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Biology 111 > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the role of the circulatory system?

A

Transports materials around the body

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2
Q

What two things do animals need to do?

A

Deliver oxygen and carbon dioxide from all cells of the body

Deliver nutrients to and waste products from all cells of the body

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3
Q

How do single-celled organisms compensate for their lack of a circulatory system?

A

They exchange materials directly with the environment

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4
Q

How do animals with a single (sponge) or a few cell layers (jellyfish) exchange gases, nutrients, and wastes?

A

Via diffusion

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5
Q

What does a circulatory system consist of?

A

Muscular pump (the heart)
Fluid (blood)
Series of conduits (blood vessels)

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6
Q

What types of animals use an open circulatory system?

A

Arthropods and mollusks

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7
Q

Essentially, how does an open circulatory system work?

A

Fluid leaves the circulatory system and moves between cells

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8
Q

Provide the steps that occur in an open circulatory system

A

Heart moves the extracellular fluid (hemolymph) through vessels
Fluid leaves vessels and filters through the tissues; returns to the heart through openings called ostia, which have one-way valves

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9
Q

What types of animals use a closed circulatory system?

A

Vertebrates and annelids

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10
Q

Essentially, how does a closed circulatory system work?

A

Fluid is contained in a continuous system of vessels

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11
Q

Explain the location and movement of blood in a closed circulatory system.

A

Blood is kept separate from interstitial fluid; pumped through the vascular system by one or more hearts. The blood never leaves the vessels

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12
Q

What are three advantages of a closed circulatory system?

A 
Faster transport of materials through vessels
Blood can be directed to specific tissues by varying resistance (diameter of blood vessel)
Signaling molecules (hormones) and nutrients can be transported to specific sites
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13
Q

How many atria and ventricles are in a 2-chambered fish heart?

A

1 atrium and 1 ventricle

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14
Q

How many atria and ventricles are in a 3-chambered heart in amphibians and some reptiles?

A

2 atria and 1 ventricle

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15
Q

How many atria and ventricles are in a 4-chambered heart in mammals and some reptiles?

A

2 atria and 2 ventricles

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16
Q

What is the role of the atrium?

A

Chambers that receive blood and pass it to a ventricle

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17
Q

What is the role of a ventricle?

A

Chambers that pass blood to the lungs or out to the body through arteries

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18
Q

What is the order of valves through which blood passes through the heart?

A

Tricuspid…pulmonary…mitral…aortic

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19
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

Thin double-layered sac enclosing the heart and containing fluid between the layers to cushion and lubricate the heart

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20
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium due to viral or bacterial infection

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21
Q

What two things are required for circulation?

A

A muscular pump (the heart) and a system of vessels to carry fluid

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22
Q

What three classes of vessels are needed for circulation?

A

Need vessels going away from the heart: arteries (large) and arterioles (smaller)
Need vessels for gas and fluid exchange: capillaries, also connect arteries to veins
Need vessels going back to the heart: veins (large) and venules (smaller)

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23
Q

What is the order in which vessels carry fluid?

A

Artery…arteriole…capillary…venules…vein

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24
Q

What are the two circulatory circuits?

A

Pulmonary and systemic

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25
Q

Explain bloodflow in a pulmonary circuit

A

Deoxygenated blood pumped from RV to lungs
Gases exchanged in lung capillaries
Return to heart: LA

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26
Q

Explain bloodflow in a systemic circuit

A

Oxygenated blood pumped from LV to tissues
Gasses exchanged in tissue capillaries
Return to heart: RA

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27
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

“Hardening of the arteries”

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28
Q

In atherosclerosis, how is the endothelial lining of arteries damaged?

A

High blood pressure, smoking, high-fat diet, or microorganisms

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29
Q

In regards to atherosclerosis, what is plaque?

A

A buildup of cholesterol, calcium, and other substances which forms at damage sites

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30
Q

After plaque builds up at a damage site, how do artery walls harden?

A

Fibrous connective tissue made by the invading smooth muscle cells make the artery wall less elastic

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31
Q

What does the growing plaque deposit do?

A

Narrows the artery and causes turbulence in the blood flow

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32
Q

What is the role of coronary arteries?

A

Supply blood to the heart muscle

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33
Q

Explain atherosclerosis in coronary arteries

A

Reduces blood flow; marked by chest pain and shortness of breath

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34
Q

What is coronary thrombosis?

A

A thrombus that forms in the coronary artery can lead to a blockage of blood flow and a heart attack, or myocardial infarction

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35
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A piece of thrombus that breaks loose and can cause an embolism (blockage) if it lodges in a smaller blood vessel

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36
Q

What places are likely for an embolism to occur?

A

Arteries narrowed by plaque

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37
Q

What happens if an embolism is in the brain?

A

Cells fed by that artery will die and cause a stroke

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38
Q

What are the 5 risk factors for atherosclerosis?

A

Genetic predisposition
Age
Environmental factors: high-fat diet, smoking, sedentary lifestyle
Medical conditions: hypertension, obesity, diabetes

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39
Q

Explain pressure in the arteries

A

High pressure, large pulse pressure

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40
Q

Explain pressure in the capillaries

A

Lower pressure, constant flow

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41
Q

Explain pressure in the veins

A

Lowest pressure

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42
Q

Explain venous return

A

Contraction pressure from the heart is not sufficient to move blood, so we have:

  1. Skeletal muscle contraction
  2. One-way valves in veins to prevent backflow
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43
Q

What causes varicose veins?

A

Damaged venous valves

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44
Q

Explain blood flow in the vasculature in detail

A
  1. Blood flow leaves the heart through large arteries and into smaller arterioles
  2. Blood from arterioles enters capillaries where gasses and fluid are exchanged
  3. From capillaries, blood flows into small venules, which lead to larger vessels, veins
  4. Veins carry blood back to the heart
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45
Q

Give the general path of blood flow in the vasculature

A

Artery…arteriole…capillary…venules…vein

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46
Q

What is the composition of arteries and arterioles?

A

Endothelium: single layer of endothelial cells
Two layers of elastic fibers (flexibility)
Thick smooth muscle
Connective tissue

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47
Q

What are the three characteristics of arteries and arterioles?

A

Arteries have more elastic fibers in their walls than other blood vessels (structural support and flexibility)
Contraction of the smooth muscle layer of arterioles results in vasoconstriction, decreases blood flow
Relaxation of the smooth muscle layer results in vasodilation, increases blood blow

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48
Q

How much of the human vasculature is composed of capillaries?

A

80%

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49
Q

Every cell of the body of within how many micrometers of a capillary?

A

100 micrometers

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50
Q

Explain the structure of capillaries.

A

Very thin and slow blood flow; allows for exchange of gases and fluid

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51
Q

In what sense are continuous capillaries “continuous”?

A

Continuous in the sense that the endothelial cells provide an uninterrupted lining

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52
Q

Explain the role of continuous capillaries.

A

Allow smaller molecules like water and ions to pass through intercellular clefts
These capillaries are a constituent of the blood-brain barrier; protects the brain from circulating pathogens

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53
Q

Explain fenestrated capillaries

A

Have small pores in the endothelial cells that allow small molecules and limited amounts of protein to diffuse

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54
Q

Where are fenestrated capillaries located?

A

Intestines, pancreas, kidney

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55
Q

What are the structural characteristics of sinusoidal capillaries?

A

Have larger openings in the endothlium

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56
Q

What is the role of sinusoidal capillaries?

A

Allow red and white blood cells and proteins to pass, aided by an incomplete basement membrane

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57
Q

Where are sinusoid blood vessels located?

A

Bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver, spleen

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58
Q

Generally speaking, where are sinusoid capillaries utilized?

A

Areas where greater movement of cells and materials is necessary

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59
Q

What is the composition of veins and venules?

A 
Endothelium
1 layer of elastic fibers
Smooth muscle
Connective tissue
Valves to prevent backflow
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60
Q

What are the characteristics of veins and venules?

A

Thinner layer of smooth muscle compared to arteries

Venous pump helps return blood to the heart (skeletal muscle contractions, one-way valves)

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61
Q

How do pre-capillary sphincters selectively regulate blood flow?

A

The body can direct more blood flow to the muscles and organs in times of need (fight or flight), or more blood flow to the intestines during digestion

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62
Q

Explain mammalian lung and gas exchange

A

Bronchi and bronchioles lead to alveoli, the actual site of gas exchange in the lungs

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63
Q

In one word, describe plasma’s capacity to carry oxygen

A

Limited

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64
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

An oxygen carrier in vertebrates; increases oxygen solubility 50-70x

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65
Q

Explain the composition of hemoglobin

A 
2 alpha-globin peptide chains
2 beta-globin peptide chains
Each has a heme group
Iron atom in heme binds oxygen reversibly
Overall, 4 polypeptide chains
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66
Q

Explain hemoglobin oxygen binding properties at lung capillaries

A

Carbon dioxide diffuses out, oxygen diffuses in at alveoli

High oxygen leads to oxygen binding

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67
Q

Explain hemoglobin oxygen binding properties at tissue capillaries

A

Carbon dioxide diffuses in and oxygen diffuses out

Low oxygen leads to oxygen release

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68
Q

Break down the percent composition of carbon dioxide in the blood

A

8% carbon dioxide dissolved in liquid component of blood (plasma)
20% bound to hemoglobin
72% carries (dissociated in red blood cells)…carbon dioxide diffuses out of the tissues into blood and red blood cells, carbon dioxide diffuses out of blood in lung

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69
Q

Explain plants’ classification as autotrophs

A

Plants use carbon dioxide during the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis to produce carbohydrates

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70
Q

Explain gas, mineral and water exchange in plants

A

Carbon dioxide gas is exchanged along with oxygen and water in leaves. Minerals and water are taken up by roots

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71
Q

What are the two parts of uptake and transport in plants?

A

Water and minerals are transported from roots to branches and leaves
Sugars are transported from the leaves to roots or other areas in need of energy

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72
Q

What are the two types of conducting tissue in plants?

A

Xylem and phloem

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73
Q

What is the xylem?

A

Dead tissue that conducts water and minerals from soil to photosynthetic areas; must flow from roots to highest branches

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74
Q

What is the phloem?

A

Live tissue that transports sugars from photosynthetic areas to the rest of the plant

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75
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Water moves from areas of higher water concentration to areas of lower water concentration

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76
Q

What does solute potential measure?

A

The osmotic strength of a solution

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77
Q

What is the solute potential of pure water?

A

0

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78
Q

What happens to solute potential when solutes are added?

A

Lower solute potential

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79
Q

What can solute potential be used to predict?

A

Water movement in osmosis

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80
Q

Plants have ion pumps; what type of transport is this?

A

Active transport

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81
Q

How do ion pumps affect solute potential?

A

Changes solute potential inside or outside the cell

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82
Q

Which way does water move in regards to solute potential?

A

Moves from areas of high to low solute concentration

83
Q

What is the structure of a root?

A 
Outer layer (epidermis)
Cortex (epidermis to endodermis)
Inner layer (endodermis)
Pericycle (tissue layer between endodermis and vascular tissue)
Stele (region containing pericycle, xylem and phloem)
84
Q

What is the apoplastic pathway?

A

Water enters between cells

Water moves between and through cells, but never crosses membrane (always outside cells)

85
Q

Where is the apoplastic pathway stopped?

A

At the endodermis by waxy Casparian strip

86
Q

Explain the structure of the Casparian strip

A

Cell walls impregnated with suberin (a waxy fat)

87
Q

Where does the Casparian strip form a “gasket”?

A

Between cells of the endodermis that surround the stele

88
Q

Is wax hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

Hydrophobic; repels water (water can only cross through cell)

89
Q

What must occur in the Casparian strip for water and minerals to reach the pericycle?

A

Water and minerals from all pathways must pass through the endoderm to reach the pericycle

90
Q

What is the role of water potential?

A

Cells of the pericycle pump ions into the xylem
Lowers solute potential inside the xylem
Water moves from pericycle cells into the xylem by osmosis

91
Q

How does water move up the xylem?

A

Some push from below:
Water from soil entering root creates root pressure (guttation); only enough to push up to a few feet
Main source is actually pulling from above: basis of tension/cohesion model

92
Q

What is the basis of tension in the tension/cohesion model?

A

Transpiration (movement of water through plants)

Loss of water through pores in leaves called stomata; creates tension in the column of water in the xylem

93
Q

What is the basis of cohesion in the tension/cohesion model?

A

Water molecules are very cohesive (H-bonding); water is pulled up from roots to leaves due to cohesion

94
Q

Explain transport in the phloem

A

Sucrose actively transported into cells, need mechanism to “move sugar water”, move from source (site of carbohydrate production) to sink (site of carbohydrate delivery/need)

95
Q

Explain the pressure bulk flow model

A

In photosynthetic areas (source):
Sucrose actively transported into phloem cells, lowers solute potential inside the phloem. Water enters the phloem, creating higher pressure which allows translocation, distribution of carbohydrates through the phloem to other areas of the plants

96
Q

In order to maintain homeostasis, what happens when conditions deviate too far from a set point?

A

Biochemical reactions are initiated to change conditions back toward the set point

97
Q

What are effectors?

A

Glands or other organs that change the value of the condition in question back toward the set point value; a gland/organ can be both a comparator and effector (pancreas)

98
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

A gland involved in the control of body temperature (and many other functions)

99
Q

What happens involving the hypothalamus if body temperature is high?

A

Promotes heat loss via sweating and dilation of blood vessels in the skin

100
Q

What happens involving the hypothalamus if body temperature is low?

A

Promotes heat conservation via shivering and constriction of blood vessels in the skin

101
Q

What are the two ways to send a signal?

A

Autocrine and paracrine

102
Q

How does autocrine signaling work?

A

Same cell sends and receives signal

103
Q

How does paracrine signaling work?

A

One cell sends signals, other cell(s) receive signal

104
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

Local signaling molecules

105
Q

What kind of molecule are hormones and growth factors?

A

Distant signaling molecules

106
Q

What are hormones?

A

Chemicals secreted into the blood stream for transport to distant targets; effective at low concentrations and affect growth, metabolism, development, and homeostasis

107
Q

What are the three classes or hormones and examples?

A

Peptide hormones (insulin)
Amino acid derivatives (melatonin)
Steroid hormones derived from cholesterol (testosterone and estrogen)

108
Q

What are the two classifications of hormones?

A

Lipophilic (nonpolar) and hydrophilic (polar)

109
Q

Define lipophilic (nonpolar) hormones

A

Fat-soluble steroid hormones that bind to intracellular receptors and tend to act over a brief time period

110
Q

Define hydrophilic (polar) hormones

A

Water-soluble, freely soluble in blood and bind to extracellular receptors and tend to have a much longer active period

111
Q

What are endocrine glands?

A

Glands that secrete hormones and other substances into the bloodstream

112
Q

What is the target of endocrine glands?

A

Cells that have receptors for the hormone

113
Q

Explain the goal of a negative feedback loop

A

To maintain the set point

114
Q

Explain how a negative feedback loop works

A

A hormone restores a set point which leads to a decreased production of that hormone

115
Q

What happens when the set point is exceeded in one direction?

A

Produce hormone, produce response

116
Q

What happens when a set point is exceeded in the opposite direction?

A

Reduce hormone production, reduce response

117
Q

What is one example of a negative feedback loop?

A

Blood glucose

118
Q

Explain the 2 hormones that control blood glucose and what they respond to

A

Insulin responds to an increase in blood glucose (beta cells) and glucagon responds to a decrease in blood glucose (alpha cells)

119
Q

How does Type 1 Diabetes affect the negative feedback loop involved in blood glucose?

A

Disrupts this system; the immune system destroys the cells that produce insulin

120
Q

What happens to blood glucose when you eat a candy bar?

A

Blood glucose rises, increases insulin production from the pancreas
Cells take up and metabolize glucose
Cells convert glucose to glycogen via glycogen synthase; stores it in liver and muscle
Overall result: Blood sugar falls and insulin production falls (negative feedback)

121
Q

What happens to blood glucose when you skip lunch?

A

Blood glucose falls, stimulates glucagon production (pancreas)
Glucose released by liver cells
Glycogen is converted to glucose and released
Overall result: blood glucose rises and glucagon production falls (negative feedback)

122
Q

Where is Ca++ stored?

A

Bone

123
Q

Why is constant plasma Ca++ important?

A

Important regulatory molecule in cells

124
Q

Regulation of plasma Ca++ involved which two hormones?

A 
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): works to increase Ca++
Calcitonin (CT): works to decrease Ca++ (illustrates proportional response)
125
Q

What happens if Ca++ falls below a set point?

A

PTH is produced

126
Q

What happens if Ca++ rises above a set point?

A

CT is produced

127
Q

What is the advantage of proportional control?

A

Allows finer level of control, not just all the way on for PTH and CT production; level of PTH/CT production is proportional to how low or high Ca++ levels are (most hormone systems show this kind of control)

128
Q

Explain hormones and development in humans

A

Up to 6 wks post-fertilization, males and females have Wolffian and Mullerian ducts; testosterone causes Wolffian ducts to form male organs and Mullerian ducts regress; exposure to estrogen causes Mullerian ducts to form femals organs and Wolffian ducts regress

129
Q

What are endocrine disruptors (EDs)?

A

Environmental chemicals that interfere with normal endocrine (for instance, chemicals that mimic steroid hormones like BPA)

130
Q

What are the two major branches of the immune system?

A

Innate immunity and adaptive immunity

131
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

Blocks entry of foreign pathogens and substances
Attacks pathogens and substances that do get into the body
General focus; innate immune cells are preprogrammed to attack many common pathogens and substances
Activates immediately upon invasion

132
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Slower activation (4-7 days)
Specific response
Can adapt to attack new pathogens and substances

133
Q

What is a component of innate immunity?

A

Skin (provides a nearly impenetrable barrier to pathogens)

134
Q

What characteristics of skin allow for its resistance to pathogens?

A

Oil and sweat glands give skin a low pH which inhibits growth/survival of pathogens
Lysozyme on skin breaks down pathogenic proteins
Good microbes that outcompete pathogenic microbes

135
Q

What are the three potential routes of infection?

A

Digestive tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract

136
Q

What do the digestive tract, respiratory tract, and urogenital tract have in common?

A

All lined by epithelial cells that secrete mucus which traps microbes

137
Q

Explain how the digestive tract protects against microbes

A

Salivary lysozyme; acidic stomach

Nonpathogenic normal flora (good microbes that block pathogens)

138
Q

Explain how the respiratory tract protects against microbes

A

Cilia sweep out microbes and dirt trapped in musus

139
Q

Explain how the urogenital tract protects against microbes

A

Acidic urine, normal flora (good microbes)

140
Q

What are the leukocytes that make up the innate immune system called?

A

Phagocytes (cells that eat)

141
Q

What are phagocytes capable of?

A

Engulfing pathogens and destroying them

142
Q

What are the two types of phagocytes?

A

Macrophages and neutrophils

143
Q

What is the role of macrophages?

A

Kill microorganisms through phagocytosis

144
Q

What are neutrophils?

A

Most abundant circulating leukocyte, also use phagocytosis

145
Q

How do phagocytes know what to attack?

A

Phagocytes are pre-programmed to recognize general patterns associated with pathogens (e.g. substances commonly present on the surface of pathogens like bacteria, viruses, and fungi). Also, they recognize proteins of the complement system. Proteins that stick to pathogens marking them for destruction by phagocytes

146
Q

What do phagocytes use to recognize patterns associated with pathogens?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)

147
Q

What do cytokines do?

A

Alarm signals that call phagocytes to activate and recruit to wounds and sites of infection

148
Q

What is another name for activation and recruitment of immune cells?

A

Inflammation

149
Q

What release cytokines?

A

Injured or infected cells, and other chemicals that increase cytokine production (histamine)

150
Q

What happens when an inflammatory response occurs?

A

Cytokine release causes nearby blood vessels to dilate and increase in permeability, to promote phagocyte accumulation/activation.

151
Q

What are the hallmark signs of an inflammatory response?

A

Redness, warmth, swelling (edema), pain

152
Q

What are the four characteristics of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. Set in motion by the detection of antigens
  2. A large diversity of antigens can be recognized
  3. Memory: slow response to new antigens; much faster response to antigens it has seen before
  4. Ability to distinguish self-antigens from non self-antigens
153
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A molecule that provokes an adaptive immune response

154
Q

What types of molecules can be antigens?

A

Molecules (sugars, proteins, lipids, etc) found on the surface of pathogens

155
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The part of an antigen that is the focus of an adaptive immune response; one antigen can have multiple epitopes

156
Q

What binds epitopes?

A

Antibodies: proteins made by the immune system that stick to the epitopes of antigens

157
Q

What is the structure of an antibody?

A

Tetramer (2 light ans 2 heavy chain proteins held together by disulfide bridges)
Variable regions attach to epitopes
The Fc (constant region) is recognized by cells of the specific and innate immune system
Antibodies can circulate freely or be attached to the membrane of an immune cell

158
Q

What roles does an antibody perform?

A

Does NOT kill pathogens
Binding to pathogen marks it for destruction by phagocytes
Binding to bacteria/viruses blocks entry into cells/tissues
Binding to toxins blocks them from binding to/entering cells

159
Q

What are the two cells of the adaptive immune system?

A

B lymphocytes/B cells and T lymphocytes/T cells

160
Q

What is the role of B cells/lymphocytes?

A

Make antibodies and respond to epitopes by secreting antibodies to those epitopes

161
Q

What is the role of T cells/lymphocytes?

A

Regulate other immune cells and also kill cells infected with pathogens

162
Q

How does B cell activation work?

A

When a circulating B cell finds an epitope to match its activated antibody, it becomes activated.
It begins dividing, producing and secreting its antibody into circulation, and activates T cells

163
Q

What is the first encounter with a foreign antigen called?

A

Primary immune response

164
Q

What happens during a primary immune response?

A

Only a few B/T cells can recognize new epitopes and mount a (slow) response
Memory B/T cells remain after the infection is over

165
Q

What is the second encounter with a foreign antigen called?

A

Secondary immune response

166
Q

What occurs during a secondary immune response?

A

Memory T/B cells recognize antigen quickly and in greater numbers, so response is faster and more effective

167
Q

What are vaccines?

A

Contain antigens that are injected into the body or taken orally
Cause an immune response leading to production of ‘memory’ B and T cells that offer long-lasting protection against a particular pathogen
If you are then exposed to that disease your adaptive immune system will quickly kill it

168
Q

What is acquired immunity?

A

short-term protection against particular pathogens by maternal antibodies (acquired across the placenta or in breastmilk)

169
Q

What are booster vaccinations?

A

required for some diseases; some vaccines may not produce enough memory cells to give life-long immunity

170
Q

Give two examples of booster vaccinations

A

Tetanus and diphtheria: every 10 years

Shingles (chickenpox): adults over 60

171
Q

What is immunological tolerance?

A

recognition of self-antigens (autoreactive B and T cells killed)

172
Q

What causes autoimmune diseases?

A

Failure of immune tolerance (autoreactive cells survive)

173
Q

What happens when autoreactive cells attack the body?

A

Inflammation and organ damage; treated with immunosuppressive medications and anti-inflammatory drugs

174
Q

What are allergies?

A

greatly heightened immune response to an antigen (allergen)

175
Q

What do allergies result from?

A

excessive antibody production to particular antigens (can be food, medicine, pollen, dander, etc.)

176
Q

How do some pathogens evade the immune system?

A

some pathogens can alter their surface antigens to avoid immune system detection

177
Q

What two antigenetic proteins does influenza express on the surface?

A

HA and NA

178
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

during viral replication, point mutations occur to the HA and NA genes that alter the epitopes (evades antibody binding)

179
Q

What does salmonella typhimurium do?

A

can alternate between expression of different flagellar proteins (evaded antibody binding)

180
Q

What does neisseria gonorrhoeae do?

A

secretes proteases that degrade antibodies (prevents antibody mediated immune response)

181
Q

Since animals must eliminate metabolic waste products, what do carbohydrates and fat end up as?

A

Water and Co2 and are easily eliminated

182
Q

What system processes waste?

A

Excretory system

183
Q

How does the excretory system process waste?

A

Processes and concentrates waste and toxic substances in kidneys; maintains normal concentrations of solutes and water in the blood

184
Q

What is the order of waste and water travel?

A

Blood…kidneys…ureter…bladder…excreted through urethra

185
Q

What are the three components of kidney function?

A
  1. Blood filtration: produces filtrate (Water and solutes) for processing
  2. Reabsorption of some water and solutes from the filtrate (back into blood stream)
  3. Secretion of toxic substances and some water (secreted filtrate is urine
186
Q

What is a nephron?

A

Processing unit of the kidney

187
Q

Which two arterioles feed the glomerulus?

A 
Afferent arteriole (blood enters)
Efferent arteriole (blood exits)
188
Q

What stays and leaves in blood of the glomerulus?

A

Water and small molecules (filtrate) leave blood, larger molecules and cells remain

189
Q

What is Bowman’s Capsule?

A

Where filtrate is collected, beginning or tubule system (filtrate processing occurs in tubule system)

190
Q

What order is the flow of filtrate?

A

glomerulus…bowman’s capsule…proximal tube…loop of henle….distal tubule…collecting duct

191
Q

What order is the flow of filtrate (urine)?

A

collecting duct (end of nephron)…ureter…bladder…urethra (urination)

192
Q

What happens as the filtrate travels through nephron tubules?

A

Water and beneficial solutes are reabsorbed into the blood stream

193
Q

What is reabsorbed out of tubules back to blood?

A

Water and important solutes

194
Q

During reabsorption, what things are actively transported?

A

Glucose, amino acids, Na+, Cl-

195
Q

During reabsorption, what is the role of peritubular capillaries?

A

How water and solutes are returned to the blood stream from the tubules

196
Q

What is secretion?

A

water and solutes that are not reabsorbed; toxic substances and some water remain in the tubule system for excretion as urine

197
Q

What does kidney/renal failure result in?

A 
Salt and water retention (high blood pressure)
Urea retention (uremic poisoning)
Decreasing blood Ph (acidosis)
198
Q

What does dialysis do?

A

passes blood through membrane channels bathed in a plasma-like solution to remove wastes

199
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) do?

A

Controls water permeability in the collecting duct (CD)
Acts on water channels (aquaporins) in the collecting ducts, increasing aquaporin gene expression and increasing number of water channels in the CD (more water transported back into the body from urine)

200
Q

What happens with more ADH?

A

More water retention

201
Q

What happens in ADH is absent or at low levels?

A

CD impermeable to water
Water remains in CD (not reabsorbed)
Results in water loss from body into urine

202
Q

What happens with low ADH?

A

Less water retention

203
Q

What happens in ADH is present at high levels?

A

CD permeable to water
Water reabsorbed from urine
Results in water retention

204
Q

How does alcohol affect ADH production?

A

Decreases ADH production
CD impermeable
Water remains in CD (not reabsorbed)
Results in LARGE loss of water in the urine
Causes dehydration and contributes to hangovers

Biology 111 (8 decks)

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