Final: all old exam questions Flashcards
what is the mordant used in gram stain
crystal violet
safranin
ethanol
congo red
none
none
what method would you use to find the number of viable bacteria in a liquid culture
streak plating
gram stain
dilution
pipetting
none
dilution
which predates the germ theory
jenners vaccine
ID of cause of mad cow disease
semmelweis childbed fever
ID of HIV and AIDS
all
jenner
which is only found in gram positive bacteria
pentaglycine crosslinkers
peptidoglycan
chitin
braums lipoprotein
none
pentaglycine crosslinkers
when is myxobacterial fruiting bodies formed
attacking prey
anaerobic
N2 rich environment
starving
none
starving
which is present in all bacteria
pili
fimbriae
flagella
LPS
none
non
what disease can be prevented by water purification
HIV
malaria
tuberculosis
all
none
none
what agent is responsible for malaria
DNA virus
helminth
fungus
protozoan
none
protozoan
which has LPS in its outer membrane
plasmodium falciparum
staphylococcus aureus
clostridium tetani
pseudomonas aeruginosa
all
pseudomonas aeruginosa`
peptidoglycan of G- bacteria caintains what diamino acid
meso-diaminopimelic acid
dilysine
diadenine
D-alanine-D-alanine
none
meso-diaminopimelic acid
spirochete flagella
are wrapped around the cell body between two membranes
are the same as pili
are in a clump at one end of the cell
are distributed around the cell
none
are wrapped around the cell body between two membranes
cryo-electron tomography is good for
exopolysaccharides
individual crystallized proteins
bones
flagella
none
flagella
which is only treatable with a long course of antibiotics
mycobacterium tuberculosis
yersinia pestis
staphylococcus aureus
vaccinia virus
none
mycobacterium tuberculosis
which is a spirillum
e. coli
clostridium botullinum
bacillus subtilis
heliobacter pylori
non
heliobacter pylori
who created the postulates
ignaz semmelweis
louis pasteur
alexander flemming
fanny hesse
none
none
what is the term for bacteria that can be different shapes
pleitrophic
pleomorphic
plastic
shapeshifting
none
pleomorphic
what is the name of the molecule involved in moving peptidoglycan subunits across the membrane
glycerol
sphingomyelin
sialic acid
bactoprenol
none
bactoprenol
what process in yeast is responsible for bread rising
fermentation
respiration
nitrogen fixation
photosynthesis
none
respiration
what diseas was john snow trying to stop
childbed fever
monkeypox
smallpox
cholera
syphilis
cholera
what is another name for the exopolysaccharide matrix in pathogens
LPS
slime capsule
LTA
glycolayer
none
slime capsule
which is a good target for antibiotics
cell memrbane
splicing
bioluminescence
peptidoglycan synthesis
all
peptidoglycan synthesis
what is the term for bacteria growing on a surface embedded in matrix
biocrust
biolayer
biology
biofilm
none
biofilm
what is the difference between pili and fimbriae
pili are made from carbs, fimbriae proteins
pili are for conjugation, fim for motility
fim are typically larger and more common
fim are involved in urogenital pathogen attachment
none
fim are involved in urogenital pathogen attachment
which of these flagellar arrangements is a clump at one end of the cell
monotrichous
peritrichous
amphitrichous
lophotrichous
none
lophotrichous
what demonstrates that DNA is the genetic material
flagella
capsule
secretion complexes
LPS
none
capsule
which is an example of active transport
movement of sodium ions along their gradient
pumping K+ across membrane using ATP
aquaporins
ink spreading in a beaker of water
none
pumping K+ across membrane using ATP
why is turgor pressure a concern for bacteria
water will flow into cells under most conditions
water is toxic
membranes are fragile
mechanoreceptors are fragile and will lead to apoptosis
all
water will flow into cells under most condition
which is the toxic part of LPS
oligosaccharide
Lipid A
core oligosaccharide
brauns lipoprotein
the whole thing
Lipid A
what molecule anchors peptidoglycan to G+ cell membrane
Lipoteichoic acid
L-alanine
meso-diaminopimelicacid
pentaglycine
none
lipoteichoic acid
what is the space between two membranes in G- bacteria
perimeter space
peritrichous space
perineum space
periplasmic space
none
periplasmic space
what is the enzyme that cross links peptidoglycan
D-ala D-ala transpeptidase
pentaglycine ligase
diaminopimelic acid transacetylase
beta-galactidase
none
D-ala D-ala transpeptidase
what is the column used to study soil sedements
ehrlich column
metchnikoff column
pasteur column
winogradsky column
none
winogradsky column
which global disease has dropped massively in the last 20 years
diarrheal
smallpox
gonorrhea
covid
none
diarrheal
which bacteria would be pink in a gram stain
bacillus anthracis
neisseria gonorrhea
trypanosoma cruzi
enterococcus faecalis
all
neiserria gonorrheae
what energy capture and storage process is based on the movement of protons across a membrane
chemotaxis
chemoautotrophy
stereochemistry
chemiosmosis
none
chemiosmosis
what two words form the basis for the word vaccination
vaccinia and variolation
describe the distribution in hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions on the transmembrane of a channel protein
phobic is on one side w/ phobic tails and philic is on both sides
what is one unique thing about mad cow disease
results from a prion
what disease spreads through culex mosquitos and affects birds
west-nile encephalitis
what secretion system is similar in mechanism to flagellar motility
type 3 secretion
what bacteria makes alot of antibiotics
streptomyces
what bacterium causes lyme disease
borrelia burgdorferi
what protein in HIV converts RNA to DNA
reverse transcriptase
what is one bacterium and one virus that causes diarrheal disease
e. coli and rotavirus
what protozoan is spread by anopheles mosquitos
malaria, plasmodia
which is present in 50% of bacterial cell
carbon
phosphorus
oxygen
nitrogen
none
carbon
a bacterium only growing when oxygen is present
obligate aerobe
facultative anaerobe
aerotolerant anaerobe
microaerophile
onligate anaerobe
obligate aerobe
which is a quorum sensing signal
polypeptide
c-di-GMP
acyl homoserine actinide
n-acetyl-glucosamine
none
none
which is an electron donor during growth
oxidized
reduced
hydroxylated
lysed
none
oxidized
the mitochondria is most likely the result of endosymbiosis by a
virus
cyanobacterium
spirochete
alpha-proteobacterium
none
alpha-proteobacterium
what type of photosynthesis produces less energy
oxygenic
non-cyclic
carbonic
cyclic
cyclic
which is more reduced, pyruvate or fructose-biphosphate
same
fructose
pyruvate
depends on e- acceptor
depends on pH
fructose
bacteria can be involved in the nitrogen cycle by
oxidizing ammonium
fixing N2 gas from atmosphere
reducing nitrite
reducing nitrate
all
all
sulfate an nitrate
can cycle through an environment
can be electron donors
can be electron acceptors
can be limiting factors for growth
all
can be electron acceptors
which forms a stalked and swarmer cell
e. coli
staphylococcus aureus
caulobacter crescentus
pseudomonas aeruginosa
none
caulobacter crescentus
the process of fermentation
can be used to produce lactose
can create a proton gradient
is used industrially to produce valuable chemicals
can result in the formation of sodium hydroxide
all
is used industrially
phase of bacterial growth where the rate of growth is the same as rate of death
log
exponential
lag
stationary
none
stationary
which is a name for a type of glycolysis pathway
entner-douderoff
elon-esterhazy
egon-muskberger
calvin-benson
none
entner-douderoff
what is the name of a compound in the membrane that is involved in electron transport
cytochrome
succinate
pyruvate
siderophore
none
cytochrome
microbes that have bacteriorhodopsin
acetogens
extremophiles/halophiles
methanogens
halogens
extremophiles/halophiles
fossils that are though to be first evidence of life on earth
lithotrophs
stalagmites
hot springs
stalactites
none
none
what temp would you expect to find a hyperthermophile
35
4
60
105
37
105
what is the name of an enzyme that is typically found in all bacteria except obligate anaerobes
superoxide dismutase
sulfatase
phosphatase
catalase
none
superoxide dismutase
at what pH would a neutrophile be
2
4
7
9
10
7
what is shelfords law of tolerance
energy can neither be created nor destroyed
chance favors the prepared mind
the limiting nutrient in an environment will determine total biomass
outside certain physical limits, microbes will not grow no matter the available nutrients
every action has an equal and opposite reaction
outside certain physical limits, microbes will not grow no matter the available nutrients
a bacterium that uses glucose as a a source of electrons and sulfate as an electron acceptor would be called
an aerobic lithotroph
an aerobic heterotroph
an aerobic photoautotroph
an aerobic heterotroph
none
an aerobic heterotroph
a chemostat can allow you to study
death phase
maintenance energy
competition as the culture runs out of nutrients
growth at high flow rates
none
maintenance energy
what type of environmental stress do compatible solutes help bacteria deal with
osmolarity
turbidity
heat
hypotonicity
none
osmolarity
what eukaryotic protein is FtsZ similar to
beta-galactosidase
tubulin
chaperone protein
filamentous temperature sensitive
none
tubulin
which quorum sensing signal cannot pass through the membrane and binds to a receptor on the surface
cAMP
peptide pheromone
LuxR
acyl-homoserinelactone
16S rRNA
peptide pheromone
what is the gradient that is formed that is used to generate ATP
ETC
krebs cycle
proton motive force
mitochondria
none
proton motive force
what are the 3 domains of life
archaea, bacteria, eukarya
if Na+ is transported into the cell against its gradient by a protein containing an ATP-binding cassette this would be termed
active symport
active antiport
facilitated diffusion
active uniport
none
active uniport
which is an example of an essential trace mineral
Mg2+
glucose
H+
OH-
none
Mg2+
which is an example of fermentation end product
butanediol
hydrogen sulfide
sulfate
lead
all
butanediol
which is the agent of crown gall disease
pseudomonas
variovorax
agrobacterium
staphylococcus
none
agrobacterium
which is a phenotype controlled by quorum sensing
forming a swarmer cell
binary fission
horizontal gene transfer
all
none
horizontal gene transfer
which is involved in scavenging iron from the environment
fimbriae
siderophore
aquaporins
cytochromes
none
siderophores
which would be the growth measurement method we would use if we were reporting colony forming units
plate counting
chemostat growth
microscopic analysis
turbidity measurement
none
plate counting
which has remarkable radiation resistance
photobacterium gammi
deinococcus radiodurans
bacillus radiotolerans
thermus aquaticus
plasmodium falciparum
deinococcus radiodurans
example of functional inclusion
example of obligate anaerobe
clostridium botulinum
capnophile
an organism that thrives in high CO2 concentrations
type of staphylococcus epidermis infection in hospitalized patients
heart infection
two ways microbes fix carbon
photosynthesis
chemosynthesis
term for a cell that has stopped growing in a culture but still shows signs of life
viable but not culturable
what factor prevents bacteria from growing in honey
low water availability
term for bacteria that uses light for energy, needs organic carbon, and grows at pH 10.5
photoheteroalkalotroph
protein in the ETC that needs iron
complex 1 (NADH-CoQ reductase)
which might be in the genome of a bacterium
a single circular chromosome
a single mRNA
a chromium
a plastid
all
circular chromosome
which is true about rolling circle DNA replication
okazaki fragments generated during this process
nucleotides are added to the 3’ end
this process involves recombination between strands
this process is used to replicate plasmids in some spirochetes
none
nucleotides are added to the 3’ end
a mutation that makes a bacterium able to grow using acetate as a sole carbon source
positive selection
direct selection
indirect selection
t-t dimers
none
direct selection
the process of catabolite repression is what leads to
transcription attenuation
sigma factor binding
homologous recombination
diauxic growth
none
diauxic growth
a plasmid can move from one cell to another directly by
transposition
transduction
transformation
transcription
none
none (conjugation)
an experiment generating lots of data on txn of all genes in the genome under different conditions
cna tell you how many transcripts each cell makes
can be used to understand continuous gene expression over time
can identify transcripts specifically upregulated under certain conditions
all
none
can identify transcripts specifically upregulated under certain conditions
a gene can be mapped using
generalized transduction
Hfr conjugation
DNA microarray
all
none
Hfr conjugation
the temp lambda phage
has 48kb genome
can only undergo lytic cycle
has an RNA genome
can be used for generalized transduction
none
has 48kb genome
AraC protein is
an inducer
bound to DNA when bound to arabinose
a sigma factor
controlled by quorum sensing
a co-repressor
bound to DNA when bound to arabinose
griffith experiment
used smooth and rough colony variants
used variation in pnuemococcal virulence in mice to demonstrate transformation
was followed up by avery, mcleod, and mccarty to show dna was the transformative factor
all
none
all
a point mutation can be caused by
an error by the DNA polymerase
a chemical that binds to the membrane
nitrogen deprivation
insertion of a transposable element
all
an error by the DNA polymerase
which of these varies inversely with glucose in the cell
cATP
c-di-GMP
GAHL
cAMP
none
cAMP
the lac operon is regulated based on the levels of
glucose and lactose
mannose and rhamnose
arabinose and tryptophan
glucose and rhamnose
none
glucose and lactose
an alternative sigma factor
determines what genes the ribosome will transcribe
binds to DNA non-specifically
forms stem loop structures that terminate txn
can be used to control a region
all
can be used to control a region
which is true of chromosomal DNA replication
requires the DNA to be unwound
requires RNA primers to initiate replication
can be initiated in both directions from the origin
adds nucleotides to the 3’ end
all
all
the lagging strand of DNA replication is characterized by the formation of
orwin fragments
origin fragments
origami fragments
okeechobee fragments
none
none
the cyclic nucleotide c-di-GMP
is made by an enzyme called adenylate cyclase
is used to control the switch between swarming and biofilm
is a quorum sensing signal
is part of a two component system
none
is used to control the switch between swarming and biofilm
the promoter for the lac operon
controls the expression of lac ABC
is repressed by LacI
constitutive
always repressed
none
none
the -35 sequence and the -10 sequence are sites that the ____ can bind
sigma factor
repressor
cap protein
rho
ribosome
sigma factor
what are some examples of phenotypes that are regulated by quorum sensing
virulence
convergence
immunofluorescence
all
none
virulence
what are two quorum sensing systems that control virulence in pseudomonas aeruginosa
LasR/Las! and RhlA/RhlB
TraR/TraI and LacR/LacI
TrpR/TrpI and Lac R/LacI
LasR/LasI and RhlR/RhlI
none
LasR/LasI and RhlR/RhlI
the ratio of ATP to ADP is used to control what phenotypic response in bacillus
biofilm formation
sugar utilization
DNA repair
virulence
all
all
which of these is an example of a two-component system for signal transduction
a txn factor and a gene it regulates
a sigma factor and the RNA polymerase holoenzyme
the ribosome and RNA polymerase
an AHL and a response regulator
none
none
what is the purpose of the ames test
identify histidine auxotrophs
demonstrate conjugation
identify potential pathogens
demonstrate power of positive selection
none
none
reason that txn attenuation in the trp operon can only happen in bacteria
has a 5’ 7-methyl-G cap
bacterial transcripts contains exons and introns
the bacterial genes can be expressed a a polyprotein
bacterial genes can be translated while they are being transcribed
all
bacterial genes can be translated while they are being transcribed
what protein controls whether lambda phage goes into the lytic cycle
ribosomes
adenylate cyclase and LacI
LasR and LasI
cro and cI
none
cro and cI
the trp operon is different from the lac operon bc
its repressor only binds in the presence of its co-repressor
it is a biosynthetic operon rather than a catabolic one
the secondary structure of the mRNA is important
it does not involve catabolite repression
all
all
the F plasmid
encodes the pilus necessary for conjugation
cna be integrated into the genome
can only be mobilized into cells that dont already contain it
is present in naturally occurring E. Coli
all
all
process of generalized transduction
happens when a temperate phage degrades the host genome
can be used to clone a gene
can be performed using a lambda phage
can package random pieces of the host genome
all
can package random pieces of the host genome
the U-tube experiment
showed that e. coli prototrophs were recovered by conjugation
allowed investigators to distinguish between conjugation and transduction
was proof that streaming video is the future of entertainment
all
non
showed that e. coli prototrophs were recovered by conjugation
what is the purpose of the bacterial or yeast two hybrid system
to make chimeric proteins
to make plasmids
to show that two proteins bind together
to show that two proteins induce gene expression
none
to show that two proteins bind together
a cosmid is
a plasmid from space
a bacteriophage with an RNA genome
a vector derived from T4 phage
a naturally occurring transposable element
none
non
what bacteria uses quorum sensing to control virulence in infecting plants and causing crown gall disease
e. coli
agrobacterium tumefaciens
pseudomonas aeruginosa
bacillus subtilis
none
agrobacterium tumefaciens
what is the difference between a plasmid and a chromosome
mode of replication
size
presence of essential genes
presence of transposons
none
presence of essential genes
in the peptide pheromone system quorum sensing system, what happens to the response regulator to allow it to activate gene expression
it gets cleaved by a protease
it binds to cAMP
it binds to c-di-GMP
it gets phosphorylated
none
phosphorylated
what are two techniques for looking at total transcriptional activity and total proteins
quantitatively and westernblot/ELISA
what two sites in the arabinose promoter upstream sequence is the AraC protein bound to when arabinose is absent
O2 and I1 half sites
what two things must be true in order for the trp operon genes to be fully transcribed
low tryptophan levels and 2:3 configuration?
what protein has the RNA degrading activity necessary for removing RNA primers from the lagging strand
DNA polymerase 1
what are two main virulence factors that pseudomonas aeruginosa controls with quorum sensing
elastase in LasR
rhamnolipids in RhIR
what type of pilus is used by bacillus subtilis during natural competence
type IV pilus
what two ways can a transposon alter the genotype of a host
change in position
insert into introns/exons
the alternative complement activation pathway is triggered by
antibodies binding to a bacterial surface
pollen grains
MHC class II
factors B, D, P in the serum binding to a bacterium
none
factors B, D, P in the serum binding to a bacterium
which type of MHC is on all nucleated cells
TLR
class 2
CD3
class 1
none
class 1
which is a part of innate immunity
lysozyme
antimicrobial peptides
MAC
oil from sebacious glands
all
all
what do eosinophiles recognize
antibodies bound to the surface of a protozoan or worm
mhc class 1
acid dye
caspase
none
antibodies bound to the surface of a protozoan or worm
which chain of antibody only undergoes VJ recombination
heavy chain
light chain
alpha chain
beta chain
none
light chain
which antibody type is present as a pentamer
IgM
IgD
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgM
example of a resident macrophage
dendritic cell
monocyte
PMN
gametophore
none
none
process for generating different specificities of antibody on the surface of a mature naive B-cell
V(D)J recombination
antigen recognition
TLR activation
isotype switching
none
V(D)J recombination
example of a PAMP
peptide antigen presented on MHC1
LPS
IL-2
pollen
none
IL-2
which opsonins would be recognized by the Fc receptor on macrophages
C3b
IgG
C5a
IgD
none
IgG
antibodies that are found on the surface of plasma cells are
IgA and IgG
D and M
A and E
A and M
none
none
cell that targets the loss of the major histocompatibility complex
LGL/NK cell
PMN
eosinophil
mast cell
none
LGL/NK cell
the part of the antigen that an antibody binds to is called the
paranoid
paranaut
episode
epitope
none
epitope
t-cells start developing in the _____ and complete their development into a naive mature T-cell in the ____
blood, bone marrow
thymus, blood
bone marrow, lymph node
bone marrow, thymus
none
bone marrow, thymus
what type of WBC is present in the largest amounts in blood
neutrophil
erythrocyte
megakaryocyte
eosinophil
b-cell
neutrophil
what type of cytokine would be associated with innate immunity rather than adaptive
interferon alpha
IL-2
interferon gamma
IL-4
none
interferon alpha
the normal flora of the human body
are transient
include potential opportunistic pathogens
have very limited diversity and variation
are all gram positive
all
include potential opportunistic pathogens
an opportunistic pathogen can cause a severe disease state when
someone is immune compromised
someone suffers a serious burn
the pathogen cross the blood brain barrier
the patient has HIV
all
all
what disease caused people to get sick after hiking in the US
lyme disease
HIV
cholera
malaria
all
lyme disease
what are three ways to initiate complement activation
classical, alternative, lectin
ontogeny, phylogeny, taxonomy
epidemiology, etiology, pathology
opsonization, membrane attack, inflammation
none
classical, alternative, lectin
example of a professional antigen presenting cell
osteoblast
eosinophil
fibroblast
dendritic cell
all
dendritic cell
which is true of class 1 MHC
present on all nucleated cells
bound to beta-2-microglobulin
presents antigens via endogenous pathway
presents peptide antigens to cytotoxic t-cells
all
all
two antibodies that are present as multimers
IgA and IgG
M and D
D and E
M and A
A and E
M and A`
cytokine that is the T-cell autocrine growth factor
IL-2
interferon gamma
IL-6
IL-4
none
IL-2
phagocytic cell that is first on the scene at a wound
NK cell
macrophage
monocyte
PMN
megakaryocyte
PMN
what molecule is produced by Th2 cell to promote b-cell activation
TNF-alpha
IL-1
interferon alpha/beta
IL-4
interferon gamma
IL-4
what process is necessary for t-cell activation to occur
costimulation
cytotoxic t-cell activation
t-cell help
inflammation
none
costimulation
which is a portal of entry for staphylococcus aureus
skin
eye
GI tract
respiratory tract
all
all
e. coli binds to host epithelial cells using protein
superoxide dismutase
intimin
chitin
beta galactosidase
IL-2
intimin
where is protein A found
on the surface of e. coli
in the blood of infected patients
secreted by staph aureus
in the alternative complement activation pathway
none
non
the capsule is an important virulence factor for
bacillus anthracis
e. coli
clostridium botulinum
treponema denticola
all
bacillus anthracis
which makes M proteins that protect against phagocytosis
streptococcus pyogenes
shigella fleneri
neiserria gonorrhea
staph aureus
e. coli
streptococcus pyogenes
the mode of epidemiology where you would evaluate the results of a randomized control trial (RCT) is
palliative
descriptive
analytical
experimental
none
experimental
what type of cell would have IgE bound to it and might stimulate an allergic response
PMN
macrophage
CTL
mast cell
none
mast cell
what bacterium was spread by typhoid mary
yersinia pestis
pseudomonas aeruginosa
rickettsia typhimurium
listeria monocytogenes
none
none
what antibody is produced at very high levels on the second exposure to an antigen
IgG
what is teh term for t-cell activation by Lanzavecchia
serial t-cell activation
what is one bacteria that can cause meningitis
streptococcus pneumoniae
two types of disulfide bonds that are important for antibody structure
interchain
intrachain
what type of antibody would protect you against a virus that infected your respiratory epithelial cells
IgA antibody
what type of modification to proteins is important for the determination of microbial binding to surface receptors
post-translational modifications
infection you can get from staph aereus
skin infection
type of injury with life threatening infection with widespread removal of the skins barrier function
third degree burn
four hallmarks of inflammation
redness, pain, swelling, warmth
example of infectious disease caused by a natural disaster
cholera
