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Bacteriology and Mycology > E1 Clicker Questions > Flashcards

E1 Clicker Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a prokaryote?

A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Protozoa
D. Helminth

A

A. Bacteria

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2
Q

A prokaryote is an organism with:

A. No Chromosome
B. No Nucleus
C. No Proteins
D. No Nucleic Acids

A

B. No Nucleus

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3
Q

Which of the following is is widely used for bacterial phylogenetic analysis?

A. Mitochondrial genes
B. Lysosomal genes
C. Chromosomes
D. DNA coding ribosomes

A

D. DNA coding ribosomes

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4
Q

Which one of the following is a cell wall component unique to bacteria?

A. Proteoglycan
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Mycolic acid

A

B. Peptidoglycan

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5
Q

Cell wall component unique to Gram Positive bacteria:

A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Teichoic acid
C. Mycolic acid
D. Peptidoglycan

A

B. Teichoic acid

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6
Q

Cell wall component unique to Gram Negative bacteria:

A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Teichoic acid
C. Mycolic acid
D. Peptidoglycan

A

A. Lipopolysaccharide

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7
Q

Gram Positive Staining in some bacteria is due to the presence of a:

A. Peptidoglycan layer
B. Teichoic acid
C. A thick peptidoglycan layer
D. Thick outer membrane

A

C. A thick peptidoglycan layer

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8
Q

Acid fast positive staining in mycobacterium is due to the presence of:

A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Teichoic acid
C. Mycolic acid
D. Peptidoglycan

A

C. Mycolic acid

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9
Q

Gram Positive bacteria retains the color of primary stain and Gram Negative bacteria picks up the color of the counterstain.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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10
Q

Which one of the following is the least likely virulence mechanism in bacteria?

A. Bacterial movement using flagella
B. Bacterial attachment using fimbriae
C. Biofilm production and attachment to surfaces
D. Bacterial protein production by ribosomes

A

D. Bacterial protein production by ribosomes

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11
Q

A disease can be diagnosed by identifying the infectious agent and the host immune response.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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12
Q

Humoral immune response is measured by screening for:

A. Antibodies
B. Antigens
C. T cells
D. Macropahges

A

A. Antibodies

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13
Q

Ability of a test to accurately identify an infected animal as positive is known as:

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity

A

A. Sensitivity

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14
Q

Ability of a test to accurately identify a non-infected animal as negative is known as:

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity

A

B. Specificity

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15
Q

Which of the following is not acceptable practice in sample collection?

A. Urine collected by free catch
B. Urine collected by catheter
C. Urine collected by cytocentesis
D. Urine collected and shipped to the lab in a syringe with needle attached to it

A

D. Urine collected and shipped to the lab in a syringe with needle attached to it

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect about antibody titer?

A. It is the last (highest) dilution of the serum at which antibodies are detected in a test
B. Determination of antibody titer can be used for diagnosis of infectious diseases
C. Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection
D. A four fold increase between serum samples collected at acute and convalescent stages of disease is indicative of an active infection

A

C. Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection

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17
Q

Results from serum testing for Brucellosis
Animal X; Serum Titer 1/100
Animal Y; Serum Titer 1/800
Interpretation: Animal Y has higher levels of antibody than animal X.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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18
Q

Which of the following will be the least likely scientific factor to be considered in deciding antimicrobial therapy?

A. Known the drugs
B. Know the microbes
C. Know the patient
D. Know the client

A

D. Know the client

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19
Q

In general, drugs with a lower Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) values are better choices for treatment.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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20
Q

Use of pure culture of bacteria in antimicrobial susceptibility testing is critical for obtaining accurate results.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding antimicrobial susceptibility testing?

A. MIC is the lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent which can inhibit the growth of bacteria
B. Published break point are required for interpretation of AST results
C. MIC can be measured in E-test
D. MIC can be accurately measured in disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer tests)

A

D. MIC can be accurately measured in disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer tests)

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22
Q

The most common canine Staphylococcus isolate is:

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
C. Staphylococcus hyicus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

B. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

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23
Q

Blackie, a 5 year old female dog was presented to the vet clinic with unresolving skin lesions. Purulent and bloody exudate was oozing out of some of the lesions. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is most common involved in this type of cases in dogs?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
C. Staphylococcus hyicus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

B. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

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24
Q

Staphylococcal enterotoxin (a superantigen) exerts it pathogenic effect by:

A. Binding indiscriminately and non-specifically to the T-cell receptors and class II MHC molecule
B. Binding to a receptor using the B subunit and activation of an enzyme using the A subunit
C. Binding to the CD14 receptor and activating macrophages to release TNF alpha

A

A. Binding indiscriminately and non-specifically to the T-cell receptors and class II MHC molecule

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25
Q

Which of the following antimicrobial groups does not belong to B-lactam group?

A. Ampicillin
B. Imipenem
C. Cephalosporins
D. Enrofloxacin

A

D. Enrofloxacin

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26
Q

Mechanism of action of B-lactam group is by:

A. Inhibiting protein synthesis
B. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
D. Inhibiting efflux pumps

A

B. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

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27
Q

One of the adverse effects of using B-lactam such as penicillin in certain individuals is:

A. Development of methicillin resistance
B. Development of clindamycin resistance
C. Type IV hypersensitivity
D. Type I hypersensitivity

A

D. Type I hypersensitivity

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28
Q

(Purple circle clusters) The bacteria is most likely:

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Rhodococcus
D. Micrococcus

A

A. Staphylococcus

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29
Q

What disease will be in your top differential diagnosis list when a horse is presented to you with lesions near its throat/submandibular.

A. Pyoderma
B. Strangles
C. Scarlet fever
D. Lymphadenitis

A

B. Strangles

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30
Q

Which of the following is the streptococcus species belonging to the Lancefield group G can cause fatal illness in cats?

A. S. equi subsp zooepidemicus
B. S. felis
C. S. canis
D. S. suis

A

C. S. canis

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31
Q

Which of the following Streptococcus species is an important pathogen in fish?

A. S. pneumonia
B. S. suis
C. S. iniae
D. S. pyogenes

A

C. S. iniae

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32
Q

Clinicians must consider Vancomycin as a last result antimicrobial agent to treat infections because of the emergence of Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus spp.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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33
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about tetracyclines?

A. Act by inhibiting protein synthesis
B. Broad spectrum antimicrobial agent
C. Bactericidal in action
D. Energy dependent efflux is a common mechanism of resistance

A

C. Bactericidal in action

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34
Q

Toxin and capsule are required for the virulence of Bacillus anthracis.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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35
Q

Capsule of Anthrax bacilli is composed of a polysaccharide.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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36
Q

McFadyean staining reaction is used for detecting.

A. LPS of anthrax bacilli
B. Capsule of anthrax bacilli
C. Fimbriae of anthrax bacilli
D. Endospore of anthrax bacilli

A

B. Capsule of anthrax bacilli

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37
Q

In avirulent forms of Bacillus anthracis presence of toxin is essential for generating protective immune response.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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38
Q

“Anthrax is a contagious disease.”

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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39
Q

Bacteria have which of the following ribosomes?

A

70s

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40
Q

Bacteria contain a nucleus.

A

False

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41
Q

Which of the following do bacteria have?

A. Complex cell wall
B. Histones
C. Nucleus
D. Sterols

A

A. Complex Cell wall

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42
Q

Which type of bacteria is known for having a thick layer of peptidoglycan and teichoic acid?

A. Mycobacteria
B. Gram -
C. Gram +

A

C. Gram +

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43
Q

A bacteria which uses host actin filaments to travel through cells

A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Streptococcus iniae

A

A. Listeria monocytogenes

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44
Q

This pig (with diamond like lesions on its skin) has an infection caused by:

A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Staphylococcus hyicus
D. Staphylococcus suis

A

A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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45
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about listeriosis in ruminants?

A. Outbreaks occur after feeding soiled silage
B. Encephalitis and neurological signs occurs after the organism enter through the wounds in the buccal mucosa
C. Generally, disease occurs in winter
D. Hepatic necrosis is the main lesion in adult ruminants

A

D. Hepatic necrosis is the main lesion in adult ruminants

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46
Q

Which of the following is known for having thin peptidoglycan and LPS?

A. Mycobacteria
B. Gram -
C. Gram +

A

B. Gram -

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47
Q

Which of the following is known to have peptidoglycan layer and mycolic acid?

A. Mycobacteria
B. Gram -
C. Gram +

A

A. Mycobacteria

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48
Q

Which of the following is an endotoxin?

A. Specific O chain in Gram-
B. A toxin produced in side Gram + species by normal metabolic activity
C. Lipid A portion of Gram -

A

C. Lipid A portion of Gram -

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49
Q

The death phase (of bacteria) can lead to the death of the patient.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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50
Q

What tests for endotoxin?

A. Limulus amebocyte lystate test
B. CBC
C. Blood biochemistry
D. PT/PTT

A

A. Limulus amebocyte lystate test

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51
Q

Which of the following cannot utilize oxygen for growth?

A. Aerobic
B. Facultative anaerobe
C. Aerotolerant anaerobe
D. Capnophilic

A

C. Aerotolerant anaerobe

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52
Q

Virulence is the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease by overcoming the defense mechanism of the host.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

53
Q

Endotoxins are metabolic products of Gram + species and exotoxins are the lipid A portion of outer membrane of gram - species.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

54
Q

Which of the following is not a method of transferring virulence factors from one bacterium to another?

A. Transduction
B. Mutation
C. Conjugation
D. Transformation

A

B. Mutation

55
Q

After culture and sensitivity the best antimicrobial to use will be under which break point?

A. Lethal
B. Resistant
C. Intermediate
D. Susceptible

A

D. Susceptible

56
Q

Which of the following is not a reason to culture and sensitivity testing?

A. Save time
B. Prevent disease relapse
C. Better treat your patients
D. Prevent antimicrobial resistance

A

A. Save time

57
Q

Which of the following cannot be used to determine MIC?

A. Kirby bauer disk
B. E-test
C. Broth dilution
D. Gradient diffusion test

A

A. Kirby bauer disk

58
Q

In regards to specificity and sensitivity and ideal test has?

A. Low specificity & Low sensitivity
B. Low specificity & high sensitivity
C. High specificity & high sensitivity
D. High specificity and Low sensitivity

A

C. High specificity & high sensitivity

59
Q

Acid fast + organisms appear pink while acid fact negative organisms stain blue.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

60
Q

When collecting tissue/samples from necropsy for microbial testing, these sample-s should be collected last due to personal safety issues?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

61
Q

PEA agar is selective for gram - species while McConkeys agar is selective for gram + species?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

62
Q

When an antimicrobial inhibits further replication of bacteria but does not kill the bacteria is referred as a bacteriocidal antimicrobial?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

63
Q

Which of the following uses mass spectrometry for microbial identification?

A. PCR
B. Interferon gamma test
C. MALDI-TOF
D. Antibody fluorescence

A

C. MALDI-TOF

64
Q

Staphylococcal species which are coagulase negative (such as S. felis) are more virulent than species which are coagulase positive (S. hyicus)?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

65
Q

Stapylococcus species contain a virulence factor, Protein A, which binds ot the Fc portion of IgG. Once this happen further binding to complement of macrophage cannot happen?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

66
Q

Bumble foot in birds is caused by which agent?

A. Staph aureus
B. Staph hyicus
C. Staph intermedius
D. Staph pseudintermedius

A

A. Staph aureus

67
Q

Which of the following causes “greasy pig”?

A. Strep. porcinus
B. Staph. porcuinus
C. Staph. hyicus
D. Strep. hycius

A

C. Staph. hyicus

68
Q

On a culture and sensitivity a species of staph appears susceptible to clindamycin but resistant to erythromycin (macrolide). Should you immediately treat with clindamycin?

A. yes
B. no

A

B. No

69
Q

The catalase test can be used to distinguish between streptococcus and staphylococcus species. Which species is catalase positive?

A

Staphylococcus

70
Q

Streptococcus is a facultative anaerobic, meaning that (depending on the exact species) it does not require oxygen, but if oxygen is present it can be utilized for metabolism?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

71
Q

Lancefield testing among streptococcus species classifies species based on cell wall proteins.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

72
Q

Which strep group is most common in canine and feline infections

A. B
B. C
C. G
D. D

A

C. G

73
Q

Fishermen become sick. Necropsy on fish. See bacteria in the gills, within the blood stream, and some cases even in the CNS. What is the top differential with a zoonotic link?

A. Staph. aureus
B. Strep. iniae
C. Staph. iniae
D. Staph. intermedius

A

B. Strep iniae

74
Q

A pig with a lesion “jowl abscesses”.

A. Strep porcinus
B. Strep suis
C. Staphy hyicus
D. Staphy porcinus

A

A. Strep porcinus

75
Q

Which strep species follows the one species, one host method?

A. Strep canis
B. Strep zooepidemicus
C. Strep equi
D. All of the above

A

C. Step equi

76
Q

What is unique about the capsule of strep?

A. Teichoic acid
B. N-acetyl muramic acid
C. N-acetyl glucosamine
D. Hyaluronic acid

A

D. Hyaluronic acid

77
Q

The horse is unvaccinated. What should he have been vaccinated for “strangles”?

A. Straph equi
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Strep equismilis
D. Strep. equi subsp. equi

A

D. Strep. equi subsp. equi

78
Q

Bastard strangles is disseminated strangles infection and purpura hemmorhagica is an immune complex mediated vasculitis. Both of which are secondary to Strep. equi subsp. equi infectoin?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

79
Q

A secondary disease of which of the following can cause guttural pouch empyema?

A. Staph. aureus
B. Strep. equi
C. Strep. zooepidemicus
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

B. Strep. equi

80
Q

When diagnosing strep using PCR one should target?

A. DNA sequence
B. RNA sequence
C. M protein gene
D. Hyaluronic acid capsule gene

A

C. M protein gene

81
Q

Bough cheap silage, 50% of the stock have become diseased. Animals walk in circles.

A. Erysipelothrix tonsillarum
B. Staph. aureus
C. Strep. equi
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

D. Listeria monocytogenes

82
Q

Which is the most important in regards to the immune system fighting of listeria infectoin?

A. Cellular Mediated Immunity
B. Humoral Immunity

A

A. Cellular Mediated Immunity

83
Q

E. rheusiopathiae is associated with disease in pigs where E. tonsillarum is considered avirulent in pigs but has been associated with disease in dogs?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

84
Q

Skin lesions on the pigs (red shaped diamonds).

A. S. aureus
B. S. hyicus
C. S. porcinus
D. E. rheusiopathie

A

D. E. rheusiopathie

85
Q

Appropriate term form drugs belonging to the Sulfa group:

A. Antibiotic
B. Antimicrobial agent
C. Antibacterial agent
D. Antiparasitic agent

A

B. Antimicrobial agent

86
Q

Sulfa drugs act by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis pathway.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

87
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats is caused by:

A. Corynbacterium pseudotuberculosis
B. Corynbacterium renale
C. Corynbacterium bovis
D. Corynbacterium ovis

A

A. Corynbacterium pseudotuberculosis

88
Q

Rhodococcus equi is an obligate intracellular pathogen.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

89
Q

A positive antibody titer to phospholipase D exotoxin of C. pseudotuberculosis is a confirmatory diagnosis for internal forms of caseous lymphadenitis

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

90
Q

Which of the following combination of antimicrobials are used for treating foal pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi?

A. Beta-lactam - aminoglycoside
B. Macrolide - rifampin
C. Sulfa - trimethroprim
D. Tetracycline - Fluoroquinolone

A

B. Macrolide - rifampin

91
Q

What type of culture would you request from a lesion like thin a dog?

A. Aerobic culture
B. Anaerobic culture
C. Aerobic and anaerobic culture
D. Whatever!

A

C. Aerobic and anaerobic culture

92
Q

Which of the following feature help in the identification Dermatophilus congolensis infection in cattle?

A. Scabby lesion
B. Presence of Gram + coccobacilli in the smear
C. Tram track appearance of the organisms in the stained smears of scabs
D. Presence of Gram variable filamentous bacteria in the smear

A

C. Tram track appearance of the organisms in the stained smears of scabs

93
Q

Trueperella pyogenes is a common bacterial isolate from pyogenic lesions if internal organs in cattle.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

94
Q

Which of the following agent disease pair is incorrect

A. Actinobaculum suis - pyelonephritis in swine
B. Corynebacterium bovis - pyelonephritis in cattle
C. Actinomyces bovis - lumpy jaw in cattle
D. Dermatophilus congolensis - rain scald in

A

B. Corynebacterium bovis - pyelonephritis in cattle

95
Q

Which of the following is not associated with B. anthracis?

A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. Pink stained capsules when stained with poly chromatic methylene blue
C. Tripartite toxin (edema factor, lethal factor)
D. Endospore production

A

A. Polysaccharide capsule

It has a D-glutamic capsule.

96
Q

For maximum virulence, Bacillus anthracis, all three factors (edema, lethal, and protective antigen) must be present?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

97
Q

You are called out to examine some cattle that have died over night. Upon arrival you note all of the cows that had died are bloated. The owner tells you the neighboring ranch had some cattle test positive for B. anthracis. Should you do a post mortem exam (necropsy)?

A. Yes
B. No

A

B. No

98
Q

What is causing this? Enlarged lymph node in a goat.

A. S. aureus
B. B. anthracis
C. C. pseudotuberculosis
D. R. equi

A

C. C. pseudotuberculosis

99
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis affects goats in the peripheral lymph nodes (external form); while sheep are affected in the internal organs and lymph nodes (internal form)?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

100
Q

Using serology to diagnose Cornybacterium pseudotuberculosis is very common. If a patient has positive titers does that mean the patient is currently diseased?

A. Yes
B. No

A

B. No

101
Q

Which of the following causes Colorado Strangles, Pigeon fever, or Dry-Land distemper in horses?

A. S. equi supsp. equi
B. S. aureus
C. C. pseudotuberculosis
D. R. equi

A

C. C. pseudotuberculosis

102
Q

Which of the following is not apart of the Cornybacterium renale group?

A. C. renale
B. C. pseudotuberculosis
C. C. cystidits
D. C. pilosum

A

B. C. pseudotuberculosis

103
Q

Which of the following causes dermatitis and hyperkeratosis in mice?

A. C. bovis
B. S. aureus
C. L. monocytogenes
D. R. equi

A

A. C. bovis

104
Q

A foal comes to your clinic with pneumonia. Using ultrasound you find multiple lesions within the lungs. The foal unfortunately did not survive the night despite aggressive treatment. The owner requests you do a post mortem inspection to look for a cause. You find multiple abscesses within the lungs and mesenteric lymphadenitis. You remember taking bacteriology at Ross and remember a bacteria can account for both signs. Which of the following is it?

A. S. equi subsp equi
B. S. equi
C. R. equi
D. L. monocytogenes

A

C. R. equi

105
Q

Pathogenic Nocardia species are strictly anaerobic?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

They are strictly aerobic.

106
Q

What causes bovine farcy?

A. N. asteroides
B. S. zooepidemicus
C. R. equi
D. S. aureus

A

A. N. asteroides

107
Q

Actinomycetes are soil dwelling saphorytes; they produce cell fragments that look like fungal spores.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

108
Q

Which of the following bacteria is known for “molar tooth like” colonies?

A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Rhodococcus
D. Actinomyces

A

D. Actinomyces

109
Q

You are called out to examine some cattle. The owner sends you a picture of the affected cow and is very worried about his herd. What is you r top differential?

A. Corynebacterium bovis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Actinomyces bovis
D. Bacillus anthracis

A

C. Actinomyces bovis

110
Q

While at the farm you notice other cattle seem to have skin condition. You decide to collect a sample. What is your top differential?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pygoenes
C. Dermatophilus congolensis
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

C. Dermatophilus congolensis

111
Q

Which of the following causes “summer mastitis” in cattle?

A. Trueperella pyogenes
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Dematophilus congolensis

A

A. Trueperella pyogenes

112
Q

Which of the following is commonly sexually transmitted amongst swine?

A. Staphylococcus hyicus
B. Streptococcus porcinus
C. Actinobaculum suis
D. Streptococcus suis

A

C. Actinobaculum suis

113
Q

Clostridium species are strictly aerobic?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

114
Q

Which of the following causes spastic paralysis?

A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Clostridium vhauvoei
D. Clostridium septicum

A

B. Clostridium tetani

115
Q

Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum both produce very potent toxins. Both of these toxins are neurotoxins.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

116
Q

Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum both having neurotoxins, exhibit the same type of paralysis?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

117
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be a “gas gangrene clostridia”?

A. C. chauvoei
B. C. septicum
C. C. tetani
D. C. novyi

A

C. C. tetani

118
Q

A rancher calls you reporting that one of his steer died overnight. You perform a post mortem and find a puncture wound. You cut out the wound and find this. what is your top differential?

A. S. aureus
B. D congolensis
C. C. chauvoei
D. C. tetani

A

C. C. chauvoei

119
Q

Which clostrdiium species cause Black disease (infectious necrotic hepatitis)

A. C. novyi type A
B. C. novyi type B
C. C. novyi type C
D. C. novyi type D

A

B. C. novyi type B

120
Q

Clostridium septicum causes malignant edema, and fatal toxemia affecting all species and ages.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

121
Q

What is the most practical and reliable option for diagnosis of clostridial myositis?

A. PCR
B. Culture
C. Direct Fluorescent antibody staining
D. Snap 4dx

A

C. Direct Fluorescent antibody staining

122
Q

Which of the following causes pulpy kidney disease?

A. C.septicum
B. C. perfringens Type B
C. C. perfringens Type D
D. C. novyi Type D

A

C. C. perfringens Type D

123
Q

Clostridium difficile infection can occur in animals who have been treated with antibiotics recently?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

124
Q

Which of the following is safe to use in rabbits as an antimicrobial?

A. Penicillin
B. Lancomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Erythromycin

A

A. Penicillin

125
Q 
Which of the following is gram negative?
A. C novyi
B. C piliforme
C. D. congolensis
D. S. aureus
A

B. C piliforme

126
Q

Calf diptheria or necrotic laryngitis is caused by?

A. S. aureus
B. C. novyi
C. D. congolensis
D. F. necrophorum

A

D. F. necrophorum

127
Q

Which of the following should you not use to treat anaerobic infections?

A. Beta lactams
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Tetracyclines
D. Quinolones

A

B. Aminoglycosides

128
Q

Which bacterial species has a non-polysaccharide capsule?

A

Bacillus anthracis

Bacteriology and Mycology (5 decks)

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