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MLT 100 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Define microbiota / normal flora / colonizers.

A

Microorganisms that benefit from obtaining nutrients from the host; host benefits from synthesis/digestion of nutrients from microbiota

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2
Q

Define pathogenic microorganisms / pathogens.

A

Microorganisms that cause disease

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3
Q

Define opportunistic pathogens.

A

Not usually harmful; has potential to become harmful

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4
Q

Define nosocomial infection.

A

Infections that are acquired during process of receiving healthcare that was not present during time of admission

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5
Q

What type of nomenclature format is used in MLT?

A

Binomial system: genus and species

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6
Q

List the collection requirements for various specimens in microbiology.

A
  • Specimen containers: must be sterile; disposable
  • Swab: certain fibers may inhibit growth; collection from throat, eyes, nose, ears, wounds
  • Anaerobic transport: keeps anaerobes alive
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7
Q

List the various equipment used in microbiology.

A
  • Inoculating loop
  • Incinerators: sterilizes inoculating loop
  • Solid and liquid media (in petri dishes or tubes)
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8
Q

Explain the difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

A
  • Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan layer
  • Gram-negative: thin peptidoglycan layer under a phospholipid bilayer
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9
Q

What is the difference between a primary culture and a subculture?

A
  • Primary culture: initial inoculation streaked using dilution streak method with sample to obtain isolated colonies
  • Subculture: secondary streak place made from an isolated colony from the primary culture
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10
Q

Compare the different classifications of media.

A
  • Nutrient: used to satisfy growth requirements of bacteria; supports growth of most non-fastidious (stubborn) organisms; some pathogens require special nutrients that may be added to the nutrient base
  • Selective: used when specific organisms are to be isolated; chemical dyes or anti microbial are added to medium to inhibit contaminating organisms (but not suspecting agent)
  • Differential: demonstrates certain unique features of specific pathogens; contains indicator system (ex. pH indicator) and carbohydrate, which shows color change in colony when carbohydrate is used (which produces acid)
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11
Q

Define cerebrospinal fluids (CSF).

A

Clear and colorless sterile fluid that circulates in ventricles of brain, subarachnoid spaces, and spinal cord

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12
Q

What are the 4 main functions of CSF.

A
  1. Serves as a mechanical cushion that prevents trauma
  2. Regulates volume of intracranial contents
  3. Provides nutrient medium for central nervous system (CNS)
  4. Acts as an excretory channel for metabolic products of CNS
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13
Q

What does normal CSF look like?

A

Clear and colorless

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14
Q

Describe the collection of CSF tubes and the departments that test each tube.

A
  • Tube 1: chemistry; may contain contaminant from skin
  • Tube 2: microbiology; should not have contaminants
  • Tube 3: hematology (total cell counts, differential counts); should not have as much blood
  • Tube 4: immunology and/or serology
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15
Q

List the different serous fluids and their location.

A
  • Pleural fluid = lungs
  • Pericardial fluid = heart
  • Peritoneal fluid = abdominal cavity
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16
Q

What is the difference between a transudate and exudate?

A
  • Transudate: normal serous fluids formed as an ultrafultrate of plasma
  • Exudate: result of inflammatory response that directly affect the serous cavity
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17
Q

Define synovial fluid and describe components of a routine synovial fluid examination.

A
  • Synovial fluid: ultrafiltrate of plasma; lubricates joints
  • gross appearance, clotting, red and white blood cell counts, morphological examination, white cell differential, chemical analysis
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18
Q

Interpret microscopic examination of synovial fluid for gout.

A

Crystals found in the synovial fluid indicate gout

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19
Q

What are the components of a semen analysis?

A

Macroscopic examination, wet mount analysis (sperm count and motility), morphology

20
Q

Define amniotic fluid.

A

Protective / nutrient fluid contained by amnion of fetus

21
Q

What are the uses of amniotic fluid analysis?

A
  • Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio: determines lung maturity of baby
  • Fetal fibronectin (fFN): indicates when delivery of baby will occur
  • Tests for genetic defects
22
Q

Define immunology and serology.

A
  • Immunology: study of molecules, cells, organs, and systems responsible for recognition and disposal of non-self substances; the way the immune system can be manipulated to protect against or treat disease
  • Serology: division of immunology that specializes in lab detection and measurement of specific antibodies that develop in blood during response to exposure to disease-producing antigen
23
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibodies?

A
  • IgG: main antibody in blood; powerful ability to bind to bacteria and toxins
  • IgM: key role in initial immune system defense
  • IgA: in secretions (ex. nasal discharge; saliva, bowel fluid) to prevent infection from a mucous membrane
  • IgD: present on surface of B cells; role in induction of antibody production and prevention of respiratory tract infections
  • IgE: responsible for immunity reactions to parasites; involved in allergies
24
Q

Define immune complex.

A

Non-covalent bonding of antibodies and antigens

25
Q

Compare monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.

A
  • Monoclonal: purified antibodies cloned from a single cell
  • Polyclonal antibodies: immunizing animals with antigen and antibody is harvested from animal’s serum
26
Q

Explain the mode of activation and consequences of complement activiation.

A

Once activated, it results in ultimate formation of membrane attack complex that disrupts cellular membranes
- coating of antigen (opsonization)
- latest other cells to attack (inflammation)
- destroys antigen (membrane attack complex)

27
Q

What is the difference between natural and adaptive immunity?

A
  • Natural immunity: nonspecific mechanism
  • Adaptive immunity: body recognizes, remembers, and responds to a specific antigen
28
Q

Describe the characteristics of aggregation.

A

Clumping; aggregation of particulate test antigens

29
Q

Compare the characteristics of precipitation and flocculation.

A
  • Precipitation: aggregation of solvable test antigens
  • Flocculation: collection of cells into aggregates by addition of multitalented cations, metal salts, or polymers
30
Q

Define antibody titer.

A

Antibody titer: reciprocal of highest dilution of patient’s serum where antibody is still detectable
- highest dilution of serum that still gives a positive reaction with antigen in question
- report titer: last dilution that had a positive reaction or result

31
Q

Compare features and clinical applications of immunofluorescent assays (IFA) and various enzyme immunoassays (EIA).

A
  • Direct IFA: antibody conjugated to a detectable label is introduced to specimens; fluorescent label
  • Indirect IFA: based on fact that antibody can also act as an antigen (will bind to specific anti-antibody); antibodies that bind to other antibodies
  • EIA uses enzyme molecules that can be conjugated to specific monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies; direct and indirect sandwich technique; membrane-bound technique
32
Q

Define immunohematology.

A

Study of RBC antigens and antibodies associated with blood transfusions

33
Q

What are the 4 reasons for blood transfusions?

A
  1. maintaining oxygen-carrying capacity
  2. restoring blood volume
  3. replacing coagulation factors
  4. WBC transfusions (?)
34
Q

What are the RBC components and derivatives used for transfusions?

A

Packed RBCs, fresh frozen plasma, platelets and granulocytes, cryoprecipitate

35
Q

List the assays for blood borne infectious diseases.

A

Syphillis, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, human t-cell lymphtropic virus, west nile virus, trypanosoma cruzi (blood borne parasite)

36
Q

What are the donor qualifications for blood transfusion?

A

Donors must be healthy, over 110 pounds (depends on height), etc.

37
Q

What are the other types of blood transfusions?

A
  • Autologous transfusion: donating blood to used on yourself later on
  • Direct transfusion: returning RBCs to patient while taking certain parts of blood out
38
Q

What are the means of detecting antigen-antibody reactions in transfusion medicine?

A

Traditional, gel technology, microplate testing methods, solid-phase RBC adherence methods

39
Q

Explain the concept of universal donors and recipients.

A
  • Universal donors: people with a certain blood type that can be given to everyone
  • RBC = O
  • Plasma = AB
  • Universal recipients: people that can receive any type of blood
  • RBC = AB
  • Plasma = O
40
Q

Define Landsteiner’s rule.

A

The antibody to the antigen lacking on the RBCs is always present in the serum or plasma

41
Q

Compare forward and reverse typing.

A
  • Forward typing: determines ABO blood type
  • Reverse typing: determine Rh of positive or negative
42
Q

Differentiate what is meant by “Rh negative” and “Rh positive”

A
  • Rh negative: NO presence of D antigen
  • Rh positive: presence of D antigen
43
Q

What is the difference between direct antiglobulin test and indirect antiglobulin test?

A
  • Direct antiglobulin test: looks for antibodies attached to RBCs
  • Indirect antiglobulin test: looks for antibodies in serum
44
Q

List the components of compatibility testing for blood.

A
  • ABO and Rh typing of donor and recipient
  • antibody screening of blood
  • crossmatching: mix donor and patient blood together to see if there will be a reaction
45
Q

List the various types of adverse effects of transfusion.

A
  • Immediate adverse reactions (within a day after transfusion)
  • Delayed reaction
46
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

A
  • mother has negative blood, but baby has positive blood
  • mother’s body creates D antibodies to fight off foreign substance, which could harm the baby
  • doesn’t usually harm the first child, but the second child that has positive blood
  • mother has to take medication to slow down the process of forming those D antibodies to prevent hurting the baby
47
Q

Compare the principle and purposes of direct antiglobulin test and indirect antiglobulin test (antibody screen).

A
  • Direct antiglobulin test: determines whether your RBCs are covered with antibodies; antibodies that are attached to RBCs are responsible for their destruction
  • Indirect antiglobulin test (antibody screen): detection of circulating antibodies that have potential to induce RBC hemolysis; used to detect and identify antibodies

MLT 100 (3 decks)

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