Final Exam A&P Flashcards
Circuit that pumps blood to the lungs
Pulmonary circuit
Pulmonary circuit starts from what side of the heart?
Right side
In pulmonary circuit, what diffuses from blood into lungs?
CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
In pulmonary circuit, what diffuses from lungs into blood?
O2 (Oxygen)
In pulmonary circuit, blood returns to what side of the heart?
The left side
What circuit pumps blood to the tissues?
Systemic circuit
In systemic circuit, what side of the heart does it start?
Left side.
In systemic circuit, it delivers what to the body & head ?
O2 (Oxygen)
In what circuit picks up CO2 & waste from cells of body & head?
Systemic circuit.
In systemic circuit, which side of the heart does the blood return ?
Right side of heart
Blood flow of deoxygenated blood
Superior & inferior vena cava
Coronary sinus
right atrium
right ventricle
pulmonary trunk/PA
Lungs
blood flow of oxygenated blood
Lungs
4 pulmonary veins
coronary arteries
left atrium
left ventricle
Aorta
Body & head
What valve is between the right atrium & the right ventricle ?
Tricuspid Valve
What valve is in between the left atrium & left ventricle?
Bicuspid (Mitral valve)
Flow of blood
begins w/ deoxygenated blood
1. Sup&inf vena cava
- Right atrium & coronary sinus same time
- Tricuspid valve
2. Right ventricle
- pulmonary semilunar valve
3. Pulmonary trunk
4. Pulmonary arteries
-lung tissue
OXYGENATED START
5. Pulmonary veins
6. left atrium
- bicuspid valve
7. Left ventricle
- aortic semilunar valve
8. Aorta
-coronary arteries
to heart tissues
then deoxygenated blood starts again with cor0nary sinus- cardiac veins into right atrium.
conducting system of the heart contains
- sinoatrial (SA) node
- Atrioventricular (AV) node
- Bundle of His
- AV bundle
- Purkinje fibers
What structure is the pacemaker of the conducting system?
The Sinoatrial (SA) node
Depolarization phase in cardiac muscle
causes voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open
early repolarization phase
voltage gated Na channels & some voltage gated Ca 2+ channels close.
Plateau phase
voltage gated Ca2 channels remain open
final repolarization phase
voltage gated Ca2 channels close
many more voltage gated K+ channels open.
EKG deflections
p wave
QRS complex
t wave
What happens in P wave?
Atrial depolarization which Result in atrial contractions.
AD—> AC
what happens in QRS complex?
ventricular depolarization results in ventricular contractions
VD —> VC
what happens in T wave?
represents ventricular repolarization precedes in ventricular relaxation.
VR–> VR
What happens in PQ interval ?
Atria are contracting & begin to relax.
Ventricle begin to depolarize
what happens in QT interval?
ventricles contract & begin to relax
Altered EKGs
heart rate > 100 bpm termed tachycardia
heart rate < 60 bpm termed bradycardia
what does Atrial flutter look like?
2-3 P waves for each QRS complex
caused by ectopic APs in the atria
what is characterized by no P waves; normal QRS complexes: irregular timing
Atrial fibrillation.
ventricles constantly stimulated by atria, reduced pumping effectiveness & filling time.
What is characterized by no QRS complexes; no rhythmic contraction of myocardium
Ventricular fibrillation
characterized by occasional shortened intervals between contractions
premature atrial contractions
characterized by prolonged QRS complexes; exaggerated voltage; inverted T wave
Premature ventricular contractions
atrial contraction called
atrial systole
ventricles relax called
ventricular diastole
first heart sounds is described as
Lubb
what sound occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole caused by vibration of AV valves & fluid as AV valves close
“lubb”
second heart sound is described as
“dubb”
what sounds occurs at the beginning of ventricular diastole as semilunar valves in aorta and pulmonary artery close
” dubb”
layers of the blood veesel wall
tunica intima
tunica media
tunic externa
what layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of smooth muscle?
Tunica media
what layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of connective tissue ?
Tunica externa
what layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of epithelial cells?
tunica interna
types of capillaries
continuous
fenestrated
sinusoidal
walls have no gaps between endothelial cells and less permeable to large molecules
continuous capillaries
plasma membrane forms very thin, porous diaphragm, highly permeable
Fenestrated
larger fenestrae, gaps can exist between endothelial cells.
sinusoidal capillaries
which capillaries have gaps between adjacent endothelial cells
sinusoidal capillaries
what are the structures involved in the capillary network?
Arteriole,
metarteriole, thoroughfare channel,
precapillary sphincter
atrial capillaries
venous capillaries
venule.
capillary that have regions where their enodthelial cells have no cytoplasm and in some cases even have gap in the plasma membrane but no gaps
fenestrated
where blood moves from one capillary network to another.
portal system
what example is this, blood in the hypothalamus and they use the hypothalamophosis portal system to move that blood to the pituary gland where there could be a different capillary network.
example of a portal system
parts of the aorta
1, ascending aorta
2. aortic arch
3. descending aorta
further divided into thoracic aorta
abdominal aorta
3 vessels that branch from the aortic arch
- brachiocephalic artery
- left common carotid
- left subclavian artery
3 vessels that supply blood to the brain
- Internal carotid artery
- vertebral arteries
- circle of willis
3 vessels that drain the brain
- internal jugular veins
2.
a clot that had initially formed on a blood vessel wall but has broken off and traveled through the bloodstream
Embolus
a clot that forms on the wall of a blood vessel at a site of damage
thrombus
blood loss from a ruptured vessel
Hemorrhage
difference between thoracic & abdominal aorta
thoracic aorta- portion of the descending aorta superior to the diaphragm
abdominal aorta - portion of descending aorta inferior to diaphragm.
major arteries of upper limb
subclavian artery
axillary artery
brachial artery
radial artery
ulnar artery
abdominal aorta visceral branches
superior mesenteric artery - small intestine
suprarenal arteries - supply adrenal gland
renal arteries- supply kidneys
Gonadal arteries - supply gonads
inferior mesenteric artery- large intestine, rectum.
arteries of lower limb
common iliac artery
eternal & internal iliac
femoral artery
popliteal artery
anterior tibial artery
vein of upper limb
cephalic vein
basilic vein
brachial vein
median cubital vein
brachial vein
radial vein
ulnar vein
Allows for large and rapid changes to resistance of blood flow
Blood vessel diameter
An increase in hematocrit causes
increased viscosity and increased resistance
increases resistance and decreases blood flow
Vasoconstriction
The tendency for a blood vessel’s volume to increase with increased blood pressure is called
compliance
Heart rate is often assessed by detecting a pulse in the ____, which is on the anterior, lateral aspect of the wrist.
radial artery
is a measure of the force blood exerts against blood vessel walls
Blood pressure
flow is opposed by
resistance
What changes rate of flow
Resistance changes greatly with vessel diameter
* Small change in diameter = large changes resistance
Resistance is affected by several factors
- Blood viscosity- changes slowly
- Vessel length
- Vessel diameter- great impact
a measure of a liquid’s resistance to flow
Viscosity: As viscosity increases, more pressure is required to force it to flow
As blood is forced out of L Ventricle, it produces a pressure wave, or ?
pulse along the arteries
the most prevalent class of proteins in plasma, and is helpful in regulating water movement between the blood & surrounding tissue?
albumins
following is a type of protein in blood plasma, and is a vital component in the formation of blood clots?
fibrinogen
Antibodies belong to which of the following groups of plasma proteins?
Globulins
what are the formed elements in the blood?
RBC,WBC, & platelets
function of red blood cells “erythrocytes”
transport O2 & CO2
functions of white blood cells “leukocytes”
immune response
function of platelets “thrombocytes”
involved in blood clotting
what are the components of hemoglobin ?
1 polypeptide chain (globin), 1 heme, 1 iron. 2. aplha and 2 beta chain
what component of hemoglobin directly binds oxygen?
iron
how is most carbon dioxide transported in blood?
converted to bicarbonate and hydrogen ion
how is oxygen transported in the blood?
combined with hemoglobin
what is hemostasis?
the cessation of bleeding
what is coagulation?
vascular spams & platelet plugs can only close small tears cuts in vessel walls
common pathway coagulation order
Factor X
to
Prothrombinase
to
Prothrombin
to
thrombin
to
Fibrinogen
to fibrin
Clear fluid containing water and solutes, and traveling in lymphatic vessels, is called _____.
lymph
lymph with absorbed fats traveling in lacteals is called
chyle
Primary lymphatic organs
where lymphocytes become immunocompetent— able to launch an
immune response
* Red bone marrow
* Thymus
* Red bone marrow is location where
lymphocytes originate
* Pre-B cells become
immunocompetent in red bone
marrow
* Pre-T cells become
immunocompetent in thymus
secondary lymphatic organ & tissue
where lymphocytes
interact with each other, other
immune cells, foreign bodies/
microorganisms to produce an
immune response
* Include:
* Lymphatic nodules, incl. tonsils
* Lymph nodes
* Spleen
* Diffuse lymphatic tissue
Pre-B cells become immunocompetent in ___.
red bone marrow
function of spleen
Destroying defective RBCs
* Macrophages phagocytize old/damaged RBCs
* Detecting & responding to foreign bodies in blood
___________ immunity is non-specific; it is the same each time the body encounters a threat.
Innate
Adaptive immunity
Subsequent encounters with a foreign substance are recognized and responded to
quicker, because of previous encounter
Adaptive immunity is the ability of lymphocytes to recognize, respond to, & “remember” a
substance that is called
an antigen
antigen produced in the cell
endogenous
antigen if obtained from outside the cell
exogenous
Antigens found within a body cell can be attached to a(n) _____________ (while still in the cell) & then presented on the outside of the cell.
Major histocompatability complex molecule
Method of recognition by lymphocytes often involves
interaction with
Major histocompatibility complex
(MHC) molecules
display endogenous
antigens- those produced in the cell
MHC class I molecules
display exogenous
antigens- those obtained
from outside the cell
MHC class II molecules
The type of lymphocyte that typically is the first to binds MHC Class II molecules & begin to proliferate is a
Helper T cell
——– are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
Reticular cells
T cells
The first to recognize the antigen in MHC Class I Become activated when exposed to their specific antigen
* Antigen is presented by MHC Class I molecules, which helps ID
abnormal or infected cells
* Activation leads to proliferation…
Cytotoxic T cells
For MHC Class II molecules, ——
are usually the first to recognize the antigen
Helper T cells
Antibodies that are transferred from a mother to her child through breast milk is an example of _____ acquired adaptive immunity
passive natural
in MCH Class II, the Helper T cell
begins to divide Daughter cells can find & stimulate
B cells or cytotoxic T cells
B cells & Cytotoxic T cells then proliferate: responsible for immune
response that destroys antigen and Become
Memory Helper T cells- long lived!
ACQUIRING ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY– individual is exposed to antigen & individual’s immune
system responds
Active immunity
another person or animal develops immunity, which is transferred to another individual
passive immunity
ACQUIRING ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY can also be
Natural- occurs through everyday living; not intentional
* Artificial- deliberate introduction of antigen or antibody
antibodies produced by another person or animal are injected
Passive artificial immunity
antibodies from the mother are transferred to her child across the placenta or in milk
passive natural
antigens are delibertaletly introduced in a vaccine
active artificial
antigens are introduced through natural exposure
active natural immunty
The volume of air remaining in respiratory passages & lungs after the most forceful expiration is called ___.
Residual volume
increase volume in thoracic cavity
Muscles of Inspiration
decrease volume in thoracic cavity
by depressing ribs & sternum
Muscles of expiration
When volume in the thoracic cavity increases
prressure in the thoracic cavity decreases and air flows into the thoracic cavity.
sum of IRV, TV, ERV
Vital capacity
sum of IRV, TV, ERV, AND residual volume
Total lung volume
volume inspired/expired with each normal breath
Tidal volume
volume of air that can be forcefully inspired after a normal
inspiration
Inspiratory reserve volume
Volume of air that can be forcefully expired after a normal expiration
expiratory reserve volume
circular fold
formed by mucosa
& submucosa (perpendicular to& submucosa (perpendicular to
length of sm. int.)length of sm. int.
projections of mucosa
villi
cytoplasmic extensions of epithial cells
microvilli
female gonads
ovaries
femele gametes
oocyte
at 4 months fetal development
oogonia
at birth many oogonia have degenerated remain one produce
primary oocytes
at puberty, primary oocytes periodically resume to produce the
secondary oocyte
oocytes develop in
follicles
at birth, female have primary oocytes located in
primordual follicle
at puberty, some primordial follicle become
primary follicles, where granulosa cells form
hormonal changed stimulate some follicles to continue to develop
theca.
theca interna- cells that help produce ovarian hormones
theca externa- connective tissue that merges with stroma of ovary
the initial cell formed when two gametes, typically an egg cell (ovum) and a sperm cell, fuse during fertilization.
zygote
follicular cells that remain in ovary become the
corpus lutem
if pregnacy does follow ovulation what enlarges and remains active
Corpus luteum
if pregnancy does NOT follow ovulation what is functionsl for 10-12 days then begins to degenerate
corpus luteum.
If fertilization DOES occur, the :developing embryo produces
human chorionic gonadotropin HCG
keeps corpus luteum from degenerating
estro and progestrone level stays high
if fertilization does NOT occur
no HCG
pro and estro levels decreases
uterine cycle divide into
menses - mild hemorrhage
proliferative phase- endometrium begins to regenerate
estrogen causes remaining epithial cells to divide rapidly & replace those lost
secretory phase -
