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MIP 342 > Chapter 8 > Flashcards

Chapter 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Where do B cells develop (two answers)

A

Bone marrow, bursa of fabricus

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2
Q

What stem cell do both B and T come from and what are the most recent stem cell names

A

Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC); B cells CLP (common lymphocyte progenitor); T cells ETP (early T-lineage precurspr)

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3
Q

What rearrangement occurs to be considered Pro-B

A

DJ heavy

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4
Q

What rearrangement occurs to be considered Pre-B

A

VDJ heavy

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5
Q

What rearrangement occurs to be considered immature B

A

VJ light chains

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6
Q

What is needed to be considered mature B

A
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7
Q

What are the two roles of stromal cells in B cell development

A

Keep progenitor cells in bone marrow and help them differentiate

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8
Q

List the steps for CLP to Pre-B Cell

A

1) CXCL12 from bone marrow, CXCR4 on CLP
2) VCAM-1 bone marrow, VLA-4 CLP
3) Stem Cell Factor (SCF) on bone marrow, C-kit in cell –> upregulates IL-7R receptors
4) IL7R bind to IL-7 (always being made by bone marrow)
5) Upregulates Igalpha and beta, RAG1+2 genes (responsible for VDJ gene rearrangement)

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9
Q

What three events does the Pre-B cell receptor signal –> binding unknown ligand

A

1) Stop heavy chain rearrangement
2) Start proliferation
3) Light chain VDJ rearrangement

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10
Q

What are the four fates of Immature B Cells

A

1) Clonal deletion = strong response to self –> apoptosis
2) Anergy (weak response) –> changed
3) Ignorance (tiny antigen activates)
4) Maturation

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11
Q

Where does positive selection occur for T cells

A

In the cortex

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12
Q

Where does negative selection occur for T cells

A

In the medulla

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13
Q

List the steps of T Cell development

A

1) Notch-1 cytokine from epithelial cells, Notch1R on ETP
2) Upregulates expression of CD3, which triggers beta chain gene rearrangement
3) Pre-TCR has surrogate alpha chain and beta chain

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14
Q

What does the Pre TCR signal?

A
  • Stop beta chain gene rearrangement at other allele
  • Proliferation
  • Start alpha chain gene rearrangement
  • All progeny are double positive
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15
Q

What selection changes T cells from double positive to single positive

A

Positive selection

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16
Q

What gene controls the expression of peripheral proteins not normally found in the thymus

A

AIRE

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17
Q

What are the three major peripheral lymphoid tissues

A

1) Spleen
2) Lymph Nodes
3) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

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18
Q

What collects antigen from the blood and is involved in protection against blood-borne pathogens

A

SPleen

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19
Q

What is in the white pulp of spleen and what is in the red pulp

A

White pulp = lymphocytes; red pulp = destruction of red blood cells

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20
Q

In what region is the high endothelial venule located in the lymph nodes

A

Paracortex

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21
Q

What is located in the cortex of the lymph nodes

A
  • B cells
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22
Q

What is located in the medulla of the lymph nodes

A

Plasma cells

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23
Q

What is located in the paracortex of the lymph nodes

A

T cells and antigen presenting cells

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24
Q

What tissue collects antigen from mucosa

A

MALT

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25
Q

How do lymphocytes enter MALT

A

HEV

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26
Q

What characteristic do M cells have

A

microfolds, lots of surface area

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27
Q

Elimination of autoreactive T and B cells in the central lymphoid tissues

A

Central tolerance

28
Q

Elimination of autoreactive T and B cells in the periphery

A

Peripheral tolerance

29
Q

What happens to a multivalent self antigen reactive lymphocyte in the periphery

A

deletion

30
Q

What happens to a small soluble weak self antigen reactive lymphocyte in the periphery

A

anergy

31
Q

What additional fates can T cells have in the periphery

A
  • receive the death signal by FasL (example: eye) to kill rogue T cells that enter this site
  • controlled by T regulatory cells
32
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is considering which type of lymphocytes

A

T cells

33
Q

What are the four main functions of effector T cells

A

1) directly kill infected cells (CTLs)
2) Hyperactivate macrophages
3) Help B and CD8 T cells get activated
4) Help cells that degranulate (mast cells, eosinophils, and neutrophils)

34
Q

List the route of T cells finding their antigen

A

heart –> spleen –> lymph nodes –> thoracic duct –> right/left subclavian veins

35
Q

How to T cells not activated by antigen exit the lymph node

A

Cortical sinuses

36
Q

List the four stages of entry into the lymph node

A

1) rolling
2) integrin activation
3) adhesion
4) diapedesis

37
Q

List the steps of keeping the T cell in the lymph node

A

1) L-selectin (CD62L) binds to GlyCam1 on HEV
2) CCR7 bind CCL21 –> causes confirmational change of LFA-1 to high affinity
3) LFA-1 binds ICAM1

38
Q

Name the molecule that helps T cells exit a lymph node

A

S1P

39
Q

Conventional (phagocytoses) and plasmacytoid (makes copious amounts of IFN1) are two types of what cell

A

dendritic

40
Q

Where are dendritic cells found

A

underneath epithelium of mucosa and skin

41
Q

Do immature dendritic cells express high or low levels of MHC and co-stimulatory molecules

A

low

42
Q

Do immature dendritic cells express high or low levels of PRR/phagocytic receptors

A

high

43
Q

What are the three molecules packaged within cytotoxic granules

A

perforin (forms pore), granzyme (apoptosis), granulysin (disrupts membranes)

44
Q
  • Better lysosome fusion with phagosomes
  • Better antigen presentation
  • CD40 expression
  • Secretes IL-12
  • Make TNF-alpha (inflammation)
A

Macrophages activated by Th1

45
Q

Which cell will stain positive for CD19 PE

A

B Cells

46
Q

Which cell will stain positive for CD3 FITC

A

T Cells

47
Q

How do isotypes work flow cytometry

A

Antibodies labeled with same markers that do not recognize anything set the lines for the readings

48
Q

What is a thymus-dependent antigen

A

requires T cell help to activate (mainly)

49
Q

What is a thymus-independent antigen

A

does not need T cell help to activate B cell –> usually no isotype switch, large

50
Q

What is linked recognition

A

B cells and T cells do not have to recognize same antigen, can activate each other and target same virus/bacteria

51
Q

Where do B cells go after being activated in the lymph node

A

1) Medulla –> make early IgM
2) Primary follicles which become secondary follicles with germinal centers in the cortex

52
Q

What two things happen to B cells in the germinal centers

A

1) somatic hypermutations (point)
2) isotype switching/class switching

53
Q

What is IgM best at

A
  • complement activation (pentamer/complement cascade)
54
Q

Where is IgG found/what is it best at?

A

Main Ab in blood over time
- jack of all trades
- opsonization, complement activation, neutralization

55
Q

What is IgE commonly bound to and what is it good at

A

Mast cells and exocytosis

56
Q

What is IgA best at?

A

Neutralization (coats to prevent bad things from binding to you)

57
Q

What binds two IgA together and what becomes the secretory component

A

J chain, the poly-Ig receptor

58
Q

What are the two main roles of the secretory component

A
  • protects the unborn (IgG across the placenta using Fc portion attaches to transport protein)
  • protection of newborn by passing IgA through breastmilk (colostrum)
59
Q

Why is IgG everywhere

A

Carried by mast cells which are found underneath the skin and vasculature

60
Q

What two conditions does C1q have to meet to be activated

A

Must bind Fc portions of at least two antibodies

61
Q

What types of cells have Fc recepors

A

Innate phagocytic and non-phagocytic cells

62
Q

The Fc receptors and antibodies bound to antigen must be ____ to be destroyed

A

aggregated

63
Q

Fc specificity where free antibody alone will not activate something is

A

high avidity

64
Q

opsonization is

A

coating with complement (C3b) along with Fc activation –> degredation by phagocytosis and lysosomes

65
Q

ADCC

A

The Fc portions of antibodies are recognized by NK, triggers apoptosis in same way CTLs work

66
Q

Degranulation

A

Fc portion causes exocytosis, release enzymes through lysosomes

MIP 342 (3 decks)

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