species causes Glassers disease?

A. Mycoplasma suis
B. Mycobacterium suis
C. Haemophilus parasuis
D. Staphylococcus hyicus

A

C. Haemophilus parasuis

104
Q

Which of the following causes sleepy foal disease?

A. Rhodococcus Equi
B. Streptococcus equi sbsp equi
C. Actinobacillus equuli
D. Actinobacillus pleurpneuoniae

A

C. Actinobacillus equuli

105
Q

Histophilus somnei causes multiple clinical signs, of those Retinitis and conjunctivitis are the most virulent.

A. True
B. False

Bacteriology and Mycology (5 decks)

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