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Bacteriology and Mycology > E2 Clicker Questions > Flashcards

E2 Clicker Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. E. coli: lactose positive
B. E. coli: oxidase negative
C. E. albertii: major pathogen to sheep
D. E. coli: motile rods

A

C. E. albertii: major pathogen to sheep

We don’t care about. Escherichia all we are concerned about is E.coli

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2
Q

In regards to serotypin which of the following is correctly paired

A. H. Fimbriae
B. F: flagella
C. C: capsule
D. O: O antigen

A

D. O: O antigen

F: Fimbriae
K: Capsule
H: Flagell-ha

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3
Q

Shigella species are a pathogenic to animals.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Shigella we are not worried about even though they are identical as E. coli. Should be concerned if another human gives it to you.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a possible virulence factor for E. coli?

A. Endotoxin
B. Spore formation
C. Non-fimbrial adhesins
D. Enterotoxins

A

B. Spore formation

Spore formation is typically your clostridials. The rest are possible virulence factors with E. coli

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5
Q

Which of the following is not matched correctly?

A. ETEC: Enterotoxigenic E. coli
B. EHEC: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
C. VTEC: Verotoxigenic E. coli
D. RPEC: Really Pathogenic E. coli

A

D. RPEC: Really Pathogenic E. coli

It actually stands for: Rabbit Pathogenic E. Coli

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6
Q

Which of the following types of E. coli is not problematic in pigs?

A. ETEC
B. VTEC
C. MMA
D. EHEC

A

D. EHEC

Typically in calves but not in your pigs.

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7
Q

Which of the following is not common in cattle in regards to E. coli?

A. ETEC
B. EPEC
C. VTEC
D. Septicemia

A

C. VTEC

Typically seen in piglets. Verotoxigenic E. Coli.

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8
Q

Enterotoxins for piglets with ETEC are located in genetic material in?

A. Single circular chromosome
B. Plasmid

A

B. Plasmid

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9
Q

Which of the following is false in regards to the LT toxin in ETEC?

A. Strong Antigen
B. High molecular weight
C. Activation of adenylate cyclase
D. Weak antigen

A

D. Weak antigen

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10
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. STa: Heat labile
B. STb: Heat stable
C. STa Stb EAST1: Low molecular weight
D. STa STb EAST1: Poor antigenic quality

A

A. STa: Heat labile

STa and STb are both heat stabile

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11
Q

ETEC infection colonizes where?

A. Stomach
B. Small Intestine
C. Cecum
D. Large Intestine

A

B. Small Intestine

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12
Q

VTEC has an exotoxin.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

The name abbreviation VT2e

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13
Q

You are called to investigate a disease in pig farm. Biopsy showed no microbial organisms. What is your top differential for the cause of this.

A. Staphylococcus hyicus
B. Streptococcus porcinus
C. VTEC
D. ETEC

A

C. VTEC

Bacteria is in the stomach but it is releasing a toxin. Find nothing should follow up with a fecal.

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14
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms will you not see with VTEC infection in pigs?

A. CNS symptoms
B. Edema
C. Hoarse voice
D. Laryngitis

A

D. Laryngitis

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15
Q

Which E. coli disease uses the T3SS needle to inject effector proteins into host cells? Though rare, this disease can cause diarrhea at weaning which E. coli do you suspect?

A. ETEC
B. VTEC
C. EHEC
D. EPEC

A

D. EPEC

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16
Q

What is the most important pathogen that causes UTI in pigs?

A. Salmonella enterica
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. E. coli
D. Streptococcus porcinus

A

C. E. coli

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17
Q

Septicemia (caused by E. coli) in pigs is usually secondary to enteric infection.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

E. coli is typically in the GIT so septicemia is secondary to GIT colonization.

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18
Q

Which of the following is not associated with E. coli infection in cattle?

A. ETEC
B. EPEC
C. Septicemia
D. MMA

A

D. MMA

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19
Q

You are called to a ranch to figure out why calfs have watery diarrhea in the first 3 days of life. Which of the following is your top differential?

A. ETEC
B. EPEC
C. VTEC
D. EHEC

A

A. ETEC

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20
Q

Septicemia in neonatal calfs is usually due to? (E. coli)

A. Failure to vaccinate the calf
B. Failure to feed prophylactic antimicrobials
C. Failure of passive transfer
D. Failure to lead dequate vitamins

A

C. Failure of passive transfer

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21
Q

ETEC (in bovine) has all of the following virulence factors except?

A. F5
B. STa
C. Stb
D. LT

A

D. LT

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22
Q

Mastitis caused by E. coli in cows usually results in loss of only affected udder quarter.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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23
Q

Between cats and dogs, which one is more likely to have Cystitis caused by E. coli?

A. Dog
B. Cat

A

A. Dog

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24
Q

What is one of the most important bacterial disease in broilers and layers?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. E. coli
C. Salmonella enteriditis
D. Clostridum piliforme

A

B. E. coli

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25
Q

Which of the following is not associated with E. coli disease in poultry and other birds?

A. Neonatal colibacillosis
B Respiratory colibacillosis
C. Peritonitis
D. Encephalitis

A

D. Encephalitis

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26
Q

STa is highly immunogenic toxic substance of ETEC?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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27
Q

Which one of the following is not matched correctly?

A. S. Typhi: Host specific
B. S. Typhimurium: non-host specific
C. S. Dublin: Host adapted/restricted
D. S. Enteriditis: Host specific

A

D. S. Enteriditis: Host specific

they are all capitalized because they are the serotypes not the species. The Genera: Salmonella and the Species is enterica

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28
Q

Salmonella is which of the following?

A. Obligate intracellular
B. Obligate extracellular
C. Facultative intracellular

A

C. Facultative intracellular

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29
Q

Salmonella colonizes where (bovine)?

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum and Large Intestine
D. Stomach

A

C. Ileum and Large Intestine

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30
Q

If we have a cow/steer w.e. A bovine species with watery diarrhea and decide to do a biopsy of Small. Intestine. What will turn up in there?

A

E. coli

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31
Q

The systemic phase of Salmonella is usually abbreviated SPI2 and usually results in general symptoms. Where as the intestinal phase of Salmonella is usually abbreviated SPI1 and uses T3SS needle to inject effector proteins in enterocytes allowing uptake of Salmonella into the enterocyte resulting in cell lysis, diarrhea, and intestinal damage.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

Cullens Note: Two box chart. Basically what happens cows get infected with Salmonella through contaminated feed. Either inhaling or they are eating it. Either way if you ingest it … it will go into the intestinal phase where there is colonization in ileum and LI. When it goes systemic into blood system through pulmonary system. You will have general symptoms of general toxic shock. Or septicemia. if it produces toxins in blood or not. When it is intestinal phase it is more virulent. Chronic diarrhea leading to death. Affecting cells of GIT leading to misbalance in starling forces. Not absorbing enough and water gets excreted. T3SS needle the bacteria has that pokes into the cells and puts all the nasty toxins in. Know that SPI1 (GIT infections - diarrhea etc.) and SPI2 (generalized septicemia symptoms)

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32
Q

Which of the following serotypes is most common cause of diarrhea in bovine species?

A. S. Gallinarum
B. S. Dublin
C. S. Virchow
D. S. Agona

A

B. S. Dublin

Dublin will cause diarrhea in both calfs and adults.

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33
Q

Which of the following causes Typhoid in pigs?

A. VTEC
B. S. Typhimurium
C. S. Choleraesuis
D. S. Derby

A

C. S. Choleraesuis

Between 50-80 kg. Cyanosis is a clinical sign. Sometimes after they are weaned till they are about that weight.

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34
Q

Which of the following in regards to Non-typhoid Salmonella in pigs is False?

A. Slow dissemination
B. Hyperacute form: acute mortality
C. Acute form: cyanosis
D. Chronic form: faster growth of the pig due to synergism between microbe and GIT

A

D. Chronic form: faster growth of the pig due to synergism between microbe and GIT

35
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be a good practice for preventing Salmonella in pigs?

A. Feeding high protein diets with small particle size
B. Adjusting feed composition to larger particle size
C. Adding short chain fatty acids o drinking water
D. Adding medium/long chain fatty acids to drinking water

A

A. Feeding high protein diets with small particle size

36
Q

Salmonella in horses has a short incubation period.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

37
Q

Up to 36% of dogs and 20% of cats can be asymptomatic carriers of Salmonella.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

38
Q

Which of the following is false in regards to Salmonella in pigeons?

A. Acute Paratyphus: occurs during breeding
B. Chronic Paratyphyus: one wing is hanging down
C. Chronic Paratyphus: intermittent excretion of organism
D. S. Typhimurium var. Copenhagen: Major zoonotic agent

A

D. S. Typhimurium var. Copenhagen: Major zoonotic agent

It is not zoonotic.

39
Q

A vaccine for paratyphus will prevent disease in pigeons.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

It will not prevent infection. You are preventing a disease from being as “bad”. Won’t show clinical signs but can still contract the agent.

40
Q

Which of the following is not a cause for S. Typhimurium in passeriformes? (perching/song birds)

A. Stress
B. Overcrowding
C. Hot and dry
D. Inappropriate feeding

A

C. Hot and dry

41
Q

Which of the following is Typhoid salmonella in poultry?

A. S. Virchow
B. S. Paratyphi B
C. S. Gallinarum
D. S. Newport

A

C. S. Gallinarum

42
Q

Vaccination against S. Enteriditis to poultry will cause false positives in serology to S. Pullorum and S. Gallinarum.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

43
Q

Pullorum disease (S. Pullorum) effects all of the following species except?

A. Chickens
B. Turkeys
C. Penguins
D. Pheasants

A

C. Penguins

44
Q

An aviary with Chickens, ducks, pheasant,s quail, partridges, and turkeys is experiencing hyperacute mortality and hemolytic anemia in older animals. What is your top differential?

A. S. Pullorum
B. S. Gallinarum
C. S. Typhimurium
D. E. coli

A

B. S. Gallinarum

45
Q

Turkeys with Salmonella are usually infected with which type of Salmonella?

A. S. enterica ssp. arizonae
B. S. enterica ssp. utah
C. S. enterica ssp. california
D. S. enterica ssp. texas

A

A. S. enterica ssp. arizonae

46
Q

S. Enteriditis is a major zoonotic agent transmitted by egg contamination.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

47
Q

Which of the following in regards to Klebsiella is false?

A. Gram +
B. Found in environment
C. Opportunistic pathogen
D. Gram -

A

A. Gram +

48
Q

Umbilical infections in horses caused by Klebsiella are usually due to?

A. Failure of prophylactic antibiotics
B. Failure of recognizing infection and proper treatment
C. Failure of proteins supplementation to foals
D. Failure of passive transfer of colostrum

A

D. Failure of passive transfer of colostrum

49
Q

Which of the following is False in regards to Yersinia.

A. Y. ruckeri - fish pathogen
B. Y. pestis - not zoonotic
C. Y pestis - “plague”
D. As a genus replication is possible at 4 degrees

A

B. Y. pestis - not zoonotic

50
Q

Which area of the U.S. reports the most cases of Yersinia pestis?

A. North East
B. South East
C. North West
D. South West

A

D. South West

51
Q

Yersinia pestis pathogenesis is usually intracellular and then extracellular.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

52
Q

Which of the following causes Fat Liver disease or rodentiosis in passeriformes?

A. Y. pestis
B. S. Typhimurium
C. Y. pseudotuberculosis
D. Y. ruckeri

A

C. Y. pseudotuberculosis

53
Q

Which of the following causes enteric red-mouth disease in fish?

A. Y. enterolitica
B. Y ruckeri
C. Y pseudotuberculosis
D. S. Typhimurium

A

B. Y ruckeri

54
Q

Which of the following genera is known for swarming?

A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus
D. Yersinia

A

C. Proteus

55
Q

Which one of the following symptoms is common with Proteus infection in dogs?

A. Myocarditis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Otitis & Cystitis
D. Pneumonia

A

C. Otitis and Cystitis

56
Q

Which of the following does not cause disease in pigs?

A. ETEC
B. MMA
C. VTEC
D. EHEC

A

D. EHEC

57
Q

Which one of the following does not cause disease in cattle?

A. VTEC
B. EPEC
C. NTEC
D. ETEC

A

A. VTEC

58
Q

Which of the following toxins (in regards to E. coli) has a high molecular weight and high antigenic properties/

A. Sta
B. Stb
C. EAST1
D. LT

A

D. LT

59
Q

Which one of the following fimbrial adhesins are most likely to be found in ETEC causing weaning diarrhea.

A. F5
B. F41
C. F9
D. F4

A

D. F4

Sometimes see F18 but F4 is the main one.

60
Q

You are called to a farm to perform a postmortem exam on piglets. You take multiple samples of the GIT and find virulent bacterial strains in the small intestine. Which of the following would be your top differential?

A. Salmonella Typhimurium
B. ETEC
C. Salmonella Dublin
D. Salmonella Choleaesuis

A

B. ETEC

Two things here that give it away. Salmonella Typhimurium. is in the large intestine in grower pigs > 50-80 kg in body weight. E. coli is going to be more younger age piglets.

61
Q

Watery diarrhea in cattle can be caused by ETEC while muccoid (if caused by E. coli) is usually EPEC.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

62
Q

When broilers are infected with scabby hip/necrotic dermatitis where should you obtain a sample for diagnostic purposes?

A. Brainstem
B. Large Intestine
C. Small intestine
D. Feathers

A

D. Feathers

63
Q

Which of the following pathogenicity islands in Salmonella is responsible for diarrhea, intestinal damage, and general symptoms?

A. SPI1
B. SPI2
C. SPI3
D. SPI4

A

A. SPI1

SPI2 leads to general symptoms
SPI1 leads to colonization in the Ileum which leads to diarrhea, intestinal damage etc.

64
Q

Salmonella is usually found where?

A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach and large intestine
D. Ileum and large intestine

A

D. Ileum and large intestine

65
Q

Which of the following results in diarrhea in both calfs and adult cattle?

A. Salmonella Dublin
B. ETEC
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

A. Salmonella Dublin

Can also be Typhimurium but more likely Dublin

66
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. Yersinia pestis: replication in proventriculus of the flea
B. Yersinia pestis: mainly in Southwest USA
C. Yersinia pestis: Fat liver disease or rodentiosis
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis: Fat liver disease or rodentiosis

A

C. Yersinia pestis: Fat liver disease or rodentiosis

It is supposed to be Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.

67
Q

Proteus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are both secondary infections for otitis.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

68
Q

What color of purulent discharge does Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce?

A. White
B. Yellow
C. Blue-green
D. Black

A

C. Blue-green

69
Q

Fleece rot in sheep in caused by which of the following

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Salmonella Typhimurium
D. Yersinia pestis

A

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

70
Q

Which of the following causes exploding eggs in turkeys?

A. Avian E. coli
B. Salmonella
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Salmonella Pullorum

A

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

71
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A. B. mallei: glanders
B. B. pseudomallei: pseudoglanders in equine
C. B. pseudomallei: meliodosis
D. B. mallei: mainly canine pathogen

A

D. B. mallei: mainly canine pathogen

This is mainly an equine pathogen. Use CFT to diagnosis. It mimics streptococci equi infections. Reportable. All that fun stuff. Usually doesn’t make it the chronic stage.

72
Q

Which of the following is more virulent?

A. F. tularensis ssp. tularensis
B. F. tularensis ssp. holartica
C. F. tularensis ssp. mediasiatica
D. F. holaric ssp. holartica

A

A. F. tularensis ssp. tularensis

Found in North America, Europe, and Asia. Option D. doesn’t exist.

73
Q

Which of the following causes CEM? (Contagious Equine Metritis)

A. Salmonella Typhimurium
B. Taylorella equigenitalis
C. Taylorella asinigenitalis
D. Klebsiella oxytoca

A

B. Taylorella equigenitalis

Salmonella causes metritis
Klebsiella is nosocomial breeding farm

74
Q

Which of the following is not sampled for the stallion. (Taylorella equigenitalis)?

A. Scrotum
B. Perputium
C. Fossa glandis
D. Sinus urethralis

A

A. Scrotum

75
Q

When sampling mare for Taylorella equigenitalis you should sample what?

A. Vaginal vault
B. Cervix
C. Uterus
D. Fossa clitoridis and sinus clitoridis

A

D. Fossa clitoridis and sinus clitoridis

76
Q

Which of the following does Brucella not have?

A. Capsule
B. Plasmid
C. Thick peptidoglycan
D. Erythritol

A

A. Capsule

77
Q

Serological diagnosis of Brucella abortus has a major interference when Yersinia enterocolitica O9 is present?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

78
Q

Which of the following biovars for Brucella suis is more pathogenic?

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 4, 5, 6
C. 7, 8, 9
D. 13, 27, 85

A

A. 1, 2, 3

79
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. B canis no O antigen
B. B. canis very high fever
C. B canis no fever
D. B canis STD

A

B. B. canis very high fever

Very atypical of bacteria.

80
Q

What causes non progressive atrophic rhinitis in pigs?

A. ETEC
B. VTEC
C. Bordetella bronchiseptica
D. Brucella suis

A

C. Bordetella bronchiseptica

ETEC, VTEC = diarrhea

81
Q

What causes kennel cough in dogs?

A. Yersinia pestis
B. Brucella canis
C. Bordetella bronchiseptica
D. Pseudomonoas aeruginosa

A

C. Bordetella bronchiseptica

82
Q

Which of the following has osteotoxin as its virulence factor?

A. Klebsiella
B. Yersinia
C. Brucella
D. Bordetella

A

D. Bordetella

83
Q

Progressive atrophic rhinitis is caused by which of the following?

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica and Yersinia pestis
C. Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida
D. Pasteurella multocida and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

C. Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida

Bordetella has the osteotoxin that is toxic to osteoblast. Pasteurella multocida has the toxin that activates osteoclasts.

84
Q

What causes Coryza in turkeys?

A. Salmonella Pullorum
B. Salmonella Gallinarum
C. Bordetella avium
D. Salmonella enterica ssp. arizonae

A

C. Bordetella avium

Bacteriology and Mycology (5 decks)

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