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MIP 342 > Final (Exam 3) > Flashcards

Final (Exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

What type of tissue includes the GI tract, salivary glands, lacrimal glands (tear ducts), mammary glands, and the genito-urinary tract?

A

mucosal tissues

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2
Q

What lines the mucosa throughout the body?

A

lymphatic tissue and epithelial tissue

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3
Q

What is the largest immunological organ in the body?

A

The intestine

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4
Q

What percentage of all lymphocytes are located at mucosal sites?

A

70-80 (75)

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5
Q

What are the two important sites within the mucosal immune system?

A

inductive and effector sites

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6
Q

Which of the two mucosal immune sites is more organized?

A

the inductive sites

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7
Q

What type of mucosal site is associated with the lamina propria, various mucosae, stroma of exocrine glands, and surface epithelia

A

effector site

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8
Q

What is the highly vascular layer of connective tissue under the base layer epithelium known as

A

Lamina propria

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9
Q

What connects effector sites to inductive sites?

A

mesenteric lymph nodes

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10
Q

Which tissue are Peyer’s patches, the appendix, and isolated lymphoid follicles associated with

A

GALT (Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

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11
Q

What tissue is not regularly found in non-immunocompromised adults and usually requires induction by exogenous stimuli

A

BALT (Bronchus-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

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12
Q

What is Waldeyer’s Pharyngeal Ring associated with?

A

NALT (Nasopharynx-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

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13
Q

How are pathogens entering the body if NALT is responding?

A

Ingesting or inhaling

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14
Q

What four tonsillar structures make up the pharynx

A

Adenoids, lingual and palatine tonsils, and adjacent submucosal lymphatics (pharynx)

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15
Q

What is
1. a key site for tolerance induction to food proteins
2. a firewall to prevent live commensal intestinal bacteria from penetrating systemic immune system
3. provides source of memory B & T Cells
4. has precursor sources for intestinal IgA-producing plasma cells

A

mesenteric lymph nodes

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16
Q

What is the constitutive mucosal tissue adjacent to major airways and is it normally found in humans?

A

BALT, no

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17
Q

What are small clusters of lymphoid cells located at the bottom of intestinal crypts, which develop into ILF by recruiting B cells

A

Cryptopatches

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18
Q

what are inductive sites for mucosal b and t cells in GALT

A

isolated lymphoid follicles

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19
Q

What are lymphatic tissues throughout the ileum region of the small intestine known as
1. between GALT and luminal microenvironment
2. home to many B cells with germinal centers

A

Peyer’s patches

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20
Q

Most gene defects for primary immunodeficiencies are caused by mutations in genes on what chromosome? who is affected more?

A

X chromosome; men

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21
Q

What are HIV, cancer, steroids, and malnutrition responsible for causing?

A

secondary immunodeficiencies

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22
Q
  • Bruton’s gammaglobulinemia (XLA – X-linked agammaglobulinemia)
  • common variable immunodeficiency (CVID – hypogammaglobulinemia)
  • X-linked hyper IgM syndrome
  • IgA deficiency

These are all what type of deficiency?

A

B cell deficiencies

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23
Q
  • A child is healthy for the first 1-6 months of life
  • Frequent strep and enterovirus infections
  • Require stem cell transplantation or IV Ig therapy for their severe antibody deficiency
  • B cell arrested in the pre-B cell stage
A

XLA

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24
Q
  • decreased IgG, IgM, and IgA
  • diagnosed 10-20 yrs
  • Iv IG replacement therapy treatment
  • autosomal recessive pattern
  • involved in survival and maturation of B cells
A

CVID

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25
Q
  • high levels of IgM
  • problem with isotype switching/plasma cell development
  • noticeable after baby is 6 months to 1 yr
  • frequent pneumonia, sinus infections, and ear infections
A

X-linked hyper IgM syndrome

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26
Q
  • low or no levels of IgA
  • most common primary immunodeficiency
  • most often asymptomatic but susceptible if there is also an IgG2 deficiency
  • increased incidence of allergy and autoimmune diseases
A

IgA deficiency

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27
Q

DiGeorge syndrome, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, and BLS are what type of immunodeficiencies

A

T Cell Deficiencies (SCID)

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28
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • defect in chromosome 22 (CATCH 22)
  • cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic abnormalities, cleft palate, blue fingers
  • cognitive impairments
  • profound T cell deficiencies
A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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29
Q
  • reduced T cell numbers
  • defective NK cell cytotoxicity
  • failure of antibody responses
  • reduced ability to form blood clots
  • mutations in was gene (WASP protein) involved in actin rearrangement
  • only IgM antibodies produced
  • rash on face
A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

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30
Q
  • Failure to express MHC class
  • type I if MHC class I or type 2 if MHC class II
  • type one involved with open ulcers on skin, face, arms, and legs
  • defection in maturation in thymus, poor activation in periphery
A

BLS

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31
Q
  • x linked recessive
  • mutations in IL2RG gene (for normal immune system function)
  • lack immune cells, recurrent and persistent infections
  • common decrease in recruitment/cytokine release
A

X-linked SCID

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32
Q
  • accumulation of toxic purine metabolites in cell synthesizing DNA
  • block in T cell maturation
  • either gene replacement therapy or stem cell transplant
A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) purine nucleotide phosphorylase (PNP) deficiencies

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33
Q
  • mutation in gene responsible for skin, hair, nails, and immune system
  • problem with formation of thymus
  • causes T cell immunodeficiency
  • congenital alopecia
A

Nude (FOXN1 gene mutation)

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34
Q
  • virtually no immune system
  • impaired AIRE
  • problems activating RAG genes
A

Omenn’s syndrome

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35
Q

What form of protection do live attenuated or killed bacteria vaccines provide

A
  • Antibody response
  • Cell-mediated immune response
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36
Q

What form of protection do live attenuated viruses provide?

A
  • Antibody response
  • Cell-mediated immune response
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37
Q

What form of protection do subunit (protein) vaccines provide?

A
  • Antibody response
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38
Q

What form of protection do conjugate vaccines provide?

A
  • T helper cell dependent response
  • Antibody response to polysaccharide
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39
Q

What form of protection do synthetic vaccines provide?

A
  • Antibody response
  • Cytotoxic killer T
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40
Q

What form of protection do viral vectored vaccines provide?

A
  • Antibody response
  • CTL
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41
Q

What form of protection do DNA vaccines provide?

A
  • Humoral response
  • Cell-mediated response
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42
Q

What phase involves testing in small groups of people (20-80) for the first time and can take months

A

Phase 1

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43
Q

What phase involves larger groups (100-300) that studies effectiveness as well as safety and can take months to years

A

Phase 2

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44
Q

What phase involves larger groups (1000-3000) that confirms effectiveness, monitors side effects, compares to standard treatments, and can take years to decades

A

Phase 3

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45
Q

What phase involves making a vaccine available to the public, involves tracking safety, and is ongoing

A

Phase 4

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46
Q

What phase occurs during a primary immune response where effector cells decline after first exposure and there is an appearance of memory cells

A

contraction phase

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47
Q

What types of vaccines induce strong antibody responses

A

conjugate vaccines

48
Q

What type of cells provide B cell help through CD40L, IL10, and IL21

A

Th follicular cells

49
Q

What reaches the marginal zone of the spleen/nodes and binds to B cells without T cell help

A

polysaccharide antigens

50
Q

Alum (aluminum hydroxide) is effective against what type of response?

A

Th2, ineffective for Th1 cell mediated immunity

51
Q

What is a liposome based adjuvant that works off of Lipid A, causing increased activation of APGS

A

AS01

52
Q

What type of cells are targeted by the MF59 adjuvant, inducing Th1 and Th2 immune response

A

Monocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes

53
Q

What do nanoparticle delivery systems specifically elicit

A

Th1 immune response

54
Q

What cytokine is associated with viruses

A

IFN

55
Q

What receptor do mRNA vaccines trigger, what cells to they have a high capacity to elicit a response from, and what cytokines are released

A

TLR7
Cytolytic CD8+ T Cells
IFN, pro-inflammatory cytokines

56
Q

What is the stringent double barrier making up the blood brain barrier known as

A

the neurovascular unit

57
Q

LPS and IFNgamma will trigger microglia to differentiate into what and release what

A

M1 microglia; IFN and TNFalpha (pro-inflammatory)

58
Q

IL-4 and IL-13 will trigger microglia to differentiate into what and release what

A

M2 microglia; IL-10 (anti-inflammatory)

59
Q

The perivascular space of parenchymal post-capillary vessels, meninges, and choroid plexus are all what

A

compartments where antigen-experienced T cells in CNS are reactivated

60
Q

After viral infection in CNS, what self-renewing populations are generated

A

tissue-resident memory CD8+ T cells

61
Q

How are DC-like cells recruited to the CNS under inflammatory conditions

A

CCR2-debendent manner (by CCL2 expressed by microglia and astrocytes)

62
Q

What cells make up the majority of MHC class II cells in CNS that favors Th1 response of Th17

A

B cells

63
Q

Where do meningal developing B cells come from

A

Stem cells in brain

64
Q

Which cells in the CNS are attacked by cytotoxic CD8+ lymphocytes in a classic manner

A

parenchymal cells

65
Q

In CNS linings, how are virus-infected cells eliminated

A

Independently of MHC class I expression

66
Q

What is neuroinflammation caused by

A

reactive astrocytes (through NFFbeta)

67
Q

What is the development of a new blood supply to cancerous cells

A

angiogenesis

68
Q

when cancer spreads to other parts of the body what is it known as

A

metastasis

69
Q

what develops from mutations during the oncogenic process that lead to the generation of new protein or peptide sequences

A

neoantigens

70
Q

Presentation, bound to MHC class I, and projection toward the TCR results in what

A

T cell recognition of neoantigens

71
Q

What tumor phase occurs when the immune system recognizes and destroys potential tumor cells

A

Elimination phase

72
Q

What tumor phase occurs when the cells undergo mutations that aid in their survival due to selection pressure imposed by the immune system (the rate of eliminated cells is equal to the number of escaping cells)

A

equilibrium phase

73
Q

what tumor phase occurs when the tumor cells elude the immune system and grow to become clinically detectable

A

escape phase

74
Q

What are three immune escape mechanisms in cancer

A
  • loss of antigenicity
  • loss of immunogenicity
  • creating an immunosuppressive microenvironment (Treg)
75
Q

What type of tumor therapy takes T cells from the tumor, expands them in vitro using IL-2, and activates CD8+ T cells in pro-inflammatory microenvironment

A

Tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL) therapy

76
Q

What type of tumor therapy involves modification of a patient’s own T cells to express CAR specific for tumor antigen –> re-infusion

  • not great for solid tumors bc of surface area
A

Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cell therapy

77
Q

Blocking which what receptors and ligands helps CD8+ T cells respond appropriately to tumors

A

PD1 and PDL1

78
Q

Other than PD1 and PDL1 what do other monoclonal antibodies bind to?

A

CTLA4 B7

79
Q

What type of tolerance occurs in the thymus and bone marrow

A

central

80
Q

When antigen-specific lymphocytes do not react, ignoring the presence of antigen

A

Immunological ignorance (clonal ignorance)

81
Q

Which cells can regulate intrinsic and extrinsic immune responses, limiting the size and duration of responses along with activated T cells and antigen presenting cells

A

Regulatory T Cells

82
Q

What cells are programmed in the thymus to express the transcription factor FoxP3 in response to self antigens

A

Natural Treg cells

83
Q

Which cells act on self-reactive cells to prevent their function or differentiation into effector cells

A

Natural Treg Cells

84
Q

In response to antigens recognized in the presence of TGFbeta and absence of pro-inflammatory cytokines, express FoxP3 and develop in the peripheral immune tissue

A

Induced Treg Cells

85
Q

What type of signal results from recognition of self-antigen in central tolerance

A

negative signal cascade

86
Q

What transcription factor turns on tissue restricted antigens in the thymus

A

AIRE

87
Q

where does the main process by which T lymphocytes acquire the ability to distinguish between self from non self occur

A

fetal thymus

88
Q

TGFbeta and IL10 allow self reactive cells to be suppressed in the periphery by what type of cells

A

Treg

89
Q

How can B cells bearing antigen receptor for self protein escape clonal deletion

A

receptor editing

90
Q

Central tolerance eliminates how many self-reactive b cells (percentage)

A

90%

91
Q

What is the first B cell tolerance checkpoint in the periphery and how many of the remaining B cells does it eliminate

A

Transitional B Cell tolerance; 2/3

92
Q

What is the interplay between BCR-mediated signals and B cell survival factor

A

B cell activating factor (BAFF) signal

93
Q

What type of autoimmune diseases are AHA, Grave’s Disease, and Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Antibody-mediated

94
Q

When antibodies react with self RBCs, which activated the complement cascade, opsonizes the RBCs via antibody and C3b, and results in severe anemia

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AHA)

95
Q

When thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors and they grow, causing an overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism)

A

Grave’s Disease

96
Q

When the acetocholine or neuromuscular junctions are blocked by antibody, so nerve impulses are not received (reduced muscle impulses/movement issues/muscle weakness)

A

Myasthenia Gravis

97
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is what type of immunodeficiency

A

Immune Complex-Mediated

98
Q

When autoantibodies are formed against DNA, histones, nucleolar proteins, and other components of the cell nucleus (antibodies against double-stranded DNA)
- primarily women
- HLA DR2/3 genes predisposed

A

Lupus (SLE)

99
Q

What type of immunodeficiencies are Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis, Multiple Sclerosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Type 1 Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)

A

T-Cell Mediated

100
Q
  • Most common cause of hypothyroidism
  • organ specific
  • targets hormone produced by the thyroid
A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

101
Q
  • Destructive immune response on CNS myelin antigens, MBP, PLP, and MOG
  • alpha4beta1 integrin binds to VCAM on activated endothelium
  • inflammation causes vascular permeability and infiltrated with Th17/Th1 cells
A

Multiple sclerosis

102
Q
  • chronically inflamed synovium is densely crowded with lymphocytes
  • results in the destruction of cartilage and bone
  • B cells producing anti-IgG antibodies are called rheumatoid factor (RF)
  • Auto-reactive Th17 cells are activated during early phase of the disease
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

103
Q
  • Insulin-producing B cells are selectively destroyed by cytotoxic T cells
  • Abnormally high blood sugar levels
  • Very little or no insulin produced
A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)

104
Q

What are microfold cells directly exposed to microorganisms and particles in the gut lumen
- lack glycocalyx
- transport antigen to peyers patches
- associated with intestinal GALT, airway BALT, and upper airway NALT
- NOT antigen presenting cells

A

M cells

105
Q

Which cells provide host defense against microbes in small intestine, functioning like neutrophils to secrete alpha defensins, lysozyme, and PLA2
- located next to stem cells and may play a role in epithelial cell renewal

A

Paneth cells

106
Q

Which cells are in the respiratory and intestinal tracts, secrete mucins to create a barrier of mucus using
- low expression at basal levels
- stimulated secretion in response to external stimuli

A

goblet cells

107
Q

What are CCR7, CCL21, and CCL19 involved in

A

homing of T cell subpopulations and APC DC to lymph node

108
Q

Do activated or inactivated lymphocytes lose CCR7 and CD62L

A

activated

109
Q

CR9+ T cells are associated with what

A

inflammatory bowel disease lesions

110
Q

CD11b+ DCs are protective in what kind of infections and produce what cytokine in peyers patches to timulate protective effector T cells

A

effector DC; intestinal; IL-23

111
Q

CD103+ DCs stimulate what, induces what, and amplifies development of what

A

Treg and RA; expression of gut-homing receptors (alpha4beta7 and CCR9); TGFB mediated Foxp3+ Treg cells

112
Q

What type of receptor recognizes flagellin, leading to increased antiapoptotic genes

A

TLR5

113
Q

What receptor maintains the integrity of the intestinal epithelial barrier

A

TLR2

114
Q

Non-like receptors lead to the expression of what kind of factors

A

pro-inflammatory

115
Q

what type of macrophages are found in the gut, mature in the lamina propria, and are constantly replenished

A

resident

116
Q

what macrophages follow epithelial damage or invasion

A

inflammatory

117
Q

Where are natural killer cells mainly found in and what do they express that is concentrated in cryptopatches and ILFs

A

lamina propria; retinoic acid orphan receptor

MIP 342 (3 decks)

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