Exam 1 Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What is required for cell division?

A

Replication and segregation of genetic material, and division of cytoplasm. Must be controlled and responsive to environmental conditions.

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2
Q

What is an example of a prokaryote?

A

Bacteria

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3
Q

What is an example of a eukaryote?

A

Plants, animals, protists, and fungi

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4
Q

What is the size of a prokaryote?

A

Small (.2-2 um)

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5
Q

What is the size of a eukaryote?

A

Large (10-100 um)

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6
Q

Do prokaryotes have a nucleus?

A

No

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7
Q

Do eukaryotes have a nucleus?

A

Yes

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8
Q

Do prokaryotes have membrane-bound organelles?

A

No

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9
Q

Do eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles?

A

Yes

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10
Q

How is DNA arranged in prokaryotes?

A

Circular chromosomes (genophores) compacted by supercoiling

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11
Q

How is DNA arranged in eukaryotes?

A

Linear chromosomes

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12
Q

How do prokaryotes divide?

A

Binary fission

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13
Q

How do eukaryotes divide?

A

Mitosis and meiosis

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14
Q

What is binary fission?

A

Asexual cell division which requires duplication and segregation of genetic material (contained in nucleoid region of compacted DNA, also RNA and proteins)

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15
Q

What are the steps of binary fission?

A
  1. Single, circular bacterial chromosome is replicated 2. Replication begins at the origin of replication and
    proceeds in two directions at site of termination
  2. New chromosomes are partitioned to opposite
    ends of the cell
  3. Septum forms to divide into two cells (septation)
  4. Cell pinches off into two daughter cells
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16
Q

What are the steps of septation?

A
  1. Formation of a ring of FtsZ proteins (in most
    prokaryotes)
  2. Accumulation of others follows
  3. Structure contracts radially to pinch cell into two
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17
Q

What must happen during bacterial chromosome compaction?

A

Chromosome must be compacted and twisted, complexed with proteins

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18
Q

What are cyanobacteria?

A

Photosynthetic bacterium with a circadian cycle (active 19 hours/day for division)

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19
Q

What do genes Kai A, B and C do?

A

Regulate the expression of FtsZ to time division with light availability

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20
Q

What are chromosomes?

A

Condensed molecules of DNA and associated proteins and RNAs

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21
Q

What are centromeres?

A

Visible constrictions, area of repetitive DNA sequence

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22
Q

What do kinetochore and cohesion proteins do?

A

Associate with each chromatid at the centromere during cell division, site of microtubule attachment

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23
Q

What are telomeres?

A

Repeated short sequences of DNA at the end of chromosomes

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24
Q

Through what enzyme do telomeres replicate?

A

Telomerase

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25
Q

What causes the shortening of telomeres?

A

Age and disease

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26
Q

What is DNA’s net electrical charge and what causes it?

A

Negative (phosphate backbone)

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27
Q

What is histone proteins’ net electrical charge?

A

Positive

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28
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

146 base pairs of DNA wrapped around 8 histone proteins (most basic level of chromatin)

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29
Q

What is the metaphorical expression for chromatin?

A

Beads on a string

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30
Q

What is the metaphorical expression for selenoid?

A

Folded beads on a string, can be further folded into more and more structures

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31
Q

When is selenoid most compacted?

A

Mitosis

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32
Q

What is the G1 phase and what takes place?

A

First gap phase (pre-replication), carries out metabolic activity

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33
Q

What is the S phase and what takes place?

A

DNA synthesis/replication

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34
Q

What is the G2 phase and what takes place?

A

Second gap phase (post-replication), metabolize and prepare for segregation and cell division

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35
Q

What is the M phase and what takes place?

A

Mitosis/meiosis, DNA is segregated

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36
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

The division of the cytoplasm into two cells

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37
Q

What phases make up interphase?

A

G1, S, and G2

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38
Q

What is interphase?

A

The metabolically active period between nuclear divisions

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39
Q

Mitosis and cytokinesis are:

A

Sometimes loosely called mitosis, but are separate events

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40
Q

What is the cell cycle an oscillation between?

A

Mitosis and interphase

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41
Q

What is the G0 phase?

A

An alive and metabolizing, but non-dividing state

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42
Q

What are cyclins?

A

Regulatory proteins that accumulate and degrade in a cell-cycle specific fashion

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43
Q

What do cyclins regulate?

A

Kinases (enzymes that phosphorylate other molecules)

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44
Q

What do phosphatases do?

A

Dephosphorylate other molecules

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45
Q

What are cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)?

A

Kinases that complex with cyclin to regulate other molecules by phosphorylating them, phosphorylate transcription factors necessary for gene expression, result in increased synthesis of cell cycle-specific proteins

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46
Q

What must CDKs be complexed with to be active?

A

Cyclin

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47
Q

Different stages of the cell cycle are triggered by what?

A

Different CDK/cyclin complexes

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48
Q

How do CDK/cyclin complexes activate other molecules?

A

By phosphorylating them

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49
Q

What are the expression of cyclins sensitive to?

A

Internal and external factors (e.g. nutritional state for single-celled yeast, hormones and growth factors in multicellular organisms)

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50
Q

Under what conditions would cell division probably be lethal?

A

Insufficient environmental conditions, incompletely-replicated DNA, or damaged DNA

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51
Q

What is the start checkpoint?

A

The commitment to divide at all; growth factors, nutritional state of cell, size of cell

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52
Q

What is the G2/M checkpoint?

A

Regulated by cyclin/CDKs; replication completed, DNA integrity

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53
Q

What is the APC checkpoint?

A

Anaphase promoting complex; no chromatid separation; chromosomes attached at metaphase plate

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54
Q

What are located on the sides of DNA helices?

A

Covalent phosphodiester bonds

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55
Q

What are in the middle of DNA helices?

A

H bonds (weak and can be easily broken to separate the strands to allow for replication)

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56
Q

What is the anatomy of a double helix?

A

Antiparallel, 5’ end with phosphate and 3’ end with sugar, H bonds between nitrogenous bases on interior

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57
Q

What is the template mechanism in DNA replication?

A

Strands separate, a new DNA strand is synthesized via complementary base pairing using the old DNA strand as a template (Chargaff), new nucleotides added by phosphodiester bond to the 3’ end of a preexisting nucleotide by DNA polymerase

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58
Q

What enymes are required to replicate DNA?

A

Primase, helicase, DNA polymerase, and ligase

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59
Q

What is the initiation phase?

A

Starting, bring together necessary components for DNA replication

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60
Q

During initiation, what does the replication complex (RC) do?

A

Interacts with template strands

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61
Q

How does the RC know where to bind the DNA?

A

All chromosomes have DNA regions called origin of replication (ori); usually more than one; where replication begins. Proteins in RC bind to a DNA sequence in ori

62
Q

Why are there multiple oris?

A

Eukaryotic chromosomes are very big

63
Q

Why does DNA replication begin with a starter strand of RNA made by primase?

A

DNA polymerase has to add bases onto an existing nucleotide strand (in contrast with RNA polymerase)

64
Q

What is the RNA primer complementary to?

A

DNA template

65
Q

How is DNA polymerase positioned to carry out elongation?

A

By adding nucleotides to 3’ end

66
Q

What is elongation?

A

Actual replication of DNA. Helicase unwinds, binding proteins prevent bases from reforming hydrogen bonds

67
Q

What is termination?

A

Making sure the process is appropriately stopped

68
Q

What is the replication fork?

A

Site where DNA unwinds to expose bases with helicase’s help

69
Q

What happens during Leading Strand (Continuous) Elongation?

A

Synthesized continuously 5’ to 3’ until a primer/end of template is reached. RNA must be removed

70
Q

What happens during Lagging Strand (Continuous) Elongation?

A

Occurs in small discontinuous DNA stretches (Okazaki), each Okazaki requires its own RNA primer synthesized by primase.

71
Q

What does the lagging strand have more of than the leading strand?

A

RNA primers

72
Q

What replaces primer with DNA?

A

DNA Polymerase (I)

73
Q

What catalyzes the final phosphodiester linkage between fragments?

A

DNA Ligase

74
Q

DNA polymerase has a high processivity…what is it?

A

An enzyme’s ability to catalyze consecutive reactions without releasing its substrate

75
Q

How is DNA polymerase helped in catalyzing polymerizations each time it binds to DNA?

A

Polymerases stabilized by sliding clamp proteins

76
Q

DNA polymerase has a proofreading function as it adds nucleotides to a growing DNA strand…what does it do?

A

Polymerase can remove incorrect nucleotide and replace it with the correct one

77
Q

What do excision repair enzymes do?

A

Detect mismatches and DNA damage (like thymidine dimers) and remove incorrect or damaged DNA.

78
Q

After excision repair enzymes remove DNA, what does DNA polymerase do?

A

Fills in the gap

79
Q

What is xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

Rare genetic disorder of DNA repair enzymes in which the ability to repair damage caused by UV light is deficient (NER enzymes have reduced ability)

80
Q

How many chromosomes are in G1?

A

46 one-chromatid

81
Q

How many chromosomes are after replication?

A

46 two-chromatid

82
Q

What happens in mitotic prophase?

A

Chromosomes condense, nuclear membrane breaks down, spindle poles begin to form

83
Q

What are spindle poles?

A

An array of microtubules at each pole that are involved in chromosome movement during the rest of mitosis

84
Q

What happens in mitotic metaphase?

A

Chromosomes line up at center, cohesion proteins still exist so no separation yet, chromatids under tension

85
Q

What is tubulin?

A

Protein dimer of alpha and beta subunits that can polymerize to form a microtubule with hollow cord

86
Q

What allows microtubules to grow/shorten in length?

A

Polymerization/depolymerization of tubulin

87
Q

What do motor proteins CENP-E and dynein do?

A

Located in kinetochore, physically move the chromosome forward and backward along the microtubules as they polymerize and depolymerize

88
Q

What happens during mitotic anaphase?

A

Centromeres and chromatids are separated, chromosomes per cell double

89
Q

If a spindle checkpoint is passed during anaphase, what is activated?

A

Anaphase promoting complex (APC); will dissolve cohesion proteins holding centromeres together

90
Q

What happens during Anaphase A?

A

Chromosomes move to opposite poles (depolymerization of microtubules)

91
Q

What happens during Anaphase B?

A

Poles move apart

92
Q

What are are polar microtubules?

A

Extend from spindle pole to spindle pole

93
Q

What are aster microtubules?

A

Connect spindle poles to cell membrane

94
Q

What are kinetochore microtubules?

A

Connect chromosomes to spindle poles

95
Q

What happens during mitotic telophase?

A

Chromosomes decondense, nuclear membrane reforms around chromosomes and spindle apparatus disappears. One chromatid per chromosome

96
Q

Chromosomes after S phase?

A

One cell with 46 two-chromatid

97
Q

Chromosomes after mitosis?

A

Two cells with 46 one-chromatid

98
Q

What is mitotic cytokinesis?

A

Actual process of dividing one cell and its cytoplasmic contents into two

99
Q

During cytokinesis, what do animals use?

A

A contractile ring, a highly evoluntionarily conserved structure

100
Q

What two structures contract radially to pinch the cell into two (cleavage furrow)?

A

Actin microfilaments and myosin motor proteins

101
Q

What is formed between dividing plant cells?

A

Cell plate

102
Q

How many homologs do humans have for each chromosome?

A

2

103
Q

After replication, how many sister chromatids does each homolog have?

A

2

104
Q

What is ploidy?

A

How many sets of chromosomes are in a cell

105
Q

What is a diploid cell?

A

Two complete sets of chromosomes, one from each parent, 2n (46 chromosomes, 23 homologous pairs)

106
Q

What is a haploid cell?

A

One complete set of chromosomes, n or 1n (23 chromosomes, no homologous pairs)

107
Q

What are ovum and sperm?

A

n, 23 chromosomes, haploid, combine to create a 2n zygote with 46 chromosomes

108
Q

What is meiosis?

A

Cell division that produces n gametes from 2n cells

109
Q

What are gametes?

A

Sex cells (sperm, ovum)

110
Q

What is meiotic S phase?

A

46 two-chromatid chromosomes (diploid)

111
Q

What is meiosis 1?

A

The first cell division, homologous chromosome pairs separate

112
Q

What happens after meiosis 1?

A

Two cells with 23 two-chromatid chromosomes (haploid)

113
Q

What is meiosis 2?

A

Second cell division, chromatids separate

114
Q

What happens after meiosis 2?

A

Four cells with 23 one-chromatid chromosomes (haploid)

115
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

Gamete formation

116
Q

What does spermatogenesis result in?

A

Four viable sperm cells (haploid)

117
Q

What does ovogenesis result in?

A

One viable ovum cell and 3 nonviable ovum called polar bodies (haploid)

118
Q

During prophase 1, what do homologous chromosomes do?

A

Pair and form a complex (tetrad)

119
Q

What is crossing over?

A

When paired chromosomes exchange genetic material; rearranges chromosomes and increases genetic variation

120
Q

When are the only conditions in which crossing over occurs?

A

Prophase 1 when homologs are paired, between non-sister chromatids

121
Q

What is chiasamata?

A

The points at which the exchange of genetic material (crossing over) occur between homologous chromosomes

122
Q

During metaphase 1, each haploid cell will contain a mixture of genes from the organism’s mother and father called what?

A

Independent assortment

123
Q

What happens during anaphase 1?

A

Homologs separate

124
Q

What happens during meiotic cytokenesis?

A

One diploid divides into two haploid cells

125
Q

What is interkinesis?

A

No replication, period of rest in which a cell prepares for meiosis 2

126
Q

What does meiosis produce?

A

Haploid sperm and ovum

127
Q

What does fertilization produce?

A

Diploid zygote

128
Q

What does mitosis produce?

A

Whole organism

129
Q

What did Mendel establish?

A

Laws of Mendelian inheritance, quantitative approach, particulate unit of inheritance (now genes), Law of Segregation, Law of Independent Assortment

130
Q

What are genes?

A

Portions of DNA with information necessary to specify a trait (multiple genes may govern one trait)

131
Q

What is a locus?

A

Physical location of a gene on a chromosome…pair of alleles has genes at same loci

132
Q

What is an allele?

A

Genes that occupy the same spot on homologous chromosomes

133
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The particular set of genes carried by an individual

134
Q

What is the Principle of Segregation?

A

Maternal and paternal alleles segregate during gamete formation, 1 allele in each gamete

135
Q

What did Mendel generate his Principle of Segregation from?

A

Homologs disjoin during Anaphase 1, so alleles must as well

136
Q

What assumptions do Punnett squares make?

A

Equally likely gametic types combine randomly and each outcome is equally probable

137
Q

Why are alleles for each locus segregated independently?

A

Because chromosomes segregated independently during meiosis

138
Q

What does Mendel’s model of inheritance assume?

A

Each trait is controlled by one gene, each gene has only two alleles, clear dominant-recessive relationship (most genes don’t meet this criteria)

139
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Heterozygote has phenotype intermediate between the two homozygotes

140
Q

What is codominance?

A

Similar to incomplete dominance, but subtle differences; heterozygote may show both phenotypes (think blood types)

141
Q

What is black/brown coat color caused by?

A

Eumelanin

142
Q

What is yellow coat color caused by?

A

Phaeomelanin

143
Q

What is epistasis?

A

Latin for “to stand on”; one gene controls or stands on the other

144
Q

What is heterogametic sex?

A

Two kinds of sex chromosomes

145
Q

What is hemizygous?

A

Only one copy of an allele in an otherwise diploid organism

146
Q

What is homogametic sex?

A

One kind of sex chromosome has two copies of it, rest of chromosomes are autosomes

147
Q

How did we learn about sex linkage?

A

Thomas Hunt Morgan found naturally-occurring sex linked alleles in fruit flies (Drosophilia)

148
Q

What is anthocyanin responsible for?

A

Shades of red and purple in foliage when chlorophyll production stops

149
Q

What does the IA allele code for?

A

Transferase that adds galactosamine to the surface of RBCs

150
Q

What does the IB allele code for?

A

Transferase that adds galactose to the surface of RBCs

151
Q

What does the i allele code for?

A

An enzyme that is non-functional