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Urinalysis > Final :D > Flashcards

Final :D Flashcards

1
Q

Centrifuging an uncapped tube of urin is most likely to produce what?

A

Aerosal

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2
Q

Average daily amount of urine produced by a normal adult is?

A

1200 mL

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3
Q

Oliguria

A

Decrease in urine

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4
Q

Anuria

A

Absence of urine

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5
Q

Nocturia

A

Increase in night time urine

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6
Q

Polyuria

A

Increase in day time urine

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7
Q

True or False : Urine specimens should be tested within 2 hours of collection if left at room temp.

A

True

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8
Q

True or False: Kidneys form urine as an ultrafiltrate of plasma.

A

True

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9
Q

Four routine screening and bacteria cultures, the best type of specimen collection is?

A

Midstream clean-catch

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10
Q

The most sterile specimen collection method is

A

Suprapubic aspiration

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11
Q

The approximate number of nephrons contained in each kidney is

A

1,000,000

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12
Q

Order of blood flow through a nephron is?

A

Afferent arteriole, efferent article, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta

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13
Q

Total renal blood flow

A

1200 mL/min

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14
Q

Total renal plasma flow

A

600 mL/min

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15
Q

Increased production of aldosterone causes

A

Increased plasma sodium levels

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16
Q

For active transport to occur a substance must..

A

Combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy

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17
Q

Results for glomerular filtration tests are reported in…

A

milliliters per minute

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18
Q

True or False. Juxtamedullary nephrons primary function is the concentration of urine.

A

True

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19
Q

True or False. Nephron is the non-functional unit of the kidney.

A

False

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20
Q

True or False. 65% of nephrons are in the kidneys cortex.

A

False

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21
Q

The pigment causing the yellow color of urine that can provide an estimate of body hydration is?

A

Urochrome

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22
Q

The reason a urine is amber and produces a yellow foam when shaken is due to the presence of?

A

Bilirubin

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of a red urine?

A

Red blood cells

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24
Q

A reason for blue/green urine is?

A

Pseudomonas infection

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25
Q

Clear

A

No visible particles

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26
Q

Hazy

A

Few particulates

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27
Q

Cloudy

A

Many particulates

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28
Q

Turbid

A

Cannot see through

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29
Q

Milky

A

Clotted

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30
Q

Normal range for specific gravity

A

1.003 - 1.035

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31
Q

A refractometer can be used to determine a urines specific gravity by?

A

Measuring the velocity of light in air versus velocity of light in a solution

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32
Q

What is used as the calibration liquid on a refractometer?

A

Distilled water

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33
Q

Specific gravity depends on the number of particles present in a solution and the density of these particles, where osmolality is affected by?

A

Only the number of particles present

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34
Q

Osmolality of a solution can be determined by measuring a property that is mathematically related to the number of particles in the solution, this is known as the?

A

Colligative property

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35
Q

Ammonia-like urine smell

A

Bacterial composition, UTI

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36
Q

Fruity, sweet urine smell

A

Ketones

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37
Q

Maple syrup smell in urine

A

Maple syrup disease

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38
Q

Mousy urine smell

A

Phenylketonuria

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39
Q

Bleach urine smell

A

Contamination

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40
Q

Bence jones protein are seen in urines of patients with?

A

Multiple myeloma

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41
Q

Prerenal proteinuria

A

Conditions affecting the plasma, not the kidney

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42
Q

Renal proteinuria

A

Glomerular or tubular damage

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43
Q

Orthostatic proteinuria

A

Increased pressure on the renal vein when in the vertical position

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44
Q

Tubular proteinuria

A

Tubular damage affecting reabsorptive ability

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45
Q

Postrenal proteinuria

A

Protein added in lower urinary and genitourinary tract

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46
Q

What test is for pH on reagent strip

A

Double-indicator system reaction (methyl red; bromthymol blue)

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47
Q

Glucose test on reagent strip

A

Glucose oxidase reaction

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48
Q

Ketone test on reagent strip

A

Sodium nitroprusside

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49
Q

Blood test on reagent strip

A

Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

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50
Q

Bilirubin test on reagent strip

A

Diazo reaction

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51
Q

Nitrite test on reagent strip

A

Greiss reaction

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52
Q

What reagent strip reaction requires the longest reaction time prior to interpreting the results?

A

Leukocyte esterase

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53
Q

Urine protein additional/confirmatory test

A

Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) precipitation

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54
Q

Urine glucose additional/confirmation test

A

Copper reduction test (clinitest)

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55
Q

Ketone additional/confirmation test

A

Acetest

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56
Q

Bilirubin additional/confirmation test

A

Icotest

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57
Q

Bilirubin results in bile duct obstruction

A

Increased bilirubin with normal urobilinogen

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58
Q

Bilirubin result in liver damage

A

Negative or low bilirubin; increased urobilinogen

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59
Q

Bilirubin result in hemolytic disease

A

Negative bilirubin; increased urobilinogen

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60
Q

The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of urine sediment is?

A

400 RCF for 5 minutes

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61
Q

A lipid droplet that doesn’t stain with Sudan III may be composed of?

A

Cholesterol

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62
Q

A urine specimen is referred to cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the presence of?

A

Malignant cells

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63
Q

To standardize the sediment concentration for microscopic analysis one must:

A

Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a single commercial system

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64
Q

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to:

A

Detect the presence of casts

65
Q

Using polarized microscopy, which of the following is/are birefringent?

A

Cholesterol

66
Q

ID of oval fat bodies can be verified using?

A

Polarized light

67
Q

To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using

A

Reduced light under low power

68
Q

Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of?

A

Neutrophil

69
Q

An increase in urinary WBCs is called?

A

Pyelonephritis

70
Q

Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of?

A

Bacteria

71
Q

Eosinophils are found in urine in cases of?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

72
Q

Oval fat bodies are

A

Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids

73
Q

Clue cells are derived from

A

squamous epithelial cells

74
Q

The organisms attached to a clue cell are

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

75
Q

Transitional cells routinely occur in what three shapes

A

Spherical, polyhedral, and caudate

76
Q

Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of renal tubular necrosis?

A

Renal tubular cells

77
Q

Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by

A

Squamous epithelial cells

78
Q

Spherical transitional epithelial cells can be differentiated from renal tubular epithelial cells by observing the:

A

Centrally located nucleus in transitional cells

79
Q

The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is

A

Urinary stasis

80
Q

The major constituent of urinary casts is

A

uromodulin protein

81
Q

Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are

A

WBC casts

82
Q

The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the

A

RTE cell cast

83
Q

The only type of cast capable of polarization is the

A

Fatty cast

84
Q

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of?

A

Recent strenuous exercise

85
Q

Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment

A

In patients with renal failure

86
Q

To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical lab scientist should

A

Look carefully for a cast matrix

87
Q

ID of urinary crystals is based on shape, solubility, and ?

A

Urine pH

88
Q

Nonpathogenic or “normal” crystals found in acidic urine include:

A

Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates

89
Q

What crystals occur in two very distinct forms?

A

Calcium oxalate

90
Q

Nonpathogenic or “normal” crystals found in alkaline urine include:

A

Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, and ammonium biurate

91
Q

Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include?

A

Leucine or tyrosine

92
Q

What crystal is associated with ethylene glycol ingestion?

A

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

93
Q

The significance of seeing bacteria in the urine sediment is increased when

A

WBCs are present

94
Q

Motility by what is the most noticeable during the urine sediment examination

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

95
Q

Stains oval fat bodies?

A

Sudan III

96
Q

What does ammonia biurate look like

A

Thorny apple

97
Q

What does calcium carbonate look like

A

Dumbell

98
Q

What does triple phosphate look like

A

Coffin lid

99
Q

What does cystine look like

A

Hexagonal

100
Q

What does cholesterol look like

A

Notched corners

101
Q

Most glomerular disorders are caused by

A

immunologic disorders

102
Q

Occasional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over periods of 20 or more years are seen with

A

IgA nephropathy

103
Q

An inherited disorder producing a generalized defect in tubular reabsorption is

A

Fanconi syndrome

104
Q

A teenage boy who develops gout in his big toe and has a high serum uric acid should be monitored for

A

Uromodulin-assoicated kidney disease

105
Q

The only protein produced by the kidney is

A

Uromodulin

106
Q

Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of

A

WBC casts

107
Q

End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following except

A

Hypersthenuria

108
Q

The most common composition of renal calculi is

A

calcium oxalate

109
Q

All states require newborn testing for PKU for early

A

modifications of diet

110
Q

The best specimen for early newborn screening is a

A

Blood specimen

111
Q

An overflow disorder that could produce a false-positive reaction with clinitest procedure is

A

Alkaptonuria

112
Q

Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with the metabolism of

A

Tryptophan

113
Q

Blue diaper syndrome is associated with

A

Hartnup disease

114
Q

The classic urine color associated with porphyria is

A

Port wine

115
Q

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting the metabolism of

A

Mucopolysaccharides

116
Q

Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen may indicate

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

117
Q

CSF is formed in the _______ and reabsorbed by the?

A

Choroid plexus and arachnoid granulations

118
Q

CSF flows through the ________ space.

A

Subarachnoid

119
Q

Order of CSF tubes are collected

A

Chemistry, Microbiology, Hematology

120
Q

What type of centrifuge process is used on CSF specimens for differential counts and gram stains

A

Cytocentrifuge

121
Q

What can be added in the well of the cytocentrifuge device with the CSF to increase the cell yield and decrease cellular distortion

A

Albumin

122
Q

What is normal adult ratio for lymphs and monos in CSF fluid

A

70:30

123
Q

Increased amounts of normal cells in CSF is termed

A

Pleocytosis

124
Q

What type of cells are seen in CSF that have a major clinical significance of Multiple Sclerosis

A

Plasma cells

125
Q

What is the most common chemistry test ran on CSF

A

Protein

126
Q

What type of protein is measured to monitor the course and effectiveness of treatment of multiple sclerosis

A

Myelin Basic

127
Q

Reference values for CSF glucose are approximately what percentage of plasma glucose

A

60-70 %

128
Q

CSF glucose values are of most significance when

A

They are decreased relative to plasma values

129
Q

The needle aspiration of synovial fluid is called

A

Arthrocentesis

130
Q

CLear/pale yellow synovial fluid is

A

Normal

131
Q

Deep/dark yellow synovial fluid is

A

Noninflammatory and flammatory

132
Q

Green tinged synovial fluid

A

Infection

133
Q

Red synovial fluids

A

Hemorrhagic or traumatic tap

134
Q

Milk synovial fluid is

A

Crystal induced

135
Q

Turbid synovial fluid is

A

WBCS or cellular debris

136
Q

Most frequent chemistry test ran on synovial fluid is

A

Glucose

137
Q

The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is termed a/an

A

effusion

138
Q

What is most often associated with the formation of a transudate

A

Congestive heart failure

139
Q

The function of serous fluid is to

A

Provide lubrication for serous membranes

140
Q

Peritoneal lavage is performed to

A

Detect intra-abdominal bleeding

141
Q

A pleural fluid is received in the lab, its appearance is milky. The milky appearance could be due to which of the following conditions

A

Thoracic duct leakage

142
Q

A pericardial fluid is received in the lab, its appearance is blood streaked, This is likely due to?

A

Infection, malignancy

143
Q

Semen analysis on post vasectomy patients should be performed

A

Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm

144
Q

Absence of normal sperm acrosome can

A

Affect ovum penetration

145
Q

Yellow color in a semen specimen may be caused by

A

Urine, medications, and prolonged abstinence

146
Q

Development of male antiserum antibodies can be caused by

A

Vasevasostomy, infection, trauma

147
Q

Abnormal sperm tail morphology includes

A

double tails, bent tails, coiled tails

148
Q

Polyhydramnios

A

Fluid levels >1200 mL

149
Q

Oligohydramnios

A

Fluid level <800 mL

150
Q

The sloughed fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid is used for

A

Cytogenetic analysis

151
Q

Zone I

A

Miley affected fetus

152
Q

Zone II

A

Requires careful monitoring

153
Q

Zone III

A

Severely affected fetus

154
Q

Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of

A

Fat

155
Q

A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of

A

Upper GI bleeding

156
Q

The purpose of Lactoferrin Latex Agglutination test is to detect the presence of

A

Hemoglobin from RBCs

157
Q

The purpose of the Occult Blood test is to detect the presence of

A

RBCs not visible in specimen

158
Q

A flintiest may be performed on an infants fecal sample to determine

A

Carbohydrates cause and bacterial/viral caused diarrhea

Urinalysis (4 decks)

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