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MIP 342 > Chapter 1 > Flashcards

Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which cell stains pink, has two round lumps (bilobed), and is looks as if it is full of granules

A

Eosinophil; Antiparasite (Eosin is the pink stain and it makes up 1-3% white blood cells)

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2
Q

Which cell has background that stains colorless with long chain of lobes in center

A

Neutrophil; Antibacterial/Fungal (spray peroxide, explode themselves, make up 50-70% of wbcs)

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3
Q

Large cells with one long purple nucleus; divides into dendritic cells or macrophages

A

Monocytes

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4
Q

Blue or purple cytoplasm (bilobed); parasite killer

A

Basophil; less than 1%

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5
Q

Very little cytoplasm, not metabolically active, round with mostly pink in center (round nucleus)

A

Lymphocyte (20-40% wbcs)

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6
Q

Where do monocytes originate from and what stem cell do all leukocytes originate from?

A

Blood; Hematopoietic Stem Cell

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7
Q

Where do B lymphocytes originate in birds?

A

Bursa of Fabricius

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8
Q

Clusters of several clones from monoclonal antibodies that recognize individual proteins on the surface of white blood cells

A

Cluster of differentiation (CD molecules)

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9
Q

What protein is used to present lipids to NK T cells

A

CD1

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10
Q

What protein is found on all helper T Cells

A

CD4

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11
Q

What protein is found on all killer T cells

A

CD8

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12
Q

List the colors of the fluorescent antibody proteins for flow cytometry

A

green - CD4
red - CD8
no color - other cells

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13
Q

What cells are unstained in flow cytometry

A

B cells and CD8- CD4- cells

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14
Q

Which type of cells are NK, Innate Lymphoid Cells (ILCs), CD4 TCR, CD8 TCR, NK T, and gamma-delta T cells

A

Lymphocytes

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15
Q

Which lymphocytes are part of the innate system

A

NK and ILCs, B1 cells (IgM only)

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16
Q

Which lymphocytes are part of the adaptive immune system

A

B2 Cells (Class Switch), and T Cells – classic

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17
Q

Which lymphocytes are in between innate and adaptive

A

NK T and gamma-delta T

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18
Q

Where are T cells “educated” to not recognize self

A

Thymus

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19
Q

Where are B cells educated in humans and birds

A

Bone marrow; bursa of fabricus

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20
Q

What are the following considered: lymph nodes, spleen, GALT, MALT, SALT

A

Peripheral lymphoid organs

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21
Q

Starting from the thoracic duct, list how travels to heart

A

thoracic duct –> left subclavian vein –> heart

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22
Q

Starting from right lymphatic vessel, list how travels to heart

A

right lymphatic vessel –> right subclavian vein –> heart

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23
Q

Where does the afferent lymphatic vessel drain

A

lymph node

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24
Q

Where does the lymph node drain

A

efferent lymphatic vessel

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25
Q

In the spleen what type of cells are found in the primary follicle

A

B cells

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26
Q

In the spleen, what type of cells are found in the marginal zone and what do they secrete

A

B cells; IgM

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27
Q

In the spleen, the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) has what type of cells

A

T cells

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28
Q

What three structures make up the white pulp in the spleen

A

Primary follicle, PALS, and marginal zone

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29
Q

What do M cells do in the gut

A

Sample bacteria in lumen of gut

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30
Q

What is the rule for where most activated cells act

A

If activated in skin, return to skin, etc.

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31
Q

Which cells are considered granulocytes

A

Eosinophils, Basophils, and Neutrophils

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32
Q

Where are mast cells only found

A

tissue only/embryo

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33
Q

What are natural killer T cells good at attacking

A

High lipid content things (mycobacteria)

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34
Q

What does a macrophage secrete

A

Chemokines and cytokines

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35
Q

What two cells are the first to respond to macrophages

A

Neutrophils and monocytes

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36
Q

What do cytokines cause

A

Blood vessels to open

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37
Q

What do chemokines cause

A

monocytes and neutrophils to “follow the smell”

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38
Q

Where do the efferent lymphatic vessels eventually drain

A

subclavian vein

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39
Q

Where do subclavian veins drain

A

heart

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40
Q

Which cells recognize MHC Ib

A

gamma-delta T, NK and NKT

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41
Q

What are major histocompatibility complexes called in humans (for tissue typing)

A

HLA (human leukocyte antigens)

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42
Q

What kind of surface are goblet cells and cilia found on

A

Mucosal

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43
Q

Which enzyme chews through the outer layers of bacteria

A

lysozyme

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44
Q

Which sugar is found on the surface of terminal residues in yeasts

A

mannose

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45
Q

Why is attacking membrane of mycobacteria so difficult?

A

They have waxy outer layer – like crayons

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46
Q

how are zymogens (alpha-defensins, beta-defensins, cathelicidins, and lectidins) activated

A

proteases cut them

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47
Q

Which type of leukocytes mainly release defensins

A

neutrophils

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48
Q

When defensins are cut, what is released

A

An amphipathic antimicrobial peptide

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49
Q

What two things bring the defensin into the lipid bilayer

A

electrostatic attraction and transmembrane electric field (stick together when enough build up and form a pore)

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50
Q

Where are defensins kept before released

A

granules

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51
Q

Which complement pathway is described? Sugars on pathogen surface, MAPSs (proteases) and MBL/ficolins bind, C4 and C2 are cut

A

Lectin Pathway

52
Q

Which complement pathway is described? C1q/C1r/C1s interacts with pathogen surface/antibodies bound to surface, C4 and C2 are cut

A

Classical pathway

53
Q

Which complement pathway is described? C3 undergoes spontaneous hydrolysis; factor D, B

A

Alternative pathway

54
Q

What step do all complement pathways have in common

A

C3 –> C3a + C3b

55
Q

What in the complement cascade acts as chemokines to promote chemotaxis

A

C3a and C5a

56
Q

What do phagocytes bind to in the complement cascade

A

C3b receptors bind to C3b

57
Q

What do C5b,C6,C7,C8,and C9 form in the complement cascade

A

The membrane attack complex

58
Q

What does ILC1 target

A

viruses (along with NKs)

59
Q

What does ILC2 target

A

anti-bacteria/antiparasite

60
Q

What does ILC3 target

A

anti-bacteria/parasite

61
Q

Which two receptors must be found in appropriate amounts to avoid being killed by NK

A

MHC I and MicA/MicB (MHC1b)

62
Q

A lytic virus is within an endothelial cell, what happens

A

pieces are presented on MHC 1, killed by both cytotoxic and NK because there is more MicA/MicB than MHC 1

63
Q

The herpes virus pulls down its MHC 1 presenters, what happens

A

Killed by NK because MicA/MicB are more

64
Q

A metabolically active precancerous cell is stressed out

A

Killed by NK

65
Q

Which cells are considered farmers of the epithelium

A

Gamma delta T cells (they recognize self and pathogen lipids, kill infected or cancerous cells

66
Q

Which regions determine where a gamma-delta T cell will end up

A

The variable region

67
Q

What recognizes pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

A

Toll-like receptors (look like hooks)

68
Q

What is the process of recognizing PAMPs

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bind RNA, kinase signal to produce IRF and NFkB, turn on interferon genes/antiviral protein genes

69
Q

STING, RIG-1, and TLRs can recognize what

A

viral RNA

70
Q

What are interferons

A

proinflammatory cytokines

71
Q

What are interleukin (IL), tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IFN

A

interferons

72
Q

What is a type 1 response considered

A

antiviral/targets intracellular bacteria

73
Q

What cytokines are produced in a type 1 response

A

IL-12 and IFNs (activates NK, CD4 cell differentiation)

74
Q

What makes up the proinflammatory triad

A

IL-1B (opens blood vessels, activates lymphocytes, local tissue destruction), TNF, IL-6 –> all lead to fever

75
Q

What is CXCL8

A

chemokine –> used for chemotaxis to recruit neutrophils, basophils, and T cells to site of infection

76
Q

What type of interferons are only made by immune cells

A

Type 2

77
Q

What is a type III response

A

anti-bacterial/anti-yeast/parasite

78
Q

What does IL-17 cause

A

activates endothelial cells, increased CXCL8

79
Q

Describe how rolling Leukocyte L-Selectin works

A
  1. Leukocyte sugar binds to selectin on endothelial cell
  2. Receptor for CXC binds to CXCL8
  3. Integrin on leukocyte binds to ICAM1
  4. Crawls/squeezes through junction (PECAM)
80
Q

What are the three major kinds of cell adhesion molecules

A

selectins, integrins, and CAMs

81
Q

What do selectins bind

A

sugars (initiate the interaction between leukocytes and endothelium)

82
Q

What do integrins bind

A

CAMs

83
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. binding of the pathogen through phagocytic receptors
  2. Engulfment
  3. Digestion
  4. Activation of PAMP receptors/Presentation of antigens on MHC II, degraulation, cytokine/chemokine production
84
Q

Which of the following is the most destructive? Neutrophils, macrophages, or dendritic cells

A

Neutrophils (DCs are the weakest, less acidic, and have chunks of particles)

85
Q

Where do monoclonal antibodies come from?

A

A single B cell clone; mouse cells fuse to immortal cells to form hybridoma

86
Q

What types of bonds hold immunoglobulin domains together

A

disulfide bridges (between cysteine molecules)

87
Q

Which two antibodies have multiple forms and what are they

A

IgM – pentameric
IgA – dimeric

88
Q

How many transmembrane portions do MHC I and MHC II have

A

1;2

89
Q

Provide the structure of a TCR

A

One alpha chain, one beta chain, each has a variable and constant region (both are attached to the membrane)

90
Q

What are the exceptions to cells that have MHC II

A

interstitial macrophages/microglia

91
Q

Do red blood cells have MHC I or MHC II

A

Neither

92
Q

Describe the structure of MHC I

A

Three alpha, one beta2 microglobulin (only one transmembrane region)

93
Q

Describe the structure of MHC II

A

Two alpha, two beta, two transmembrane regions

94
Q

How many anchor residue regions are found in MHC I

A

2; usually hydrophobic

95
Q

How many anchor residue regions are found in MHC II

A

4; usually hydrophobic

96
Q

How many domains does CD4 have and what does it dock onto

A

4; MHC II

97
Q

What is CD8 and what does it dock onto

A

an alpha and a beta subunit; MHC I

98
Q

What type of cell does class switching, somatic hypermutation, and RNA splicing

A

B cells

99
Q

What is the leader sequence usually in VDJ arrangement

A

hydrophobic

100
Q

In B cell light chain, what regions are present

A

L (leader), V (variable), J (joining), C (constant)

101
Q

In B cell heavy chain, what regions are present

A

L (Leader), V (variable), D (diversity), J (joining), and C (consant)

102
Q

Are the constant regions longer in heavy chains or light chains

A

heavy chains

103
Q

Which are the two options for the light chain locus (greek) B cells

A

lamda or kappa

104
Q

Which antibody heavy chains have four constant regions

A

IgM and IgE (rest have three constant chain domains)

105
Q

Which region has the most options for light chain and heavy chain gene segments

A

Variable

106
Q

What does TdT do

A

randomly adds nucleotides in after the DNA is cut (wants mutation)

107
Q

What is an RSS and how many base pair spacers are there

A

Recombination signal sequence (23 base pair spacer has adjacent 12 base pair spacer)

108
Q

RSS bind Rag-1 Domains and generates what

A

DNA hairpin at coding ends, helping join the V, D, and J regions of the antibody

109
Q

Which nucleotides are added by TdT

A

n-nucleotides

110
Q

If there are variable regions _____ and there is a mistake, there can be potential recombination

A

upstream

111
Q

Which option for light chain locus and heavy chain locus T cells (greek)

A

alpha, beta

112
Q

Which cells have limited diversity for recombination

A

gamma delta T cells

113
Q

What do gamma delta TCR control

A

location of thymocytes (why there is limited diversity)

114
Q

TdT must add a what # bp

A

total of 3 (or multiples of 3 so reading frame does not shift)

115
Q

When a b cell undergoes random single point mutations in the variable regions

A

somatic hypermutation

116
Q

when large chunks of genes are mutated in variable regions of b cells

A

gene conversion

117
Q

when there is a constant region switch in b cells

A

class switching

118
Q

IgM and IgD are coexpressed on cells how?

A

RNA splicing of transcripts

119
Q

How are transmembrane IgM and secreted IgM coexpressed

A

RNA splicing of transcripts

120
Q

Endogenous is shown on what and shown to what

A

MHC I, shown to CD8 killer T cells

121
Q

Exogenous is shown on what to what

A

MHC II, shown to CD4 helper

122
Q

Which MHC needs chaperones for beta2 microglobulin to bind

A

MHC 1

123
Q

Which complex binds to TAP, which delivers peptides to the endoplasmic reticulum

A

MHC 1

124
Q

Which pathway involves CLIP bound to which MHC shown to who

A

Exogenous; MHC II, show to helper T

125
Q

In order to have tissue compatibility, which parts of which molecules must be matching

A

All aloha of MHC I, beta of MHC II

126
Q

What is the main concept behind a superantigen

A

There is nonspecific activation (binds to helper T cell)

127
Q

What can superantigens be

A

Transmembrane (viral) or secreted toxins (bacterial)

MIP 342 (3 decks)

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