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Physiological Psychology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is a tumor?

A

A mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and serves no useful function

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2
Q

What are the two forms of tumors?

A

Malignant (cancerous)
Benign

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3
Q

How do tumors damage brain tissue?

A

Compression
Infiltration
Malignant can compress and infiltrate
Benign tend to only compress

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4
Q

Where does a primary brain tumor take place?

A

Starts in the CNS

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5
Q

Where does a secondary brain tumor take place?

A

Metastasize to brain

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6
Q

What does metastasize mean?

A

Spreads to other sites

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7
Q

Where do most brain tumor metastasize from?

A

Lung and breast cancer

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8
Q

What is Grade 1 CNS Tumor?

A

Low proliferative potential
Possibility of cure after surgical resection

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9
Q

What is a Grade 4 CNS tumor?

A

Histologically malignant
Prone to necrosis
Rapid preoperative and postoperative disease progression and fatal outcomes

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10
Q

What are three types of brain tumors?

A

Gliomas
Astrocytoma
Meningioma

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11
Q

What is a gliomas?

A

Most common primary brain tumor type
Tumor of the glial cells (astrocyte, oligodendrocytes, etc.)

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12
Q

What is a astrocytoma?

A

Tumor of the astrocytes

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13
Q

What is Grade 4 astrocytoma called? How long is survival rate?

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme
Approx. 2 years

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14
Q

What is a meningioma?

A

Tumor of the meninges, usually benign and slow growing

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15
Q

What are the three types of treatments for brain tumors?

A

Surgical resection
Radiation
Chemotherapy

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16
Q

What is a seizure?

A

A period of sudden, excessive activity of cerebral neurons

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17
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Chronic diagnosis of recurrent seizures

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18
Q

What is partial/focal type of seizure?

A

Hits one area of the brain

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19
Q

What is simple partial seizure?

A

No major change to consciousness

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20
Q

What is a complex partial seizure?

A

Causes a loss of consciousness

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21
Q

What is a generalized type seizure?

A

Hits multiple areas of the brain

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22
Q

What are the three types of generalized type seizures ?

A

Tonic-clonic (aka Grand-mal)
Absence (aka Petit-mal)
Atonic

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23
Q

What is a tonic-clonic (Grand-max) seizure?

A

Most common form of seizure
Includes convulsions (violent uncontrollable muscle movement)

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24
Q

What the 4 stages of a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Aura stage
Tonic stage
Clonic stage
Postical stage

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25
Q

What happens during a tonic stage?

A

The body is stiff and back is arched

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26
Q

What happens during a clonic stage?

A

Jerking movements or twitching

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27
Q

What makes up an ictal stage?

A

Tonic stage + Clonic stage

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28
Q

What is an absence (petit-mal stage)? How long does it last?

A

Sudden lapse in consciousness
15 seconds

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29
Q

What symptoms occur during a absence seizure?

A

Staring blankly into space
Eyelid fluttering
Lip smacking
Involuntary hand movement

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30
Q

What is an atonic seizure?

A

Drop seizure

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31
Q

What is a common symptom of a atonic seizure?

A

Sudden loss of muscle control
Slump or fall forward

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32
Q

How is atonic seizure different from cataplexy in narcolepsy?

A

Atonic seizures have a loss in consciousness

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33
Q

What are some challenges people with seizures face?

A

Damage to the hippocampus
Falling
Drowning
Car accidents
Pregnancy complications

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34
Q

What is prion disease?

A

Occurs when protein found throughout the body begins to fold into an abnormal three dimensional shape

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35
Q

What are transmissible spongiform encephalopathies?

A

A type of Prion disease

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36
Q

What are the two types of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (aka Mad Cow disease)
Kuru Disease

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37
Q

What were the symptoms of mad cow disease?

A

Mental deterioration
Dementia

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38
Q

What were the symptoms of kuru disease

A

Laughing
Total loss of muscle control
Inability to eat

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39
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

A deficiency of automatic, habitual motor responses

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40
Q

What percent of Parkinson’s disease is sporadic?

A

95%

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41
Q

What are symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dystonia (rigidity)
Bradykinesia (slow movements)
Falling
Shuffling gait
Face masking (lack of facial expression)
Tremors

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42
Q

How do you test dystonia (rigidity)?

A

Cog wheel test

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43
Q

How do you test for tremors?

A

Rolling a pill in between fingers

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44
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

Inherited disease resulting in degeneration of thee basal ganglia

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45
Q

What are symptoms of Huntington’s disease?

A

Chorea (involuntary jerking movements)
Dystonia (rigidity)
Slurred speech and swallowing difficulties

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46
Q

What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

A disorder that attacks spinal cord and cranial nerve motor neuron
Brain and muscle connection loss

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47
Q

How much of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is sporadic?

A

90%

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48
Q

What are symptoms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

Progressive weakness and muscular atrophy
Eye movement spared
Respiratory failure which leads to death

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49
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

An autoimmune demyelinating disease

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50
Q

What are sclerotic plaques?

A

Hard patches of debris left behind when the immune system attacks myelin sheaths

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51
Q

What are some risk factors for multiple sclerosis?

A

Higher in females
Living far the equator
Black or white race
Smoking

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52
Q

What are some symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A

Fatigue
Vision problems
Bladder/bowel dysfunction
Spasms
Slowed processing speeds

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53
Q

How do supplement companies exploit slowed processing speed in multiple sclerosis?

A

Symptoms seem to drop when they take supplements but there periods of time during Progressive Relapsing Multiple Sclerosis where there is less symptoms, but then the symptoms come back. So patients think the supplements are working but they may not

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54
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meningies caused by viruses or bacteria

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55
Q

What are common symptoms of meningitis?

A

Stiff neck
Headache
AMS

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56
Q

What is brudzinski’s sign?

A

Flexion of the hips and knees in response to neck flexion

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57
Q

What is kerning’s sign?

A

Resistance to extension of the leg while the hip is flexed

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58
Q

What percent of people that have dementia have Alzheimer’s?

A

60-80%

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59
Q

What is Alzheimer’s?

A

Most common form of dementia
An abnormal shrinkage of the brain that affects every brain function

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60
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A

Stroke or vascular accidents cause brain damage and tissue loss

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61
Q

What is lacunar infarcts?

A

Mini strokes that cause microvascular changes and over time prompt dementia symptoms

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62
Q

What impairments do vascular dementia test look for?

A

Semantic memory
Visuo-spatial/Perceptual skills
Slow processing speed
With cuing/recognition can recall information

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63
Q

What impairments do Alzheimer’s Dementia test look for?

A

Episodic memory
Language
Cuing/recognition does not help

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64
Q

What is akathisia?

A

Subjective unpleasant feeling of restlessness

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65
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Symptoms irreversible but Vitamin E can prevent further deterioration

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66
Q

What percent of resting oxygen does the brain use?

A

20%

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67
Q

What percent of glucose metabolism does the brain use?

A

60%

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68
Q

What percent of energy goes to maintaining neurons and glial cells?

A

25%

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69
Q

What percent of energy goes to electrical signaling across the brain’s circuit?

A

75%

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70
Q

What is the neural tube?

A

Serves as the embryonic brain and spinal cord
Divides to form basic brain regions

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71
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Planned and purposeful neuronal cell death

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72
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Unplanned and uncontrolled cell death

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73
Q

Is schizophrenia correlated with increased or decreased synapse?

A

Decreased

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74
Q

Is autism correlated with increased or decreased synapse?

A

Increased

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75
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

Executive functioning (emotional regulation, planning and reasoning )
Personality

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76
Q

What is the function of prefrontal cortex?

A

Planning
Storage

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77
Q

What is the function of the ventromedial PFC?

A

Empathy
Guilt

78
Q

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

A

Integrating sensory information (touch, temperature, pressure, and pain

79
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A

Processing sensory information which is important for hearing,, recognizing language, and forming memories

80
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

A

Visual processing

81
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex found?

A

Temporal lobe

82
Q

Where is the primary visual cortex found?

A

Occipital lobe

83
Q

What is function of the basal ganglia?

A

Controls motor control

84
Q

What happens when there is suppression of motor function in the basal ganglia?

A

There is a decrease in ability to carry out purposeful movement

85
Q

What does ADME stand for when thinking of pharm-kinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

86
Q

How many liters of blood is pumped every minute?

A

5L

87
Q

What is the fastest administration method?

A

Intravenous (IV)

88
Q

Where is a intravenous administration method located? How long does it take?

A

Into a vien
30-60 seconds

89
Q

Where is a intraperitonal administration method located?

A

Tube going into the stomach

90
Q

Where is a intramuscular administration method located?

A

Directly into a muscle

91
Q

Where is a subcutaneous administration method located?

A

Into fat

92
Q

Where is a intracerebral administration method located?

A

Into the brain

93
Q

Where is a intracerebroventricular administration method located?

A

Into the CSF

94
Q

What is a sublingual administration?

A

Under the tongue

95
Q

Where is a intrarectal administration method located?

A

Into the rectum

96
Q

How does the inhalation administration work?

A

Through the lungs

97
Q

How does the insufflation administration work?

A

The mucus membrane of the nasal passages

98
Q

What is the equation for Therapeutic Index?

A

ED50 + TD50

99
Q

Is a Therapeutic Index most dangerous when it is high or low?

A

Lower

100
Q

What is the ideal Therapeutic Index?

A

Greater than 10

101
Q

What is a therapeutic index?

A

A quantitative measurement of the relative safety of a drug

102
Q

What is a agonist?

A

A molecule that stimulate/activiates a response when it binds to a receptor
Increases postsynaptic effects

103
Q

What is a antagonist?

A

A molecule that blocks or inhibits a response when it binds to a receptor
Lowers postsynaptic effects

104
Q

What is the mesolimbic dopamine pathway?

A

Route between VTA, Nucleus accumbent, and limbic system (hippocampus and amygdala)

105
Q

What does the mesolimbic dopamine pathway play a role in?

A

Pleasure and Reward
Substance Use

106
Q

What is the mesocortical dopamine pathway?

A

Route between VTA/Nucleus accumbent and PFC

106
Q

What is the mesocortical dopamine pathway?

A

Route between VTA/Nucleus accumbent and PFC

107
Q

What is the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

A

Hormone released when experiencing stress

108
Q

How does stress impact the brain?

A

Strengthens the amygdala
Weakens the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex

109
Q

How many drinks meets the CDC drinking guidelines for moderate drinking in women and men?

A

Women = 1 drink per day
Men = 2 drinks per day

110
Q

How many drinks meets the CDC drinking guidelines for heavy drinking in women and men?

A

Women = 8 or more drinks per week
Men = 15 or more per week

111
Q

How many drinks meets the CDC drinking guidelines for moderate drinking in women and men?

A

Women = 4 or more within 2-3 hours
Men = 5 or more within 2-3 hours

112
Q

What are some risk factors for stimulants?

A

Reduced seizure threshold
Higher blood pressure, heat rate, and hypertension which leads to higher risk of stroke and MI
Poor appetite
Mood sings

113
Q

What is the endocannabinoid system?

A

Vast network of chemical signals and cellular receipts that are densely packed throughout our brains and bodies

114
Q

What is phytocannabinoid?

A

A biologically active compound found in cannabis

115
Q

How is cannabis absorbed?

A

Inhalation
Oral

116
Q

How is cannabis distributed?

A

Distributes rapidly to well-vascularized organs
Builds up in adipose tissue

117
Q

How does cannabis metabolize?

A

Through the liver
Cross the placenta; released in breast milk
Urine, feces, and sweat

118
Q

What is glucose?

A

Primary source fuel for the brain

119
Q

What happens to mesolimbic activation with increased likes and retweets on scoaif media addiction?

A

Increases

120
Q

Increased use of social media is associated with what disorders?

A

SUD
ADHD
Depression
Anxiety

121
Q

What is ventromedial prefrontal cortex?

A

Interface between emotional responses and control of complex behaviors

122
Q

What happens to the VMPFC with courage?

A

Increase in activation

123
Q

What happens to the VMPC in impulsive/emotional murders?

A

Decrease in activation

124
Q

What happens when romantic partners see photos of their partners?

A

Increase in caudate nucleus (processes visual information and controls movement)
Increase in ventral segmental area (mediates reward system)

125
Q

What hormones are released during love and brain?

A

Increase in cortisol and adrenalin

126
Q

How long does each sleep cycle last

A

90 minutes

127
Q

What happens when daylight savings occurs?

A

Increase in heart attacks
Increase in mood disturbances and suicide

128
Q

What are the effects of sleep deprivation in rats ?

A

Damage to portions of the thalamus (information relay station)

129
Q

What happens during sleep deprivation?

A

Decrease in glycogen stores and increase in adenosine = sleepiness

130
Q

What is melatonin?

A

Produced by the pineal gland in response to evening/darkness about 2 hours before normal sleep

131
Q

Where does melatonin come from?

A

Serotonin is converted into melatonin

132
Q

How much exogenous melatonin should be taken and how early before bedtime?

A

1-2 mg
30 minutes - 1 hour

133
Q

What percent of adults experience insomnia?

A

30%

134
Q

What is primary insomnia?

A

Difficulty falling asleep after going to bed or after awakening during the night

135
Q

What is secondary insomnia?

A

Inability to sleep due to another mental or physical condition

136
Q

What can chronic use of sleep-promoting drugs cause?

A

Rebound insomnia

137
Q

What is orexin-related neurological d/o?

A

85% orexin-producing neurons
REM-related symptoms occur inappropriately

138
Q

What are sleep attacks?

A

Overwhelming urge to sleep
Last 2-5 minutes

139
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

Sudden muscle weakness/paralysis

140
Q

What is sleep paralysis?

A

Inability to move before onset of sleep or waking

141
Q

What is REM sleep behavior d/o?

A

Lack muscle paralysis during REM –> act out dreams
Comorbid w/ narcolepsy

142
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

Difficulty sleeping and breathing at the same time
Wake up gasping for air and decreased slow wave activity

143
Q

What does the Broca’s area involve?

A

Motor
Frontal Lobe
Broken Words

144
Q

What does the Wernicke’s area involve?

A

Sensory
Temporal Lobe
Word Salad

145
Q

What is learning?

A

Acquisition of new information

146
Q

What are the 3 stages of learning?

A

Stage 1: Sensory Information
Stage 2: Short-Term Memory
Stage 3: Long Term Memory

147
Q

What happens in Stage 1: Sensory Information?

A

Information is processed through our senses

148
Q

What happens in Stage 2: Short Term Memory?

A

Meaningful and salient information is processed

149
Q

What happens in Stage 3: Long Term Memory

A

Short memories are converted in to long term memory (made solid)

150
Q

What is observation learning/social learning theory?

A

Process of learning by watching the behaviors of models

151
Q

How does observational learning take place?

A

Occurs via operant conditioning and vicarious conditioning

152
Q

What is vicarious conditioning?

A

Learning more by watching other people learn

153
Q

What is an example of vicarious conditioning?

A

Watching your sister put on lipstick but seeing your mom yell at your sister for putting it on so you learn not to put it on

154
Q

What is Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA) Stroke?

A

Stroke in the largest brain arteries
90% of strokes

155
Q

What are some symptoms of a MCA Stroke?

A

Contralateral weakness and sensory loss in upper extremities
Loss of visual of field

156
Q

What kind of symptoms are associated with a Left MCA Stroke?

A

Speech deficits (Broca’s and Wernicke’s)

157
Q

What kind of symptoms are associated with a Right MCA Stroke?

A

Neglect and Poor Motivation

158
Q

What is Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA) Stroke?

A

Stroke in arteries that supply the frontal, parietal, corpus callous and bottom of the cerebrum

159
Q

What type of ACA Stroke is more common?

A

Left sided ACA stroke

160
Q

What are symptoms of ACA Stroke?

A

Contralateral motor and sensory loss in lower extremities
Poor gait and coordination
Slowed initiation
Flat affect
Urinary Incontinence

161
Q

What is a key form of treatment for post-stroke depression?

A

Early psychopharmacological treatment

162
Q

What does BE FAST stand for when it comes to strokes?

A

Balance
Eyes
Face
Arms
Speech
Time

163
Q

What is a Tissue Plasminogen (tPA)?

A

Helps restore blood flow to brain regions affected by stroke

164
Q

What happens if someone is not administered tPA?

A

Hemorrhagic effects take place

165
Q

More melanin in you skins leads to what?

A

Harder to synthesize Vitamin D

166
Q

What happens with magnesium deficiency?

A

W/ stress it can increase agitation, anxiety, and sleeplessness
Increase restless leg syndrome

167
Q

What is anorexia associated with?

A

Loss of gray and white matter in the brain
Enlarged ventricle
Inhibited facial expression

168
Q

What is alpha diversity?

A

How many species are present and how diverse are they

169
Q

What is beta diversity?

A

Comparing two different samples of species in two different people

170
Q

What is a possible explanation for an increase in chronic inflammatory disorders in high income countries?

A

Reduced exposure to the microbial environment

171
Q

What is happening when there is loss of consciousness in SAH?

A

The percussive blood pressure increases intracranial pressure and therefore cerebral perfusion pressure

172
Q

What are the symptoms of a Hunt and Hess Grade 1 stroke?

A

Asymptomatic
Minimal headache

173
Q

What are the symptoms of a Hunt and Hess Grade 5 stroke?

A

Deep coma (most important)
Decerebrate rigidity
Moribund appearance

174
Q

What is hemiplegia?

A

Paralysis affecting one side of the body

175
Q

What is hemiparesis?

A

A lesser degree of weakness than hemiplegia

176
Q

What is neglect?

A

Failure to attend to, respond to, and or report stimulation that is introduced contralateral to the lesion

177
Q

What is neglect?

A

Failure to attend to, respond to, and or report stimulation that is introduced contralateral to the lesion

178
Q

What is agnosia?

A

Acquired inability to associate a perceived unimodal stimulus with meaning

A disorder of recognition (can not name the thing)

179
Q

What is anosagnosia?

A

Denial of a deficit

180
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Impaired ability to recognize faces

181
Q

What isa closed brain injury?

A

Non-penetrating injury to the brain with no break in the skull

182
Q

How may a closed brain injury result?

A

Rapid forward and backward movement of the brain and skull

183
Q

Where does a countercoup brain injury take place?

A

Opposite side of impact

184
Q

At what rate do TBIs occur in males and females and at what age is it the highest?

A

Males = 400,000 (15-24 years old)
Females = 80,000 (15-24 years old)

185
Q

What is a diffuse axonal injury?

A

Axons in the white matter have been twisted, sheered, and ripped

186
Q

What is the recovery process of CTE?

A

ASK JAHNIA TO PUT ON BOARD

187
Q

How is a mild TBI classified?

A

Duration of unconsciousness = < 30 minutes
Glasgow Coma Scale Score = 13 - 15
Post Traumatic Amnesia = <24 hours

188
Q

How is a moderate TBI classified?

A

Unconsciousness = 30 minutes - 24 hours
Glasgow = 9-12
Amnesia = 1-7 days

189
Q

How is severe TBI classified?

A

Unconsciousness = >24 hours
Glasgow = 3-8
Amnesia = >7 days

190
Q

What three categories does the Glasgow scale measure?

A

Eye opening
Motor response
Verbal response

191
Q

What are some non-injury risk factors. that influence TBI outcomes?

A

Pre-injury psychiatric status (anxiety/depression)
Conduct issues/incarceration
Age at injury
Level of education
Marital staus (perceived social support)

Physiological Psychology (3 decks)

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