Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

electron

A

atomic particle with a negative charge

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2
Q

free radical

A

particle with an unnatural number of electrons

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3
Q

dimer

A

molecule composed of two monomers

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4
Q

rough ER (function)

A

synthesizes lipids

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5
Q

covalent bond

A

sharing of electrons between atoms

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6
Q

(CH2O)n

A

molecular formula of a carbohydrate

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7
Q

cilia

A

moves material over surface of a cell

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8
Q

mitochondrion

A

ATP producing organelle

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9
Q

catalyst

A

speeds up chemical reactions

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10
Q

amino acid

A

has a carboxyl, amino and r-group

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11
Q

solute

A

particles dissolved in a solvent

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12
Q

ribosome

A

binds to RNA and synthesizes protiens

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13
Q

isotonic

A

equal osmotic pressure on both sides

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14
Q

matrix

A

material between cells in a tissue

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15
Q

lysosome

A

vesicle containing digestive enzymes

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16
Q

how many electrons are found only in the second electron shell of an atom?

A

8

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17
Q

what tissue type has superficial cells connected to a basement membrane?

A

epithelial

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18
Q

which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of ATP molecules?

A

mitochondria

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19
Q

which atomic bond involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another?

A

ionic bond

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20
Q
which molecule is organic: 
H2O
CO2
NH3
CH4
A

CH4

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21
Q

what type of tissue has the ability to contract?

A

muscle

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22
Q

which concept is part of cell theory:
all cells came from pre-existing cells;
cells were derived from non-living molecules billions of years ago;
all cells possess a nucleus with genetic material;
all cells perform photosynthesis

A

all cells came from pre-existing cells

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23
Q

what is the function of cholesterol in the body?

A

main component of steroid hormones

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24
Q

what type of cell transport does NOT need ATP?

A

osmosis

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25
Q
which of the following substances is a carbohydrate:
sucrose
maltase
keratin
cholesterol
A

sucrose

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26
Q

what molecule is made of a large lipid and a small protein?

A

proteolipid

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27
Q
which of these organelles has a double phospholipid bilayer:
rough ER
nucleus
golgi apparatus
flagella
A

nucleus

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28
Q

which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of cellular carbohydrates?

A

golgi apparatus

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29
Q

which property of water allows humans to lose large quantities of heat through the evaporation of sweat?

A

thermal stability

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30
Q

what is the name of the organelle that organizes the shape of the cytoskeleton?

A

centrioles

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31
Q

True/False:

stratified squamous epithelial tissue is often used for secretion

A

False

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32
Q

True/False:

substances that dissolve in water are hydrophobic

A

false

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33
Q

True/False:

a cell that grows to twice its former volume has twice its former surface area

A

false

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34
Q

True/False:

a mole is a number equal to 5.02x10^23

A

false

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35
Q

True/False:

cytosol is the gelatinous fluid component of cytoplasm

A

true

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36
Q

True/False:

proteins are responsible for cellular movement

A

true

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37
Q

True/False:

RNA molecules are smaller than DNA molecules

A

true

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38
Q

True/False:

for a triglyceride to be saturated, all three fatty acids in it have to be saturated

A

true

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39
Q

True/False:

in osmosis, solute particles move from low to high concentations

A

false

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40
Q

True/False:

particles in a colloidal mixture are less than 1nm in size

A

false

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41
Q

carbon has an atomic number of 6, oxygen has number 8, and hydrogen has 1. calculate the weight of one mole of the triglyceride C55H101O6

A

ANSWER

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42
Q

what are the three types of subatomic particles and what charges do they have?

A

proton (+)
neutron (0)
electron (-)

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43
Q

draw an atom with an atomic number 12 and atomic weight 24. fill in the electron shells and label the number of protons and neutrons

A

SEE TEST

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44
Q

what is the matrix of a tissue and what is it composed of?

A

ANSWER

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45
Q

what is the Fluid Mosiac Theory of cell membranes?

A

ANSWER

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46
Q

Name and describe the shapes of cells found in epithelial issue

A

squamous: flat shaped, the nucleus is on top, similar shape to a fried egg
columnar: tall cells, nucleus is in the middle
cubodial: square/ cube shaped, the nucleus is in the middle

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47
Q

define the conformation of a protein

A

ANSWER

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48
Q

define the denaturation of a protien

A

ANSWER

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49
Q

what is the name of the structure that anchors cilia and flagella to a cell?

A

ANSWER

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50
Q

what are the 3 most common elements of the body?

A

hydrogen, carbon, oxygen

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51
Q

what are the 3 types of cartilage and how tough or elastic are they?

A

ANSWER

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52
Q

what is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins?

A

ANSWER

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53
Q

define hydrophilic

A

molecules that bind/ form bonds with water

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54
Q

define hydrophobic

A

molecules that do not bind/ form bonds with water

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55
Q

define amphiphillic

A

molecules that have the ability to bind/ form bonds with water or not

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56
Q

what are the 3 protein filaments that make up the cytoskeleton and which is the thickest?

A

ANSWER

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57
Q

what do the prefixes mono-, poly-, and oligo- mean?

A

mono: one
poly: many
oligo: few

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58
Q

why are saturated fats solid and unsaturated fats liquid at room temperature?

A

ANSWER

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59
Q

explain why a larger surface area-to-volume ratio is good for a cell and how that limits cell size.

A

ANSWER

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60
Q

how many amino acid types are found in human proteins an how many amino acids in a chain make up a protein?

A

there are 20 amino acid types that are found in human proteins. a combination of 50 amino acids make up a chain.

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61
Q

what are the differences between symports, antiports, and uniports?

A

symports: brings 2 things into the same direction
antiports: brings things into 2 different directions
uniports: allows things to pass through a membrane in one direction

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62
Q

what is a hydration sphere?

A

ANSWER

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63
Q

what is the difference between synthesis, decomposition, and exchange reactions?

A

synthesis: two or more smaller molecules are joined together to make a larger molecule (A+B –> AB)
decomposition: a larger molecule is broken up into at least 2 smaller molecules (AB –> A+B)
exchange: a molecule is broken down into at least 2 parts but the elements are also exchanged (AB+CD –> AC+BD)

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64
Q

Describe the cell actions during pinocytosis

A

ANSWER

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65
Q

Describe the cell actions during phagocytosis

A

ANSWER

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66
Q

Describe the the cell actions during excocytosis

A

ANSWER

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67
Q

list the 6 physical properties of water

A
solvency
cohesion
thermal stability
adhesion
polarity
chemical reactivitiy
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68
Q

explain the differences in shape and function of microvilli, cilia, and flagella

A

ANSWER

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69
Q

list the 7 functions of proteins in the body

A

ANSWER

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70
Q

** Compare and contrast diffusion and osmosis. Describe how particles flow in each, way they move the way they do and under what conditions they both reach equilibrium.

A

ANSWER

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71
Q

** describe the 4 levels of protein structure including what bonds are formed in each and why it makes those bonds.

A

ANSWER

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72
Q

Hematoma

A

blood clot

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73
Q

stratum corneum

A

epidermal layer of dead keratnized cells

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74
Q

endosteum

A

lines the medullary cavity of long bones

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75
Q

tendon

A

connects muscle to bone

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76
Q

exocrinw

A

gland that secretes through a duct

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77
Q

hair shaft

A

portion of the hair outside the epidermis

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78
Q

Haversian canal

A

carries blood vessels and nerves through compact bone

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79
Q

hyperplasia

A

tissue growth through cell multiplication

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80
Q

hypodermis

A

mostly composed of adipose tissue

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81
Q

synarthrosis

A

non moveable joint

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82
Q

gomphosis

A

tooth socket joint

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83
Q

multiaxial

A

allows movement in 3 planes

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84
Q

solubility product

A

necessary for calcium deposition

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85
Q

bursae

A

contains synovial fluid and cushions outside out joints

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86
Q

fibrosis

A

replacement of damaged cells with FCT

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87
Q

which bone shape do the vertebrae have?

A

irregular

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88
Q

which layer of the epidermis is only found in thick skin

A

stratum lucidum

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89
Q

what are the fibers of collagen that extend into bone matriz from the periosteum called?

A

perforating fibers

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90
Q

what type of tissue change involves sudden death due to loss of blood supply?

A

infarction

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91
Q

what type of movement can be performed with a ball-and-socket joint?

A

circumduction

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92
Q
which cell does not come from an osteogenic cell:
osteoblasts
osteoclasts
fibroblasts
chondroblasts
A

osteoblasts

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93
Q
which is not a pigment found in the integument?
hemoglobin
carotene
melanin
myoglobin
A

myogloblin

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94
Q

in bone tissue, what is the name of the chamber the osteocytes sit in?

A

lacunae

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95
Q

what is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

A

between vertebral bodies

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96
Q

where will you find the zone of hypertrophy?

A

in the metaphysis

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97
Q
which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood
adipocytes
erythrocytes
leukocytes
platlets
A

adipocytes

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98
Q

which gland type produces earwax?

A

cercuminous

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99
Q

which hormone reduces blood calcium by stimulating osteoblasts?

A

calcitonin

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100
Q
which is not a feature of a synovial joint:
synarthrosis
meniscus
joint capsule
synovial fluid
A

synarthrosis

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101
Q

what is the smooth muscle bundle that causes hairs to stand on end?

A

arrector pili

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102
Q

True/False:

skin and bones are constantly growing new tissue

A

true

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103
Q

True/False:

the periostieum of a bone and the tendon of a muscle are made of the same tissue

A

true

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104
Q

True/False:

in thin skin, there are no sweat glands

A

false

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105
Q

True/False:

eumelanin produces red/ blond hair

A

false

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106
Q
True/False:
third class levers have a high mechanical advantage
A

false

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107
Q

True/False:

inversion and eversion are motions of the hands

A

false

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108
Q

True/False:

all synovial joints are diarthroses

A

false

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109
Q

True/False:

lanugo hair is found on fetuses

A

true

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110
Q

True/False:

yellow marrow is only found in the epiphyses of bones

A

false

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111
Q

True/False:

all diarthrosis are synovial joints

A

true

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112
Q

put the following in chronological order: osteoblast, spongy bone, osteogenic cell, osteoid tissue, compact bone.

A
osteogenic cell
osteoblast
osteoid tissue
spongy bone
compact bone
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113
Q

Draw a hair in lateral view and in cross section and label the following parts: shaft, root, bulb, and then medulla, cortex and cuticle

A

SEE DRAWING

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114
Q

define abduction

A

movement away from the midline of the body

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115
Q

define adduction

A

movement towards the midline of the body

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116
Q

define flexion

A

bending motion that decreases the angle

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117
Q

define extension

A

extending motion that increases the angle

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118
Q

name the 3 stages of hair growth and what occurs in each stage

A

anagen: new hair follicle begins to grow
catagen: old hair follicle dies and new follicle grows within the same spot
telegen: resting stage. old hair is pushed out by new hair

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119
Q

name the 4 cutaneous glands and what they secrete

A

merocrine- sweat

  • apocrine- sweat
  • sebaceous- sebum
  • ceruminous- earwax
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120
Q

in what organs are calcitriol, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormones made?

A

ANSWER

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121
Q

name the three cell types found in the stratum basale of the epidermis and what their functions are.

A

ANSWER

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122
Q

what are the three types of cartilage?

A

hyaline
fibrocartilage
elastic cartilage

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123
Q

what are the three types of muscle tissue?

A

skeletal muscle tissue
cardiac muscle tissue
smooth muscle tissue

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124
Q

what are the organic and inorganic components of bone matrix?

A

organic: 1/3, protein and collagen
inorganic: 2/3, hydroxipate, calcium, phosphate and sodium

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125
Q

what is the difference between amphiarthroses, diarthroses, and synarthrosis?

A

amphiarthroses: some movement
diarthroses: broad movement
synarthrosis: no movement (little, if any)

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126
Q

describe or draw a first class lever

A

EFR, RFE

the fulcrum is in the middle

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127
Q

describe or draw a second class lever

A

FRE, ERF

the resistance is in the middle

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128
Q

describe or draw a third class lever

A

REF, FER

the effort is in the middle

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129
Q

what is the difference between sereous, mucous and cytogenic glands?

A

ANSWER

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130
Q

what is the difference between appositional and interstitial growth?

A

appositional: the cells are near the surface and grow towards the surface
interstitial growth: cells are in the middle and grow in both directions (ex. scar tissue)

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131
Q

name the pairs of bones that form a condyloid joint

A

ANSWER

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132
Q

name the pairs of bones that form a hinge joint

133
Q

name the pairs of bones that form a pivot joint

134
Q

define pronation

135
Q

define supination

136
Q

define opposition

137
Q

define reposition

138
Q

what doe the prefixes chondro-, osteo-, and fibro- refer to?

A

chondro- cartilage
osteo- bone
fibro- fibers

139
Q

what is the difference between endocrine, exocrine, holocrine, and merocrine glands?

140
Q

draw and label the following parts of an osteon: haversian canal, lamellae, osteocytes, canaliculi

A

SEE DRAWING

141
Q

where are the primary and secondary centers found?

142
Q

define atrophy

A

cell/ tissue size shrinks

143
Q

define apoptosis

A

pre-programmed cell death

144
Q

define necrosis

A

early cell death

145
Q

list the 6 functions of the skeletal system

A
acid/ base balance
electrolyte balance
support
movement
protection form trauma
blood formation
146
Q

list the 6 functions of the integumentary system

147
Q

list in order of depth all the strata and layers of tissue in the epidermis and dermis

148
Q

list the 3 types of fibrous joints, the 2 types of cartilaginous joints, and the 6 types of synovial joints

A

Fibrous Joints: gomphosis, suture, and syndesmoses
Cartilaginous Joints: symphysis and Synchondrosis
Synovial Joints: ball & socket, condylar, saddle, plane, hinge, pivot

149
Q

** name all the zones of the metaphysis and describe in detail what is happening in each of the zones until osteons are formed

150
Q

** describe in detail how a fractured bone is repaired. include the types of tissue formed, what cells formed them, and in what order.

151
Q

What are the anatomical structures of the spinal cord and spinal nerves?

152
Q

What are the connective tissues associated with nervous tissue?

153
Q

How many spinal nerve pairs are there?

154
Q

What are the 5 plexuses?

155
Q

What are the proximal branches of the spinal nerve?

156
Q

What are the distal branches of the spinal nerve?

157
Q

What are the functions of all the branches of the spinal nerves?

158
Q

What is a dermatome?

159
Q

What are the characteristics of a reflex?

160
Q

Describe a reflex arc.

161
Q

What types of neurons are found in the roots of spinal nerves?

162
Q

What is the difference between a funiculus and a fasciculus?

163
Q

What is the difference between ascending and descending tracts?

164
Q

What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral tracts?

165
Q

What are the anatomical structures of the brain? (Check the lab list of structures)

166
Q

What are the three meninges?

167
Q

Which is most superficial and deepest?

168
Q

What are the ventricles?

169
Q

What are the choroid plexuses?

170
Q

What are the 3 functions of cerebrospinal fluid?

171
Q

How is cerebrospinal fluid made?

172
Q

Why is it important to keep whole blood from touching the CNS?

173
Q

What is the difference between the blood-brain barrier and the blood-CSF barrier?

174
Q

What are the structures that make up the hindbrain?

175
Q

what are the structures that make up the midbrain?

176
Q

what are the structures that make up the forebrain?

177
Q

What are four functions of each structure in the hindbrain, midbrain and forebrain?

178
Q

What are the 5 functions of the reticular formation?

179
Q

What are the 7 functions of the hypothalamus?

180
Q

What are the 5 lobes of the cerebrum?

181
Q

What are their general functions of each lobe of the cerebrum?

182
Q

What are the 3 areas of cerebral gray matter?

183
Q

What are the 3 tract types of cerebral white matter?

184
Q

What limbic system nuclei are centers of emotion and memory?

185
Q

What are the 8 higher brain functions?

186
Q

What is the difference between Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area?

187
Q

How are primary sensory and association areas related to one another?

188
Q

How are the motor association and primary motor areas of the frontal lobe related to one another?

189
Q

What are the differences between sensory and motor divisions of the PNS?

190
Q

What are the differences between somatic and visceral divisions of the PNS?

191
Q

Which of these divisions are part of the autonomic nervous system:
somatic, visceral, sensory, motor?

192
Q

How many neurons are needed to reach effectors from the CNS in a somatic pathway versus an autonomic pathway?

193
Q

What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic fiber lengths?

194
Q

What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Names and locations of the ganglia?

195
Q

What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Neurotransmitters used?

196
Q

What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Origin of the path from the CNS?

197
Q

What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Neuronal divergence?

198
Q

What are the three routes that sympathetic paths can follow and where do the post-ganglionic fibers run for each route?

199
Q

How could blood vessel width be regulated using only sympathetic enervation?

200
Q

What are the characteristics of receptors?

201
Q

What are the 4 types of info sent by receptors?

A

modality (type), location (which), intensity (rate), duration (way)

202
Q

What is the difference between phasic and tonic receptors?

A

phasic: adapt quickly after initial burst of sensation
tonic: adapt slowly and send continual impulses

203
Q

What are the 5 modalities of receptors?

A

chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, nocieptors, mechanorecptors, photoreceptors

204
Q

what are interoceptors

A

detect stimuli in the internal organs

205
Q

what are proprioceptors

A

dectect stimuli in muscles, tendons and joints

206
Q

what are exteroceptors

A

dectect stimuli external to the body

207
Q

What is the difference between general and special senses?

A

general senses are receptors widely distributed in the skin, muscles, tendons, joints and viscera

special senses…

208
Q

What are the 3 unencapsulated nerve endings in the skin?

A

free nerve endings, tactile (merkel) discs, hair receptors

209
Q

What are the encapsulated nerve endings in deeper tissues?

A

tactile (corpuscles)
krause end bulbs
lammellated corpuscles
ruffini corpuscles

210
Q

What is the projection pathway for touch receptors?

A

nueron to spinal cord
into the thalamus
into the cortex

211
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

pain receptors

212
Q

What are the two types of pain?

A

fast and slow

213
Q

What is substance P?

214
Q

What is the projection pathway for pain?

A

skin to spinal cord
spinal cord to thalamus and reticular formation
thalamus to parietal lobe
reticular formation to hypothalamus and limbic system

215
Q

What is spinal gating?

216
Q

What are endogenous opioids?

217
Q

What is chemoreception?

218
Q

What is gustation?

219
Q

What is olfaction?

220
Q

What is the difference between taste buds and lingual papillae?

221
Q

What are the shapes of the 4 lingual papillae?

222
Q

Where are most taste buds found?

223
Q

What are the 5 accepted taste sensations?

224
Q

What is the projection pathway of taste sensation?

225
Q

What 3 cranial nerves sense taste?

226
Q

How many taste buds are there?

227
Q

How many olfactory cells?

228
Q

How long do taste cells and olfactory cells live and why?

229
Q

How many smells can a person differentiate on average?

230
Q

What is the projection pathway of olfaction?

231
Q

What is the difference between pitch and loudness?

232
Q

how is pitch measured

233
Q

how is loudness measured

234
Q

What are the three sections of the ear?

235
Q

What are the anatomical structures in each section of the ear?

236
Q

What are the ossicles?

237
Q

What are the names of the ossicles?

238
Q

What is the difference between perilymph and endolymph?

239
Q

What is the difference between the cochlea and the vestibule?

240
Q

What is the pathway that sound vibrations follow through the entire ear?

241
Q

How is sound transduced into nerve impulses?

242
Q

What is the projection pathway of sound?

243
Q

What is the difference between static equilibrium and dynamic equilibrium?

244
Q

What is the difference between linear and angular acceleration?

245
Q

what organs sense linear acceleration

246
Q

what organs sense angular acceleration

247
Q

What is the difference between the maculae and the cristae?

248
Q

What are otoliths?

249
Q

What is the projection pathway of balance?

250
Q

What are the accessory structures of vision?

251
Q

what are the functions of the accessory functions of the structures of vision

252
Q

How many muscles move the eyeball in the socket?

253
Q

How many cranial nerves?

254
Q

What are the three tunics of the eye?

255
Q

What are the structures of the optical apparatus?

256
Q

What are the structures of the neural apparatus?

257
Q

What are the three means of improving focus on nearby objects?

258
Q

How do the ciliary bodies, suspensory ligaments and lens work together to focus vision?

259
Q

What are the three layers of cells in the retina?

260
Q

What is the difference between rods and cones in function and neural connection?

261
Q

What parts of the retina have higher concentrations of rods and/or cones?

262
Q

What is the projection pathway of vision?

263
Q

action potential

A

thin filament in a sarcomere

264
Q

fusiform

A

spindle like muscle shape

265
Q

trigger zone

A

dominated by voltage gated ion channels

266
Q

actin

A

thin filament in a sarcomere

267
Q

lactic acid

A

byproduct of anaerobic fermenations

268
Q

IPSP

A

makes a neuron less likely to fire

269
Q

endoneurium

A

sheath surrounding each axon in the CNS

270
Q

motor unit

A

motor neuron and its neuron fibers

271
Q

reverberating

A

neuronal circuit that stimulates itself

272
Q

tetanus

A

smooth prolonged contraction of muscle

273
Q

synapse

A

junction of a neuron and target cell

274
Q

treppe

A

muscle cells go to full relaxation but next twitch has higher tension

275
Q

isometric

A

change in tension, no change in length

276
Q

ganglion

A

bundle of muscle or neuron fibers

277
Q

calcium

A

ion pumped outside of smooth muscle

278
Q

Which of the following is a function of the muscular system:

a. Integration.
b. Heat production.
c. Conduction.
d. Electrolyte balance.

A

heat production

279
Q

Which muscle action opposes the prime mover?

A

antagonist

280
Q

Which neurotransmitter type is made of modified amino acids?

A

monoamines

281
Q

Which of the following is a cuff of connective tissue that holds tendons in place?

a. Aponeurosis.
b. Retinaculum.
c. Insertion.
d. Origin.

A

retinaculum

282
Q

What type of conduction is permitted by myelinated neurons?

283
Q

Which type of conduction brings impulses from the body to the CNS?

284
Q

Which type of neuroglial cell creates a supportive framework in the CNS?

A

astrocytes

285
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the meninges?

a. Fara mater.
b. Arachnoid mater.
c. Pia mater.
d. Dura mater.

A

fara matter

286
Q

What is a full cycle of contraction and relaxation of a muscle?

A

muscle twitch

287
Q

What type of neuron has only one dendrite and one axon attached to the soma?

288
Q

Which characteristic is common to both nervous tissue and muscular tissue?

a. Contractility.
b. Elasticity.
c. Excitability.
d. Extensibility.

A

excitability

289
Q

Which method of ATP production does not use oxygen but does use glucose?

A

anaerobic fermenation

290
Q

What is the name of the contractile unit of a muscle cell?

291
Q

Which part of the muscle cell contains ligand-gated ion channels?

A

motor end plate

292
Q

Which muscle shape has the weakest of contraction strength?

293
Q

True/ False: Qualitative encoding is based on how many neurons fire and how
often they fire.

294
Q

True/ False: Ependymal cells filter blood to make cerebrospinal fluid.

295
Q

True/ False: Sodium is kept at a high concentration inside neuron membranes.

296
Q

True/ False: The time during which a cell cannot be stimulated again is the
latent period.

297
Q

True/ False: Interneurons communicate between sensory and motor neurons.

298
Q

True/ False: Myosin heads bind to actin active sites when exposed.

299
Q

True/ False: Superficial fascia lies between muscle surface and skin.

300
Q

True/ False: Myofibrils are made up of many sarcomeres.

301
Q

True/ False: Actin filaments are connected to dense bodies in smooth muscle.

302
Q

True/ False: Sodium gates are slow to open compared to potassium gates.

303
Q

What are all the benefits and disadvantages to aerobic respiration and anaerobic fermentation?

A

aerobic: creates NO lactic acid, muscles do not fatigue as quickly
anaerobic: makes lactic acid, muscles fatigue quickly

304
Q

What are the three characteristics of nervous tissue AND the five characteristics of muscle tissue?

A

Nervous: excitability, conductivity, secretion

305
Q

Name three of the six neuroglial cell types, and give one function of each.

A

Microglia- macrophages
Epidymal- fitters
Oligendrocytes- makes myelin sheath
astrocytes- form supportive framework for nervous tissue
satellite- provide electrical insulation around soma
schwann- assist in regeneration

306
Q

What is the difference between a neuron, a nerve and a ganglion?

A

neuron: nerve cel
nerve: bundle of nerve fibers
ganglion: knot like swelling in a nerve

307
Q

List three ways to increase the strength of a muscle twitch and/or prevent twitch weakness.

308
Q

Explain how smooth muscle cells are stimulated in a single-unit format.

309
Q

What is the difference between the CNS and the PNS and what do those acronyms stand for?

A

CNS: central nervous system
- contains the brain and spinal cord

PNS: peripheral nervous system
- contains everything EXCEPT the brain and spinal cord

310
Q

What cells create the myelin sheath in the CNS and PNS and what are the two functions of the sheath?

311
Q

What is the difference in location between endomysium, perimysium and epimysium?

A

endomysium: deepest
perimysium: middle
epimysium: closest to the surface

312
Q

What are the three ways to remove neurotransmitters from a synaptic cleft?

313
Q

What is the difference between the somatic and visceral divisions of the PNS?

314
Q

What is the function of the troponin/tropomyosin complex?

315
Q

Draw a multipolar neuron and label the dendrite, soma, axon, terminal arborization, and synaptic knobs.

316
Q

Explain the action of an IPSP. (Not just what it is, but how one is formed.)

317
Q

Name three things that return a muscle cell to its resting size during relaxation.

A

antagonistic muscles
recoil of elastic components
titin

318
Q

List the physical differences between a smooth muscle cell and a skeletal muscle cell.

319
Q

Explain why the brain is perfused with CSF and not blood.

320
Q

What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative neural coding?

A

quantitative: based on how many neurons fire
qualitative: based on what kind of neurons fire

321
Q

What is the difference between temporal summation and spatial summation?

A

Temporal: the same nerve/ neuron fires repeatedly until the threshold is met
spatial: multiple nerves/ neurons fire to meet the threshold

322
Q

Draw a simple sarcomere and label the actin, myosin, z-disc, titin, A-band, and I-band.

323
Q

Describe the process of regeneration of a severed axon in the PNS.

324
Q

List the differences in form and function of local and action potentials.

325
Q

List the differences in anatomy and function between slow and fast twitch fibers.

326
Q

List the physiological causes of fatigue in muscle cells

A

accumulation of K+ in the ECF
ADP/ Pi accumulation
fuel depletion
electrolyte loss

327
Q

**Describe in detail ONE of the following processes: Excitation, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, relaxation.

A

excitation:
- nerve signal to synaptic knob
- voltage gated ion channels open
- calcium ions enter knob and stimulate excytosis
- ACh is released
- ACh diffuses and binds to receptors
- ligand gated ion channel
- 2 ACh molecules bind to receptor
- channel opens: Na+ flows IN; K+ flows OUT

328
Q

**Describe the transmission of an action potential down an axon in detail, starting from the trigger zone. Describe the motion of sodium and potassium and the change in membrane voltage during the action potential, plus its effects on the next section of the axolemma.