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Patho 2 > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q 
Left heart failure will result in all of the following except:
A) pulmonary congestion
B) right failure
C) reduced cardiac output 
D) none of the above
A

D) none of the above

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2
Q

Tachycardia describes an abnormally slow heart rate?
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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3
Q

Cardiac shock is characterized by low cardiac output, low blood pressure,and low cardiac preload ?
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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4
Q 
Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulants the release of \_\_\_\_\_\_ from juxtaglomerular cells .
A)aldosterone 
B) angiotensinogen 
C) renin
D) norepinephrine
A

C) renin

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5
Q

Systolic failure is associated with a low cardiac output and low ejection fraction.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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6
Q 
A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and Lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?
A) neurogenic 
B) cardiogenic 
C) anaphylactic 
D) septic
A

D) septic

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7
Q

Most cases of heart failure are a consequence of coronary heart disease or systemic hypertension?
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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8
Q 
Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock ?
A)cardiogenic 
B) septic
C) anaphylactic 
D) hypovolemic
A

C) anaphylactic

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9
Q 
High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) blood volume 
B) stroke volume 
C) preload 
D) after load
A

D) after load

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10
Q

What is occurring in the ECG where episodes of tachycardia alternate with episodes of bradycardia ?
A) sinus arrhythmia
B) sinus are arrest
C) sick sinus syndrome

A

C) anaphylactic

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11
Q 
Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is due to?
A) high after load 
B) peripheral pooling of blood 
C) hypovolemia 
D) poor cardiac contractility
A

B) peripheral pooling of blood

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12
Q 
The common denominator in all forms of the heart failure. Is?
A) reduced cardiac output 
B) pulmonary edema 
C) tissue ischemia 
D) poor diastolic filling
A

A) reduced cardiac output

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13
Q 
First degree heart block is characterized by ?
A)absent  p waves 
B) prolonged pr waves
) variable pr wave 
D) widened QRS complex
A

B) prolonged pr waves

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14
Q

All forms of shock are associated with inadequate tissue perfusion?
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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15
Q 
After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of :
A) right side heart failure 
B) isolated left-sided heart failure 
C) peripheral vascular disease 
D) arterial obstruction
A

A) right side heart failure

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16
Q

Cardiac and hypovolemic shock can be different based on differences in cardiac preload.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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17
Q

Circulatory system primary function ?

A

Transportation of oxygen and nutrient and removal of metabolic waste products.

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18
Q

Ischemia

A

Lack of arterial blood flow

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19
Q

Hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen to system

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20
Q

Common ventricular out flow in early embryonic heart
A) foramen ovale
B) septum primum
C) truncus arteriosis

A

truncus arteriosis

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21
Q 
Mitral regurgitation will lead to? 
A) left ventricular hypertension
B) left atrial dilation 
C) right ventricular failure 
D) all of the above
A

D) all of the above

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22
Q 
An example of an acyanotic heart defect is? 
A) tetralogy of fallot
B) transposition of the great vessels 
C) ventricular septal defect 
D)all right to left shunt defects
A

C) ventricular septal defect

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23
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy clinically mimics which of the following?
A)pleural effusion
B) hypertensive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C)acute pericarditis
D) constructive pericarditis

A

D) constructive pericarditis

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24
Q 
Classify the following arterial blood gas : PH = 7.19, PaCO2=49mm Hg , HCO3= 24 mEq/L
A)metabolic acidosis
B) respiratory alkalosis
C)  respiratory acidosis
D) metabolic alkalosis
A

C) respiratory acidosis

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25
Q 
For a person with the following blood gas measurements , what would be a compensatory response: PH= 7.2, PaCO2=40mm Hg, HCO3=18mEq/L 
A) hyperventilating 
B) excretion of H+
C) excretion of bicarbonate
4) hypoventilation
A

A) hyperventilation

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26
Q

A patient with respiratory acidosis can compensate for the disorder by hyperventilating
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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27
Q

Restrictive pericarditis is associated with :
A) increase cardiac preload
B) cardiac hypertrophy
C impaired cardiac filing
D) elevated myocardial oxygen consumption

A

C impaired cardiac filing

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28
Q 
A student is nervous for a big exam and is breathing rapidly. Which of the following might occur? 
A) respiratory acidosis 
B) metabolic alkalosis 
C) respiratory alkalosis 
D) metabolic acidosis
A

C) respiratory alkalosis

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29
Q 
Which of the following arterial blood gasses indicates a compensated respiratory acidosis 
A) PH 7.6 PACo2 60, HCO3 26
B) PH 7.4 PaCO2 40, HCO3 24
C) PH 7.36 , PaCO2 55,HCO3 30
D) PH 7.45, PACO3 40, HCO3 38
A

C) PH 7.36 , PaCO2 55,HCO3 30

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30
Q

Inflammation of the inner Layer of the heart wall is termed endocarditis
A)true
B) False

A

A)true

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31
Q

Acute myocardial infraction and unstable angina are both acute coronary syndromes
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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32
Q

Mitral valve stenosis may lead to right ventricular failure
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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33
Q

If an infant had transposed Great arteries in conjunction with large VSD, which of the following is possible?
A) normal blood flow through the circulatory system
B) no mixing of blood between the pulmonary and systemic circuits
C) the defects are not compatible with life
D) only mild cyanosis due to mixing between circuits

A

D) only mild cyanosis due to mixing between circuits

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34
Q

If an infant has postductal coarctation of the aorta in conjunction with a patent ductus arteriosus , which of the following would occur?
A) blood would shunt from the aorta into the pulmonary arteries
B) blood would shunt from the pulmonary arteries into the aorta
C) blood would shunt from the left atria to the right atria
D) nothing normal circulation patterns would be in place

A

A) blood would shunt from the aorta into the pulmonary arteries

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35
Q

The enzyme that catalyze the conversion of carbonic acid into CO2 + H2O and vice Versa?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

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36
Q

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the ventruri mask. One hour later, after oxygen was placed , the nurse finds patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a code blue mad begins car. Explain why the patient stopped breathing.

A

In people who retain carbon dioxide because of pulmonary disease, arterial PCO2 is chronically elevated and chemoreceptors become unresponsive to the chemical stimulus. In such cases, declining PO2 levels act on the oxygen sensitive peripheral chemoreceptors and provide the principal respiratory stimulus, or so called hypoxia drive. Pure oxygen will stop a persons breathing, because his respiratory stimulus ( low PO2 levels ) would be removed.

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37
Q 
All of the following are acyanotic congenital defects except 
A) patent ductus arteriosus 
B) truncus arteriosus 
C) ventricular septal defect
D) arterial septal defect
A

B) truncus arteriosus

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38
Q 
Two important renal buffers are?
A) BUN and Creatinie 
B) NaHCO3 and hemoglobin 
C) NH3 and HPO4
D) CO2 and H2O
A

C) NH3 and HPO4

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39
Q 
Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to?
A) aortic stenosis 
B) pulmonary stenosis
C) tricuspid stenosis
D) aortic regurgitation.
A

B) pulmonary stenosis

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40
Q

Neutral PH for the human body?

A

7.4

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41
Q

The compensatory mechanism that are triggered following myocardial infarction?
A) increase myocardial oxygen demands
B) protect the heart from further. Ischemia
C) reduced heart rate and blood pressure
D) result from parasympathetic activation

A

A) increase myocardial oxygen demands

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42
Q

The number ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in blood is 10:1
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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43
Q

Inflation of the inner heart layer is termed pericarditis ?
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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44
Q 
Causes of lactic acidosis include all of the following except?
A) infections 
B) hypoxia 
C) acute myocardial infarction 
D) circulatory failure
A

A) infections

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45
Q 
Which of the following are the result of aortic stenosis? 
A) decrease stroke volume
B) decreased systolic blood pressure 
C) left ventricular hypertrophy 
D) all of they above
A

D) all of they above

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46
Q 
Committing of stomach contents or continuos nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of? 
A) metabolic acidosis 
B) carbonic acid deficient 
C) carbonic acid excess 
D) metabolic acid deficit
A

D) metabolic acid deficit

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47
Q

Left to right shunts are classified as cyanotic congenital disorders A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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48
Q 
Stenosis of which valve would impair blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle 
A) pulmonary semilunar 
B) bicuspid 
C) aortic semilunar 
D) tricuspid
A

B) bicuspid

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49
Q

Loss of upper GI contents ( vomiting) may lead to metabolic acid excess, whereas loss of lower GI contents (diarrhea) may lead to metabolic acid deficit
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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50
Q

Which of the following causes Eisenmenger syndrome with a VDS
A) pulmonary vascular resistance exceeding systemic
B) systolic pressure exceeding pulmonary
C) systemic vascular resistance exceeding pulmonary
D) systolic pressure exceeding system

A

A) pulmonary vascular resistance exceeding systemic

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51
Q

Most myocardial infarctions occur when an atherosclerotic plaque stimulates thrombus formation at the site?
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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52
Q

Initially ventral septal defects produces ________ shunt
A) r to L
B) L to R

A

B) L to R

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53
Q 
Pulsus paradoxus is classically found with: 
A) cardiac tamponade 
B) atherosclerosis
C) chronic pericarditis 
D) mitral prolapse
A

A) cardiac tamponade

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54
Q

Which of the following is an accurate description of patent ductus arteriosus?
A) a communication between the aorta and the pulmonary arter
B) a structure of the aorta that impedes blood flow
C) an opening between the artria
D) a cyanotic heart defect associated with right to left shunt. G

A

A) a communication between the aorta and the pulmonary arter

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55
Q

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of?
A:) beta hemolytic streptococcal infection
B)viral infection with herpes virus
C) cardiomyopathy
D) chronic intravenous drug abuse.

A

A:) beta hemolytic streptococcal infection

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56
Q

Coronary heart disease is also referred to as ischemic heart disease?
A ) true
B) false

A

A ) true

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57
Q

Although smoking has been linked to heart disease, it is no longer considered a major risk factor.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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58
Q

A person who chronically hypoventilates will have a higher than normal concentration of bicarbonate in the blood.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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59
Q

Truncus arteriosus is the term for the combined fetal atria
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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60
Q

Decreased cardiac output, muffled heart sounds and equalized intracardiac pressures are manifestations of: a) myocardial infarction
B) cardiomyopathy
C) congestive heart failure
D) cardiac tamponade

A

D) cardiac tamponade

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61
Q

The most common cause of coronary artery disease is coronary spasm.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

62
Q 
Which of the following can be consequences of rheumatic heart disease 
A) mitral stenosis 
B) mitral regurgitation 
C) aortic stenosis
D) all of the above
A

D) all of the above

63
Q 
Risk factors for atherosclerosis include : 
A) female gender 
B) low fiber diet
C) higher protein diet 
D) hyperlipidemia
A

D) hyperlipidemia

64
Q 
Classify the following arterial blood gas : PH 7.5, PaCO2 =30 hCO3 = 24 mEq/l
A) metabolic acidosis
B) respiratory acidosis 
C) respiratory alkalosis 
D) metabolic alkalosis
A

C) respiratory alkalosis

65
Q

Which side of the heart is first affected by cardiac tamponade
A) left
B) right

A

B) right

66
Q 
Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to: 
A) metabolic acidosis 
B) mixed acid- base disorders 
C) metabolic alkalosis 
D) respiratory acidosis
A

A) metabolic acidosis

67
Q 
A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by realist. The likely cause of this is 
A) myocardial infarction 
B) stable angina 
C) unstable angina
D) coronary vasospasm
A

B) stable angina

68
Q

An ASD located high in the atrial septum is termed a sinus venous defect
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

69
Q 
The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by: 
A) hypoventilation 
B) hyperventilation 
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion 
D) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide
A

A) hypoventilation

70
Q

Widespread atelectasis, non cardiogenic pulmonary edema and fibrosis are characteristic of
A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B) asthma
C) cor pulmonale
D) acute respiratory distress syndromes ( ARDS)

A

D) acute respiratory distress syndromes ( ARDS)

71
Q

Which of the following will decrease stroke volume, potentially leading to systolic heart failure?
A) lower blood pressure
B) decreased after load
C) ventricular remodeling due to ischemia
B) decreased preload.

A

C) ventricular remodeling due to ischemia

72
Q 
The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is 
A) tissue ischemia 
B) reduced cardiac output 
C) poor diastolic filing 
D) pulmonary edema
A

B) reduced cardiac output

73
Q

Systolic failure is associated with a low ejection fraction
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

74
Q 
The most common cause of pulmonary embolism is 
A) anemia 
B) deep vein thrombosis 
C) atherosclerosis 
D) varicose veins
A

B) deep vein thrombosis

75
Q

What arterial problem is illustrated in the following ECG

A

Atrial flutter

76
Q

Cystic fibrosis is ?
A) a restrictive disorder characterized by proteolytic destruction of alveoli
B) autosomal recessive disorder affecting exocrine glands
C) caused by chronic exposure to second hand smoke
D) an allergic disorder triggered by specific antigens

A

B) autosomal recessive disorder affecting exocrine glands

77
Q 
A common cause of secondary hypertension is 
A) anemia 
B) renal disease 
C) myocardial infarction 
D) dissecting aneurysm
A

B) renal disease

78
Q

Of the statements below, which best describes lymphedema
A) pressure in lymphatic vessels due to thrombus formation
B) accumulation of tissue fluid due to impairment of lymph circulation
C) thickening of lymphatic vessels walls due to antherosclerosis
D) accumulation of tissue fluid due to impairment of blood circulation.

A

B) accumulation of tissue fluid due to impairment of lymph circulation

79
Q 
Persistent abnormal dilation of bronchi ? 
A) epiglottis 
B) bronchiolitis
C) larngotracheobronchitis 
D) bronchiectasis
A

D) bronchiectasis

80
Q

Left side heart failure is characterized by:
A) jugular vein distention
B) peripheral edema
C) decreased systemic vascular resistance
D) pulmonary congestion

A

D) pulmonary congestion

81
Q

A serious complication of a thromboembolus leaving the left atrium is a cerebrovascular accident (stroke)
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

82
Q 
Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is due to? 
A) hypovoemia 
B) poor cardiac contractility 
C)high after load 
D) peripheral pooling of blood
A

D) peripheral pooling of blood

83
Q 
Cardiogenic Shock is characterized by: 
A) hypovolemia
B) reduced systemic vascular resistance 
C) reduced cardiac output 
D) elevated S vO2
A

C) reduced cardiac output

84
Q

What type of AV block is illustrated by ECG tracing ?

A

Second degree type 1

85
Q 
A patient with heart failure who complains of intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing? 
A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia 
B) sleep apnea 
C) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 
D) Orthopnea
A

C) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

86
Q 
Left heart failure will result in all of the following except 
A) pulmonary congestion
B) right heart failure 
C) reduced cardiac output
D) none of the above
A

D) none of the above

87
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide
A) stimulates the release of renin, adosterone and ADH
B) decreases the glomerular filtration rate
C) increases excretion of water and sodium by the kidney
D) is released from the the atria in response to decreased preload

A

C) increases excretion of water and sodium by the kidney

88
Q 
Risk factors for hypertension most often alter:
A) cardiac output 
B) potassium retention
C) pressure natriuresis relationship 
D) heart rate
A

C) pressure natriuresis relationship

89
Q 
Which of the following is not a possible embolism cause? 
A) amniotic fluid 
B) bacteria
C) air 
D) all of the above are possible causes
A

D) all of the above are possible causes

90
Q

Asthma is caused by airway inflammation
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

91
Q

The presence of a Ghon tubercle in a patients lung is indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

92
Q 
Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ from juxtaglomerular cells 
A)aldosterone 
B) norepinephrine 
C) angiotensinogen 
D) renin
A

D) renin

93
Q 
Risk factors for hypertension include 
A) male gender
B) smoking
C) obesity 
D) all of the above
A

D) all of the above

94
Q 
Which of the following is not a possible cause of hypovolemic shock? 
A) hemorrhage 
B) burns 
C) emesis
D) all of the above are possible causes
A

D) all of the above are possible causes

95
Q

Raynaud syndrome and raynaud phenomenon have the same symptoms, but different causes
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

96
Q 
Term for subjective sensation of uncomfortable breathing 
A) tachypena
B) dyspnea 
C) hemoptysis
D) cyanosis
A

B) dyspnea

97
Q

What problem characterized by lack of impulse initiation, is illustration in the ECG

A

Sinus arrest

98
Q

A lack of surfactant, as occurs with URDS causes airway collapse and hyperinflation of alveolit.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

99
Q 
A hypertensive patient is reluctant to adhere to the prescribed plan because he feels fine and doesn't like his diet. It can be explained to him that high blood pressure increases the risk of all of the following except 
A) renal disease 
B) stroke
C) ischemic heart disease
D) diabetes
A

D) diabetes

100
Q

A venous thromboembolus is most likely to form ____ and lodge in the _______ .
A) in the right ventricle, pulmonary circulation
B) in the legs, pulmonary circulation
C) in the right ventricle, carotid artery
D) in the legs carotid artery

A

B) in the legs, pulmonary circulation

101
Q 
Which of the following is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction? 
A) purpura 
B) pain
C) pallor
D) pulselessness
A

A) purpura

102
Q

Secondary chronic orthostatic hypotension can be caused by
A) aortic stenosis
B) endocrine disorders
C) GI disorders
D) secondary form has no known initial cause

A

B) endocrine disorders

103
Q

Tachycardia describes an abnormally slow heart rate
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

104
Q

All forms of shock are associated with inadequate tissue perfusion
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

105
Q 
Disorder characterized by hypersecretion of mucus and production cough that continues for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years 
A) emphysema 
B) asthma
C) chronic bronchitis 
D) acute bronchitis
A

C) chronic bronchitis

106
Q 
After sitting in a chair for an hour an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequences of
A) right sided heart failure 
B) isolated left sided heart failure 
C) arterial obstruction
D) peripheral vascular disease
A

A) right sided heart failure

107
Q

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by low cardiac output, low blood pressure , and low cardiac preload
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

108
Q

An elderly patient’s blood pressure is measured at 160/98. How would his left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?
A) high blood pressure will enhance left ventricular perfusion. During systole
B) high pressure work will lead to left ventricular atrophy
C) this is an expected blood pressure in the elderly and has little effect on left ventricular function.
D) left ventricular workload is increased with after load.

A

D) left ventricular workload is increased with after load.

109
Q

First degree heart block is characterized by

A) widened QRS complex
B) variable PR interval
C) prolonged PR interval
) absent p waves

A

C) prolonged PR interval

110
Q 
What is occurring in the ECG where episodes of tachycardia alternate with episodes of bradycardia? 
A) sick sinus syndrome 
B) sinus arrest 
C) sinus arrhythmia 
D) a systole
A

A) sick sinus syndrome

111
Q

Viral pneumonia is characterized by

A) productive cough
B) dry cough
C) exudative consolidation
D) significant ventilation perfusion. Imbalance

A

B) dry cough

112
Q 
All of the following changes occur during an acute asthma episode except 
A) hypersecretion of mucus 
B) bronchi constriction
C) alveolar collapse 
D) bronchial mucosal edema
A

C) alveolar collapse

113
Q

Second degree heart block type 1 (wenckenback) is characterized by
A) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes
B) variable PR interval and dropped QRS complexes
C) absent P wave
D) constant PR interval and dropped QRS intervals

A

B) variable PR interval and dropped QRS complexes

114
Q 
A patient presenting with fever hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock? 
A) cardiogenic 
B) septic
C) neurogenic 
D) anaphylactic
A

B) septic

115
Q 
Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation. And hypotension occurs with what type of shock. 
A) cardiogenic
B) anaphylactic
C) hypovolemic
D) septic
A

B) anaphylactic

116
Q 
All of the following are possible causes of ARDS except 
A) pneumonia
B) burns 
C) gas inhalation
D) all of the above possible causes
A

D) all of the above possible causes

117
Q

Right side heart failure usually is a consequence of
A) congenital anomalies
B) right ventricular infarction
C) elevated right ventricular after load
D) tricuspid valve defects

A

C) elevated right ventricular after load

118
Q 
High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases 
A) preload 
B) blood volume 
C) stroke volume 
D) after load
A

D) after load

119
Q

What type of AV block is illustrated in the ECG

A

Second degree type 2

120
Q 
Copious, foul smelling respiratory secretions are generally associated with. 
A) pneumoconiosis 
B) emphysema 
C) pulmonary edema
D) bronchiectasis
A

D) bronchiectasis

121
Q

Wilms tumor is renal cancer that primary affects children.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

122
Q 
The duct most commonly obstructed by gallstone ejection from the gallbladder is 
A) pancreatic duct 
B) hepatic duct 
C) common bike duct 
D) cystic duct
A

D) cystic duct

123
Q 
Polycystic kidney disease is 
A) genetically transmitted 
B) always rapidly fatal 
C) due to streptococcal infection. 
D) associated with supernumerary kidney
A

A) genetically transmitted

124
Q

Alcohol abuse is the primary risk factor for chronic pancreatitis
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

125
Q 
A complication of liver disease that is directly attributable to portal hypertension is? 
A) jaundice 
B) gonadal hypofunction 
C) encephalopathy 
D) esophageal varices
A

D) esophageal varices

126
Q

Crown disease and ulcerative colitis are two types of irritable bowel syndrome
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

127
Q

The fibrosis leading to cirrhosis following alcohol abuse is primarily due to damage to hepatocytes

A)true
B) false

A

A)true

128
Q 
Common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease include. 
A) hematemesis
B) diarrhea
C) frank blood in the stool 
D) burning epigastric pain
A

D) burning epigastric pain

129
Q 
Seven year old L.E has developed acute glomerulonephritis following a strep throat infection. Fortunately, he was a healthy boy before this, so his physician and family are optimistic that he will make a full recovery L.E begins to have significant proteinuria, and a 24 hour urine collection Contains 4.0 g of protein LE has progressed to 
A) renal failure 
B) needing dialysis
C) ATN 
D) nephrotic syndrome
A

D) nephrotic syndrome

130
Q

The reversible stage of alcoholic liver disease is
A) alcoholic cirrhosis
B) fatty infiltration of the liver
C) nodular regeneration of hepatocytes
D) fibrotic scarring due to hepatocyte damage

A

B) fatty infiltration of the liver

131
Q 
Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to
A) hepatitis vaccine 
B) blood or semen 
C) contaminated food 
D) feces
A

B) blood or semen

132
Q

The manifestation of bowel obstruction are primarily related to
A) edema impairing biliary secretion
B) accumulation of Fluid and gas proximal to the obstruction
C) death of intestinal bacteria
D) decrease absorption of nutrients

A

B) accumulation of Fluid and gas proximal to the obstruction

133
Q 
What is the cause of primary biliary cirrhosis 
A) autoimmune reactions 
B) biliary atresia 
C) glomerulonephritis 
D) cystic duct obstruction.
A

A) autoimmune reactions

134
Q 
A congenital disease of the colon in which there are sufficient autonomic ganglia in the bowel resulting I contraction, but inadequate relaxation to move the fecal mass forward efficiently is called ?
A) Celiac disease 
B) Hirschsprung disease 
C) short bowel syndrome 
D) irritable bowel syndrome
A

B) Hirschsprung disease

135
Q 
Which of the following forms of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually? 
A) HAV 
B) HBV
C) HEV
D) all of the above
A

B) HBV

136
Q 
The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called? 
A) nephralgia 
B) nephronitis 
C) nephritic 
D) nephrotic
A

A) nephralgia

137
Q

Cholelithiasis is present in most patients who have acute cholecystitis.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

138
Q

A deficiency of lipid digestion or absorption commonly results in

A) constipation
B) steatorrhea
C) hyperlipidemia
D) cholelithiasis

A

B) steatorrhea

139
Q 
Another name for jaundice is ? 
A) hemolysis
B) icterus
C) bilirubin
D) hypobilirubinemia
A

B) icterus

140
Q

The adult form of polycystic kidney disease is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder?
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

141
Q

Polycystic renal disease
A) is associated with impaired function of the gallbladder and pancreas in children
B) is seen as small, atrophied kidneys on sonogram
C) is very responsive to treatment and ultimately curable
D) manifests with decreasing renal function, hypertension and flank psi. In adults.

A

D) manifests with decreasing renal function, hypertension and flank psi. In adults.

142
Q

The compensatory mechanisms that are triggered following myocardial infarction.
A) protect the heart from further ischemia
B) result from parasympathetic activation
C) increase myocardial oxygen demands
D) reduced heart rate and blood pressure

A

C) increase myocardial oxygen demands

143
Q

Term for unique combination of hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetic children.?
A) diabetic ketoacidosis
B) dawn phenomenon
C) somogyi effect
D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non ketotic syndrome

A

C) somogyi effect

144
Q

Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?
A) no change in serum glucocorticoid level.
B) an increase in serum ACTH level
C) an increase in serum glucocorticoid level
D) a decreased in serum glucose level.

A

A) no change in serum glucocorticoid level.

145
Q

The underlying pathogenic mechanism for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes is ?
A) lack of insulin receptors
B) impaired glucose transport into cells
C) pancreatic beta cell destruction
D) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.

A

B) impaired glucose transport into cells

146
Q

Prerenal acute renal failure occurs when kidney perfusion is impaired

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

147
Q

Infectious cystitis is usually a consequence of bacterial invasion from the uretha.
A) true
B) False

A

A) true

148
Q

Neurons do not require insulin for glucose entry into their cytoplasm

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

149
Q 
An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to 
A) hyponatremia
B) a decrease I. Serum osmolarity 
C) hypervolemia
D) dehydration
A

D) dehydration

150
Q

What problems is a patient likely to experience during the end stage of renal failure

A) proteinuria
B) uremia
C) polyuria and nocturia
D) hematuria

A

B) uremia

151
Q

The presence of a goon tubercle in a patients lung is indicative of scut respiratory distress syndrome
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

Patho 2 (4 decks)

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