Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Passive Care > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

electrical modality used for pain control muscle spasm edema and strengthening

A

high volt modalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

low volt is ____ and high volt is ____

A

150v

150-500v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

high volt modality machine are: (3 characteristics)

A

unidirectional
monophasic
interrupted

Direct current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

high volt machine generates electromotive force up to

A

500 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

physiological effects of high voltage

A

endogenous opioids
improved lymph drainage
decrease muscle spasm
local circulatory increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ardnt-Schultz Law

A

physiologic effects of energy absorption are concentration dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

law of grothus and draper

A

energy is either absorbed superficial or transmitted to deeper layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

therapeutic effects of high volt

A

similar to IFC, russian, biphasic
same uses as medium frequency modalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

recommended frequencies of high voltage

A

pain reduction 70-110 pps
muscle spasm: 70-110 pps
muscle reeduction: 15 pps
edema <10pps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contraindications for high voltage

A

neoplasia
sensory issue
Not over head
pacemakers
pregnancy
circulatory problems
metal in the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

polarity and effects

positive–>

negative –>

A

Positive: analgesia, vasoconstriction, germicidal

Negative: trigger pts, vasodilation, adhesions, muscle re-ed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is Iontophoresis?

A

utilizing polarity of direct current to introduce chemicals into superficial tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Iontophoresis is done by:

A

using gauze soaked in a chemical covered by an electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the depth of iontophoresis?

A

1-2mm
.5ma/cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is Phonophoresis?

A

ultrasound waves are used to drive substances through skin

substance is mixed into the coupling medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are some charactersitics of phonophoresis treatment?

A

1mhz
5-10min
1 w/cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

contraindications to phonophoresis

A

broken skin
allergy
decreased sensation
malignancy
pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the acronym for Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation?

A

TENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the purpose of TENS?

A

sensory stimulation for pain control but muscle contraction can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TENS parameters consist of:

A

alternating current
variation of faradic/square waveforms

70-150pps
width; 40-500 microseconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

low frequency tens typically have

A

longer widths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

placement of TENS pads

A

dermatomes, nerve pathways, acupuncture points for pain control

muscle belly for contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

indications for TENS

A

acute pain
chronic-if used daily
neuropathy-overplexus if used daily
obstetrical- depends on position of fetus in labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

contraindications of TENS

A

metal
poor sensation
local skin lesion
rash in the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

treatment protocol of TENS

A

high and low frequency in one session

30-45min
Mild SLS to Strong SLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

main goal of treatment of biofeedback is to train a patient to

A

perceive physical or biomechanical changes without the use of measuring instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

intrinsic feedback is defined as:

A

cutaneous, vestibular, proprioceptive input sent to CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

extrinsic feedback is defined as:

A

verbal, mechanical cues that a movement or function can be changed

(outside of the patient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

electrical biofeedback is defined as:

A

therapeutic procedure that uses electronic or electromechanical instruments to accurately measure, process, and feedback reinforcing via auditory or visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

effects of biofeedback are achieved via:

A

achieved by active work on patients part or by influencing physiological mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the 6 effects of biofeedback?

A

decrease spasm
decrease HR/RR
decrease BP
increase strength
decrease pain
decrease depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are 6 advantages of biofeedback?

A

small changes can be seen quicker

immediate identification of results

illustrates progress of rehab for patient

reduces stress from lack of improvement

identifying training problems

scientific approach to rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are 4 types of biofeedback instruments?

A

peripheral skin temp

finger photo-transmission unit

skin conductance activity

electromyographic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are 4 disadvantages of biofeedback?

A

rely on extrinsic input from device over internal

weaning off device if dependent

instrument makes activity exercise like as opposed to free flowing

mechanical failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

instruments in biofeedback do not:

A

measure the physiologic event directly, but an aspect correlated with it

(muscle contraction strength is not measure with EMG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are 4 devices used to measure forms of biofeedback?

A

sphygmomanometer
thermometer
EKG
EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are some devices or tests that do not measure biofeedback?

A

lab studies
scales
height
imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is EMG biofeedback?

A

nerve impulse reaches muscle and is sensed by the electrode

gives either visual (graph, oscilloscope) or auditory feedback (beep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the sound in ultrasound is produced by what?

A

piezoelectric effect

rapid expansion and contraction of the crystal as AC passes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

soundwaves of ultrasound are either:

A

1mhz -deep
3mhz- superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the audible range for human hearing?

A

20-20,000hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

provide some characteristcs of 1 mhz vs 3mhz ultrasound penetration:

A

1mhz= 2-5cm

3mhz= 3mhz- 1-2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the duty cycles of ultrasound?

A

20% acute
50% subacute
cont- chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the intensity of ultrasound?

A

.5-1w/cm2 thin acute
1-1.5 acute thin

1-1.5w/cm2 chronic thin
1.5-2w/cm2 chronic thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

continuous ultrasound has a ____ effect

A

thermic effect 100% duty cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are some benefits of ultrasound?

A

histamine release to enhance inflammation

increase temp
soften collagen
decrease pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are some contraindications of ultrasound?

A

vascular insufficiency

over reproductive organs

over eyes

over gravid uterus

near pacemaker

over tumor

over joint replacements or open GP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ultrasound frequency should not exceed _______

A

14 days

can be 6-8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are some thermal effects of ultrasound?

A

collagen extensibility
decrease joint stiffness
reduction of muscle spasm
increase blood flow

1mhz and 1.5w/cm2- .2C increase

3mhz and 1.5w/cm2 - .6c per minute increase temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ultrasound can cause non-thermal effects like:

A

cavitation
-stable and unstable cavitation

acoustic streaming-increase membrane permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

sound travels faster in ______ (water or air)

A

water than air so a coupling medium is needed for ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

for bladder and underwater ultrasound, intensity is changed in which way:

A

increase .5w/cm2

immersion, the head is held .5-1.0cm away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is combination therapy?

A

using ultrasound and electrical stim through transducer head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

with regards to combo therapy, the dispersal electrode of combo must be:

A

4x area of transducer head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

the treatment area of ultrasound must not be:

A

> 2-3x transducer head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are some diathermy adverse effects?

A

patients with implanted brain stimulators died after receiving diathermy

following treatment for scoliosis and oral surgery as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are 3 types of diathermy?

A

short wave
microwave
ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

diathermy is a form of:

A

deep heat that is conversion since the energy is converted within the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are some diathermy effects?

A

high frequency electromagnetic energy 10-100million hz

dense tissue becomes warmer than less dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

diathermy is not used often because:

A

it cannot be precisely controlled or prescribed

61
Q

diathermy must take place on a table free of what material?

A

metal

62
Q

what are the parameters for medical shortwave diathermy?

A

13.56mhz-strong magnetic field

27.12mhz strong electrical field

wavelengths between 3-30m long most commonly 12 meters

63
Q

what are some Types of short wave diathermy?

A

inductor, induction field, induction coil

condenser type

pad electrodes

coil electrodes

continuous vs pulsed shortwave diathermy

64
Q

explain the physiologic effects of short wave diathermy:

A

no contractions

thermal effect causes:

muscle relaxation

vasodilation

increased metabolism

increased enzymatic activity

increased lymph drainage

increased phagocytosis

decreased joint stiffness

vibration releases histamine

65
Q

what are some endocrine changes of short wave diathermy?

A

marked increase in production of blood glucose

increased visceral circulation

influences circulation more than hot pack, infrared, IFC

66
Q

what are some physiologic effects of pulsed short wavediathermy?

A

similar to pulsed ultrasound

repolarized damaged cells and restores sodium pump

pearl chain effect of WBC and RBC line up in a row along vessel walls

67
Q

MSK indications for shortwave or microwave diathermy

A

subacute or chronic phase due to heating element:

sprain/strain

myalgia

osteoarthritis

trigger points

tenosynovitis

68
Q

visceral conditions for short wave diathermy

A

COPD via bloodflow
bronchitis via increased blood flow

PMS via muscle relaxation

cystitis
via increased blood flow

colic via muscle relaxation

constipation

hemorrhoids

69
Q

contraindications of shortwave and microwave diathermy

A

acute inflammation
ANY ACUTE CONDITION

edema
metallic implants
malignancy
open GP
poor blood supply
pregnancy
Contact lenses
IUD
vascular problems

no watches or jewelry bc of heat and magnetic fields

70
Q

what are some treatment set ups with diathermy?

A

lay of towel is used to absorb sweat

no moisture can be in region treated

intensity is set to a comfortable warmth

10 minutes-15min

71
Q

what is microwave diathermy?

A

higher frequency
shorter wavelength and less penetration compared to short wave

“deep heat”

good for low fat or water content areas

72
Q

parameters of microwave diathermy:

A

2.5billion hz

12cm wavelength
superficial penetration

strong magnetic field is absorbed subcutaneously

73
Q

what is magnetron?

A

electrons flow through iron structure on microwave diathermy

depends on velocity and force

74
Q

what is director?

A

small structure focuses the microwave diathermy onto a small area of the body

75
Q

heat of diathermy is ___

A

conversion as it is converted in the body

76
Q

the director of microwave diathermy should be

A

90 degree to the area being treated at all times

77
Q

LASER stands for:

A

light amplification of stimulated emissions of radiation

78
Q

provide visible light characteristics:

A

400-800nm

infrared and microwave are above 800nm

79
Q

UV light has the following wave characteristic:

A

> 400nm with x rays and gamma rays

80
Q

frequency is defined as what?

A

number of wavelengths/cycles per one second

81
Q

how does the energy source of lasers work?

A

stimulates atoms to move to high energy level and creates a population inversion (more excited atoms)

82
Q

lasing medium is responsible for:

A

wavelength and color of the light

may be a solid liquid or gas

83
Q

resonating cavity is defined as:

A

chamber for lasers that is capped with a 100% impermeable mirror and 80-99% impermeable mirror on the other end

light reflects back and forth until is has enough energy to leave the chamber

84
Q

what does the term monochromatic mean?

A

one wavelength

85
Q

what does the term coherent mean?

A

light waves are continuous and unbroken

86
Q

what does the term collimated mean?

A

light runs parrallel and does not diverge

87
Q

how would you describe laser qualities in 3 terms?

A

monochromatic
coherent
collimated

88
Q

longer wavelength lasers are able to:

A

penetrate deeper than shorter ones

89
Q

what are the FDA laser power guidlines?

A

1mw for continuous
.5mw pulsed

90
Q

what are some indications for laser?

A

facilitate wound healing
reduce pain
increase tensile strength of scar tissue
decrease scar tissue
decrease inflammation
increase fx healing

91
Q

what are some contraindications for laser?

A

not over gravid uterus
no over malignancy
not over eyes
not over thyroid

92
Q

what is UVA?

A

long UV wavelength not commonly used and close to visible light

93
Q

what is UVB?

A

medium wavelength

Sunburn

94
Q

what is UVC?

A

short wavelength bactericidal (most common)

95
Q

what are UVA and UVB?

A

near UV

96
Q

UVC is also known as:

A

far UV

97
Q

what are some ultraviolet therapy processes?

A

2-3mm penetration

10% reaches dermis

palms of soles and hands of feed- no UV reaches dermis due to callous

absorption causes leathery skin (epidermal hyperplasia)

98
Q

what are some physiologic effects of UV therapy?

A

erythema
pigmentation UVA/UVB
thickened skin
edema
increase fibroblast activity
increase RBC numbers
stimulates Vit D production

bactericide

99
Q

what is the term photokeratitis?

what does this lead to pathology wise?

A

inflammation of the eye from UV light

conjunctivitis
photophobia
tearing
ocular spasm

100
Q

what are some types of UV lamps?

A

carbon arc
mercury arc (most common)
high pressure type (hot quartz)
fluorescent UV (Blacklight)

101
Q

what are some indications of UV therapy?

A

acne
psoriasis
sinusitis
osteomalacia
sterilization
herpes zoster
folliculitis
septic wounds
pityriasis rosea
pressure sores

102
Q

what are some precautions for UV?

A

cover eyes
fair skin
cannot contact metal
older and younger people with thin skin

103
Q

what are some contraindications of UV?

A

lupus
pregnancy
pellagra
acute exzema
herpes
diabetes
hyperthyroidism
chicken pox
acute psoriasis

104
Q

what is the minimum erythemal dose?

A

exposure time needed to create erythema 24 hours after exposure

treatment should never exceed 10x MED

105
Q

what are physiological reasons to utilize traction?

A

seperates joint surfaces
promotes gliding of joints
decrease spasm
decrease congestion
stretches adhesions

106
Q

wha tare some contraindications for traction?

A

acute trauma
cancer
cardiovascular disorders
joint instability
uncontrolled HTN
osteoporosis
pregnancy

107
Q

____ must be done with traction

A

tolerance testing must be done before treatment begins

108
Q

vibration therapy is ____ and _____

A

stimulative <3min
sedative >3min

109
Q

what are some indications for vibration therapy?

A

adhesions
trigger points
congestion
joint swelling
circulatory stasis

110
Q

what are some contraindications for vibration therapy?

A

acute inflammation
heart disease
hyper anxiety states
damaged organs
over eyes
thrombophlebitis

111
Q

What are the three Stages of healing?

A

Inflammatory response
Fibroblastic repair (subacute)
Maturation-remodeling (chronic)

112
Q

Explain the Inflammatory response stage

A

2-4 days after injury
Leukotaxin increases leukocytes along cell walls
Necrosin cleans area with phagocytosis

113
Q

Explain the Fibroblastic Repair Phase

A

Begins 4 days after injury
Lasts up to 10 days
Granulation tissue infiltrates
6-7 days after injury fibroblasts lay down collagen haphazardly

114
Q

Explain the Maturation-Remodeling Phase

A

Begins around day 7 and lasts for years
Haphazard collagen is realigned along movement patterns
Parallel to tensile forces

115
Q

pain can outlive its purpose, when it does so, it is a _____ ______ in itself

A

Diseased state

116
Q

sensory receptors

meissners-
pacinian-
merkels-
ruffini-
krauses-
free nerve-

A

meissners- light touch
pacinian- deep (fast)
merkels-deep pressure (slow)
ruffini- touch/tension, joint position
krauses- thermo
free nerve- chemical, thermal noxious stimulus

117
Q

specific theory of pain is an indicator of what?

A

specific nerve fibers and endings carry noxious stimuli to the brain with ascending pathways
pathway determines nature of stimulus

118
Q

Explain the summation pain theory

A

excessive stimulation of nerve fibers results in transmission of noxious stimulus
no anatomical basis for this theory

119
Q

What is the pattern theory?

A

stimulus must match a certain pattern to be transmitted as pain or other sensations
stimulus must come in abnormal matter

120
Q

What is the sensory interaction theory?

A

specialized system exists to control sensory input from large and small afferent fibers
summation is prevented from occuring

121
Q

LIST all pain theories:

A

specific theory
summation theory
pattern theory
sensory theory
likely a combination of all to form pain pathways

122
Q

What are 4 main causes of pain?

A

external causes (skin)
internal causes (no skin)
lesions of CNS (skin is involved)
non-physiological

123
Q

What will 80pps/hz cause?

A

enkephalins to be released for short period of time
natural painkiller

124
Q

What will 10pps/hz cause?

A

endorphins to be released
natural painkiller that lasts much longer than enkephalins

125
Q

What is a rheobase?

A

minimal intensity needed to cause contraction

126
Q

What is chronaxie?

A

minimum time it takes to cause contraction at 2x rheobase

127
Q

What is the definition:
“decrease in sensitivity to and area that is exposed to prolonged stimulation or the same frequency”

A

wedensky inhibition

128
Q

Describe ohms law:

A

amps (current) is directly proportional to the voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance
amps=volts/resistance
increase intensity and resistance will be lessened

129
Q

What is the cosine law?

A

as the source of the energy moves away from the perpendicular its intensity lessens and absorption lessons cosine of 90degree

130
Q

What is the inverse square law?

A

intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from its source

131
Q

a ____ frequency is formed due to the interactions of 2 frequencies:

A

beat frequency

132
Q

cold pack procedure

A

1 towel layer
5 minutes and 60 minutes in between treatments
1/2 inch penetration
conduction heat transfer

133
Q

superficial heat application

A

10-20min (15min)
check every 5 min
conduction heat
1/4-1/2 inch penetration
6-8 towel layers

134
Q

paraffin bath procedure

A

20-30 min
conduction heat
1/4 inch penetration
6-10 dips

135
Q

fluidotherapy procedure

A

cellulose particles
convection
110-125f
15-20 min
1/4 inch

136
Q

russian or biphasic for edema

A

moderate muscle contraction
10/10 cycle
15 min
20-50hz
normal one channel
1.5-2 ramp

137
Q

biphasic acute

A

15 min
80-150
mild sensory stim
normal, continuous

138
Q

biphasic chronic

A

15 min
1-10hz
normal continuous
strong sensory stim

139
Q

biphasic spasm

A

15 min
80-150hz
mild motor stim
normal, continuous

140
Q

russian for muscle strengthening

A

(only one that can be done for strengthening)
35-50hz
30+ min
10/30(rehab)
10/50 for health people
strong motor stim
normal 1 channel
2 channels co-contract or reciprocal

141
Q

IFC acute

A

80-150hz (high)
mild sensory stim
target/sweep
15 min

142
Q

IFC chronic

A

15 min
1-10hz
strong sensory stim
target/sweep (2 channels)

143
Q

pre-mod acute

A

15 min
high 80-150hz
1 channel
mild sensory stim

144
Q

pre-mod chronic

A

15 min
low 1-10hz
1 channel
strong sensory stim

145
Q

Dynatron microcurrent pads

A

20-30 min
.3hz frequency
50microamps intensity
should not feel it

146
Q

dynatron microcurrent probes

A

.5hz-10hz
350-550ua
4-6 spots circle the dragon protocol (10 sec at each spot)

147
Q

alphastim microcurrent probes

A

.5hz
350-550ua
4-6 spots at 10 seconds (circle the dragon)

148
Q

positive polarity is used to treat ____ while negative treats _____

A

acute problems

chronic problems

149
Q

alphastim transcranial

A

30+ min to 2 hrs
350-550ua
.5hz
clip to earlobes

Passive Care (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions