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Microbiology > Final: all old exam questions > Flashcards

Final: all old exam questions Flashcards

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1
Q

what is the mordant used in gram stain

crystal violet
safranin
ethanol
congo red
none

A

none

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2
Q

what method would you use to find the number of viable bacteria in a liquid culture

streak plating
gram stain
dilution
pipetting
none

A

dilution

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2
Q

which predates the germ theory

jenners vaccine
ID of cause of mad cow disease
semmelweis childbed fever
ID of HIV and AIDS
all

A

jenner

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3
Q

which is only found in gram positive bacteria

pentaglycine crosslinkers
peptidoglycan
chitin
braums lipoprotein
none

A

pentaglycine crosslinkers

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4
Q

when is myxobacterial fruiting bodies formed

attacking prey
anaerobic
N2 rich environment
starving
none

A

starving

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5
Q

which is present in all bacteria

pili
fimbriae
flagella
LPS
none

A

non

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6
Q

what disease can be prevented by water purification

HIV
malaria
tuberculosis
all
none

A

none

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7
Q

what agent is responsible for malaria

DNA virus
helminth
fungus
protozoan
none

A

protozoan

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8
Q

which has LPS in its outer membrane

plasmodium falciparum
staphylococcus aureus
clostridium tetani
pseudomonas aeruginosa
all

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa`

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9
Q

peptidoglycan of G- bacteria caintains what diamino acid

meso-diaminopimelic acid
dilysine
diadenine
D-alanine-D-alanine
none

A

meso-diaminopimelic acid

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10
Q

spirochete flagella

are wrapped around the cell body between two membranes
are the same as pili
are in a clump at one end of the cell
are distributed around the cell
none

A

are wrapped around the cell body between two membranes

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11
Q

cryo-electron tomography is good for

exopolysaccharides
individual crystallized proteins
bones
flagella
none

A

flagella

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12
Q

which is only treatable with a long course of antibiotics

mycobacterium tuberculosis
yersinia pestis
staphylococcus aureus
vaccinia virus
none

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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13
Q

which is a spirillum

e. coli
clostridium botullinum
bacillus subtilis
heliobacter pylori
non

A

heliobacter pylori

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14
Q

who created the postulates

ignaz semmelweis
louis pasteur
alexander flemming
fanny hesse
none

A

none

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15
Q

what is the term for bacteria that can be different shapes

pleitrophic
pleomorphic
plastic
shapeshifting
none

A

pleomorphic

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16
Q

what is the name of the molecule involved in moving peptidoglycan subunits across the membrane

glycerol
sphingomyelin
sialic acid
bactoprenol
none

A

bactoprenol

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17
Q

what process in yeast is responsible for bread rising

fermentation
respiration
nitrogen fixation
photosynthesis
none

A

respiration

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18
Q

what diseas was john snow trying to stop

childbed fever
monkeypox
smallpox
cholera
syphilis

A

cholera

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19
Q

what is another name for the exopolysaccharide matrix in pathogens

LPS
slime capsule
LTA
glycolayer
none

A

slime capsule

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20
Q

which is a good target for antibiotics

cell memrbane
splicing
bioluminescence
peptidoglycan synthesis
all

A

peptidoglycan synthesis

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21
Q

what is the term for bacteria growing on a surface embedded in matrix

biocrust
biolayer
biology
biofilm
none

A

biofilm

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22
Q

what is the difference between pili and fimbriae

pili are made from carbs, fimbriae proteins
pili are for conjugation, fim for motility
fim are typically larger and more common
fim are involved in urogenital pathogen attachment
none

A

fim are involved in urogenital pathogen attachment

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23
Q

which of these flagellar arrangements is a clump at one end of the cell

monotrichous
peritrichous
amphitrichous
lophotrichous
none

A

lophotrichous

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24
Q

what demonstrates that DNA is the genetic material

flagella
capsule
secretion complexes
LPS
none

A

capsule

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25
Q

which is an example of active transport

movement of sodium ions along their gradient
pumping K+ across membrane using ATP
aquaporins
ink spreading in a beaker of water
none

A

pumping K+ across membrane using ATP

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26
Q

why is turgor pressure a concern for bacteria

water will flow into cells under most conditions
water is toxic
membranes are fragile
mechanoreceptors are fragile and will lead to apoptosis
all

A

water will flow into cells under most condition

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27
Q

which is the toxic part of LPS

oligosaccharide
Lipid A
core oligosaccharide
brauns lipoprotein
the whole thing

A

Lipid A

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28
Q

what molecule anchors peptidoglycan to G+ cell membrane

Lipoteichoic acid
L-alanine
meso-diaminopimelicacid
pentaglycine
none

A

lipoteichoic acid

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29
Q

what is the space between two membranes in G- bacteria

perimeter space
peritrichous space
perineum space
periplasmic space
none

A

periplasmic space

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30
Q

what is the enzyme that cross links peptidoglycan

D-ala D-ala transpeptidase
pentaglycine ligase
diaminopimelic acid transacetylase
beta-galactidase
none

A

D-ala D-ala transpeptidase

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31
Q

what is the column used to study soil sedements

ehrlich column
metchnikoff column
pasteur column
winogradsky column
none

A

winogradsky column

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32
Q

which global disease has dropped massively in the last 20 years

diarrheal
smallpox
gonorrhea
covid
none

A

diarrheal

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33
Q

which bacteria would be pink in a gram stain

bacillus anthracis
neisseria gonorrhea
trypanosoma cruzi
enterococcus faecalis
all

A

neiserria gonorrheae

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34
Q

what energy capture and storage process is based on the movement of protons across a membrane

chemotaxis
chemoautotrophy
stereochemistry
chemiosmosis
none

A

chemiosmosis

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35
Q

what two words form the basis for the word vaccination

A

vaccinia and variolation

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36
Q

describe the distribution in hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions on the transmembrane of a channel protein

A

phobic is on one side w/ phobic tails and philic is on both sides

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37
Q

what is one unique thing about mad cow disease

A

results from a prion

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38
Q

what disease spreads through culex mosquitos and affects birds

A

west-nile encephalitis

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39
Q

what secretion system is similar in mechanism to flagellar motility

A

type 3 secretion

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40
Q

what bacteria makes alot of antibiotics

A

streptomyces

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41
Q

what bacterium causes lyme disease

A

borrelia burgdorferi

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42
Q

what protein in HIV converts RNA to DNA

A

reverse transcriptase

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43
Q

what is one bacterium and one virus that causes diarrheal disease

A

e. coli and rotavirus

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44
Q

what protozoan is spread by anopheles mosquitos

A

malaria, plasmodia

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45
Q

which is present in 50% of bacterial cell

carbon
phosphorus
oxygen
nitrogen
none

A

carbon

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46
Q

a bacterium only growing when oxygen is present

obligate aerobe
facultative anaerobe
aerotolerant anaerobe
microaerophile
onligate anaerobe

A

obligate aerobe

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47
Q

which is a quorum sensing signal

polypeptide
c-di-GMP
acyl homoserine actinide
n-acetyl-glucosamine
none

A

none

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48
Q

which is an electron donor during growth

oxidized
reduced
hydroxylated
lysed
none

A

oxidized

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49
Q

the mitochondria is most likely the result of endosymbiosis by a

virus
cyanobacterium
spirochete
alpha-proteobacterium
none

A

alpha-proteobacterium

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50
Q

what type of photosynthesis produces less energy

oxygenic
non-cyclic
carbonic
cyclic

A

cyclic

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51
Q

which is more reduced, pyruvate or fructose-biphosphate

same
fructose
pyruvate
depends on e- acceptor
depends on pH

A

fructose

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52
Q

bacteria can be involved in the nitrogen cycle by

oxidizing ammonium
fixing N2 gas from atmosphere
reducing nitrite
reducing nitrate
all

A

all

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53
Q

sulfate an nitrate

can cycle through an environment
can be electron donors
can be electron acceptors
can be limiting factors for growth
all

A

can be electron acceptors

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54
Q

which forms a stalked and swarmer cell

e. coli
staphylococcus aureus
caulobacter crescentus
pseudomonas aeruginosa
none

A

caulobacter crescentus

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55
Q

the process of fermentation

can be used to produce lactose
can create a proton gradient
is used industrially to produce valuable chemicals
can result in the formation of sodium hydroxide
all

A

is used industrially

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55
Q

phase of bacterial growth where the rate of growth is the same as rate of death

log
exponential
lag
stationary
none

A

stationary

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55
Q

which is a name for a type of glycolysis pathway

entner-douderoff
elon-esterhazy
egon-muskberger
calvin-benson
none

A

entner-douderoff

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56
Q

what is the name of a compound in the membrane that is involved in electron transport

cytochrome
succinate
pyruvate
siderophore
none

A

cytochrome

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57
Q

microbes that have bacteriorhodopsin

acetogens
extremophiles/halophiles
methanogens
halogens

A

extremophiles/halophiles

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58
Q

fossils that are though to be first evidence of life on earth

lithotrophs
stalagmites
hot springs
stalactites
none

A

none

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59
Q

what temp would you expect to find a hyperthermophile

35
4
60
105
37

A

105

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60
Q

what is the name of an enzyme that is typically found in all bacteria except obligate anaerobes

superoxide dismutase
sulfatase
phosphatase
catalase
none

A

superoxide dismutase

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61
Q

at what pH would a neutrophile be

2
4
7
9
10

A

7

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62
Q

what is shelfords law of tolerance
energy can neither be created nor destroyed
chance favors the prepared mind
the limiting nutrient in an environment will determine total biomass
outside certain physical limits, microbes will not grow no matter the available nutrients
every action has an equal and opposite reaction

A

outside certain physical limits, microbes will not grow no matter the available nutrients

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63
Q

a bacterium that uses glucose as a a source of electrons and sulfate as an electron acceptor would be called

an aerobic lithotroph
an aerobic heterotroph
an aerobic photoautotroph
an aerobic heterotroph
none

A

an aerobic heterotroph

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64
Q

a chemostat can allow you to study

death phase
maintenance energy
competition as the culture runs out of nutrients
growth at high flow rates
none

A

maintenance energy

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65
Q

what type of environmental stress do compatible solutes help bacteria deal with

osmolarity
turbidity
heat
hypotonicity
none

A

osmolarity

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66
Q

what eukaryotic protein is FtsZ similar to

beta-galactosidase
tubulin
chaperone protein
filamentous temperature sensitive
none

A

tubulin

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67
Q

which quorum sensing signal cannot pass through the membrane and binds to a receptor on the surface

cAMP
peptide pheromone
LuxR
acyl-homoserinelactone
16S rRNA

A

peptide pheromone

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68
Q

what is the gradient that is formed that is used to generate ATP

ETC
krebs cycle
proton motive force
mitochondria
none

A

proton motive force

69
Q

what are the 3 domains of life

A

archaea, bacteria, eukarya

70
Q

if Na+ is transported into the cell against its gradient by a protein containing an ATP-binding cassette this would be termed

active symport
active antiport
facilitated diffusion
active uniport
none

A

active uniport

71
Q

which is an example of an essential trace mineral

Mg2+
glucose
H+
OH-
none

A

Mg2+

72
Q

which is an example of fermentation end product

butanediol
hydrogen sulfide
sulfate
lead
all

A

butanediol

73
Q

which is the agent of crown gall disease

pseudomonas
variovorax
agrobacterium
staphylococcus
none

A

agrobacterium

74
Q

which is a phenotype controlled by quorum sensing

forming a swarmer cell
binary fission
horizontal gene transfer
all
none

A

horizontal gene transfer

75
Q

which is involved in scavenging iron from the environment

fimbriae
siderophore
aquaporins
cytochromes
none

A

siderophores

76
Q

which would be the growth measurement method we would use if we were reporting colony forming units

plate counting
chemostat growth
microscopic analysis
turbidity measurement
none

A

plate counting

77
Q

which has remarkable radiation resistance

photobacterium gammi
deinococcus radiodurans
bacillus radiotolerans
thermus aquaticus
plasmodium falciparum

A

deinococcus radiodurans

78
Q

example of functional inclusion

A
79
Q

example of obligate anaerobe

A

clostridium botulinum

80
Q

capnophile

A

an organism that thrives in high CO2 concentrations

81
Q

type of staphylococcus epidermis infection in hospitalized patients

A

heart infection

82
Q

two ways microbes fix carbon

A

photosynthesis
chemosynthesis

83
Q

term for a cell that has stopped growing in a culture but still shows signs of life

A

viable but not culturable

84
Q

what factor prevents bacteria from growing in honey

A

low water availability

85
Q

term for bacteria that uses light for energy, needs organic carbon, and grows at pH 10.5

A

photoheteroalkalotroph

86
Q

protein in the ETC that needs iron

A

complex 1 (NADH-CoQ reductase)

87
Q

which might be in the genome of a bacterium

a single circular chromosome
a single mRNA
a chromium
a plastid
all

A

circular chromosome

88
Q

which is true about rolling circle DNA replication

okazaki fragments generated during this process
nucleotides are added to the 3’ end
this process involves recombination between strands
this process is used to replicate plasmids in some spirochetes
none

A

nucleotides are added to the 3’ end

89
Q

a mutation that makes a bacterium able to grow using acetate as a sole carbon source

positive selection
direct selection
indirect selection
t-t dimers
none

A

direct selection

90
Q

the process of catabolite repression is what leads to

transcription attenuation
sigma factor binding
homologous recombination
diauxic growth
none

A

diauxic growth

91
Q

a plasmid can move from one cell to another directly by

transposition
transduction
transformation
transcription
none

A

none (conjugation)

92
Q

an experiment generating lots of data on txn of all genes in the genome under different conditions

cna tell you how many transcripts each cell makes
can be used to understand continuous gene expression over time
can identify transcripts specifically upregulated under certain conditions
all
none

A

can identify transcripts specifically upregulated under certain conditions

93
Q

a gene can be mapped using

generalized transduction
Hfr conjugation
DNA microarray
all
none

A

Hfr conjugation

94
Q

the temp lambda phage

has 48kb genome
can only undergo lytic cycle
has an RNA genome
can be used for generalized transduction
none

A

has 48kb genome

95
Q

AraC protein is

an inducer
bound to DNA when bound to arabinose
a sigma factor
controlled by quorum sensing
a co-repressor

A

bound to DNA when bound to arabinose

96
Q

griffith experiment

used smooth and rough colony variants
used variation in pnuemococcal virulence in mice to demonstrate transformation
was followed up by avery, mcleod, and mccarty to show dna was the transformative factor
all
none

A

all

97
Q

a point mutation can be caused by

an error by the DNA polymerase
a chemical that binds to the membrane
nitrogen deprivation
insertion of a transposable element
all

A

an error by the DNA polymerase

98
Q

which of these varies inversely with glucose in the cell

cATP
c-di-GMP
GAHL
cAMP
none

A

cAMP

99
Q

the lac operon is regulated based on the levels of

glucose and lactose
mannose and rhamnose
arabinose and tryptophan
glucose and rhamnose
none

A

glucose and lactose

100
Q

an alternative sigma factor

determines what genes the ribosome will transcribe
binds to DNA non-specifically
forms stem loop structures that terminate txn
can be used to control a region
all

A

can be used to control a region

101
Q

which is true of chromosomal DNA replication

requires the DNA to be unwound
requires RNA primers to initiate replication
can be initiated in both directions from the origin
adds nucleotides to the 3’ end
all

A

all

102
Q

the lagging strand of DNA replication is characterized by the formation of

orwin fragments
origin fragments
origami fragments
okeechobee fragments
none

A

none

103
Q

the cyclic nucleotide c-di-GMP

is made by an enzyme called adenylate cyclase
is used to control the switch between swarming and biofilm
is a quorum sensing signal
is part of a two component system
none

A

is used to control the switch between swarming and biofilm

104
Q

the promoter for the lac operon

controls the expression of lac ABC
is repressed by LacI
constitutive
always repressed
none

A

none

105
Q

the -35 sequence and the -10 sequence are sites that the ____ can bind

sigma factor
repressor
cap protein
rho
ribosome

A

sigma factor

106
Q

what are some examples of phenotypes that are regulated by quorum sensing

virulence
convergence
immunofluorescence
all
none

A

virulence

107
Q

what are two quorum sensing systems that control virulence in pseudomonas aeruginosa

LasR/Las! and RhlA/RhlB
TraR/TraI and LacR/LacI
TrpR/TrpI and Lac R/LacI
LasR/LasI and RhlR/RhlI
none

A

LasR/LasI and RhlR/RhlI

108
Q

the ratio of ATP to ADP is used to control what phenotypic response in bacillus

biofilm formation
sugar utilization
DNA repair
virulence
all

A

all

109
Q

which of these is an example of a two-component system for signal transduction

a txn factor and a gene it regulates
a sigma factor and the RNA polymerase holoenzyme
the ribosome and RNA polymerase
an AHL and a response regulator
none

A

none

110
Q

what is the purpose of the ames test

identify histidine auxotrophs
demonstrate conjugation
identify potential pathogens
demonstrate power of positive selection
none

A

none

111
Q

reason that txn attenuation in the trp operon can only happen in bacteria

has a 5’ 7-methyl-G cap
bacterial transcripts contains exons and introns
the bacterial genes can be expressed a a polyprotein
bacterial genes can be translated while they are being transcribed
all

A

bacterial genes can be translated while they are being transcribed

112
Q

what protein controls whether lambda phage goes into the lytic cycle

ribosomes
adenylate cyclase and LacI
LasR and LasI
cro and cI
none

A

cro and cI

113
Q

the trp operon is different from the lac operon bc

its repressor only binds in the presence of its co-repressor
it is a biosynthetic operon rather than a catabolic one
the secondary structure of the mRNA is important
it does not involve catabolite repression
all

A

all

114
Q

the F plasmid

encodes the pilus necessary for conjugation
cna be integrated into the genome
can only be mobilized into cells that dont already contain it
is present in naturally occurring E. Coli
all

A

all

115
Q

process of generalized transduction

happens when a temperate phage degrades the host genome
can be used to clone a gene
can be performed using a lambda phage
can package random pieces of the host genome
all

A

can package random pieces of the host genome

116
Q

the U-tube experiment

showed that e. coli prototrophs were recovered by conjugation
allowed investigators to distinguish between conjugation and transduction
was proof that streaming video is the future of entertainment
all
non

A

showed that e. coli prototrophs were recovered by conjugation

117
Q

what is the purpose of the bacterial or yeast two hybrid system

to make chimeric proteins
to make plasmids
to show that two proteins bind together
to show that two proteins induce gene expression
none

A

to show that two proteins bind together

118
Q

a cosmid is

a plasmid from space
a bacteriophage with an RNA genome
a vector derived from T4 phage
a naturally occurring transposable element
none

A

non

119
Q

what bacteria uses quorum sensing to control virulence in infecting plants and causing crown gall disease

e. coli
agrobacterium tumefaciens
pseudomonas aeruginosa
bacillus subtilis
none

A

agrobacterium tumefaciens

120
Q

what is the difference between a plasmid and a chromosome

mode of replication
size
presence of essential genes
presence of transposons
none

A

presence of essential genes

121
Q

in the peptide pheromone system quorum sensing system, what happens to the response regulator to allow it to activate gene expression

it gets cleaved by a protease
it binds to cAMP
it binds to c-di-GMP
it gets phosphorylated
none

A

phosphorylated

122
Q

what are two techniques for looking at total transcriptional activity and total proteins

A

quantitatively and westernblot/ELISA

123
Q

what two sites in the arabinose promoter upstream sequence is the AraC protein bound to when arabinose is absent

A

O2 and I1 half sites

124
Q

what two things must be true in order for the trp operon genes to be fully transcribed

A

low tryptophan levels and 2:3 configuration?

125
Q

what protein has the RNA degrading activity necessary for removing RNA primers from the lagging strand

A

DNA polymerase 1

126
Q

what are two main virulence factors that pseudomonas aeruginosa controls with quorum sensing

A

elastase in LasR
rhamnolipids in RhIR

127
Q

what type of pilus is used by bacillus subtilis during natural competence

A

type IV pilus

128
Q

what two ways can a transposon alter the genotype of a host

A

change in position
insert into introns/exons

129
Q

the alternative complement activation pathway is triggered by

antibodies binding to a bacterial surface
pollen grains
MHC class II
factors B, D, P in the serum binding to a bacterium
none

A

factors B, D, P in the serum binding to a bacterium

130
Q

which type of MHC is on all nucleated cells

TLR
class 2
CD3
class 1
none

A

class 1

131
Q

which is a part of innate immunity

lysozyme
antimicrobial peptides
MAC
oil from sebacious glands
all

A

all

132
Q

what do eosinophiles recognize

antibodies bound to the surface of a protozoan or worm
mhc class 1
acid dye
caspase
none

A

antibodies bound to the surface of a protozoan or worm

133
Q

which chain of antibody only undergoes VJ recombination

heavy chain
light chain
alpha chain
beta chain
none

A

light chain

134
Q

which antibody type is present as a pentamer

IgM
IgD
IgE
IgA
IgG

A

IgM

135
Q

example of a resident macrophage

dendritic cell
monocyte
PMN
gametophore
none

A

none

136
Q

process for generating different specificities of antibody on the surface of a mature naive B-cell

V(D)J recombination
antigen recognition
TLR activation
isotype switching
none

A

V(D)J recombination

137
Q

example of a PAMP

peptide antigen presented on MHC1
LPS
IL-2
pollen
none

A

IL-2

138
Q

which opsonins would be recognized by the Fc receptor on macrophages

C3b
IgG
C5a
IgD
none

A

IgG

139
Q

antibodies that are found on the surface of plasma cells are
IgA and IgG
D and M
A and E
A and M
none

A

none

140
Q

cell that targets the loss of the major histocompatibility complex

LGL/NK cell
PMN
eosinophil
mast cell
none

A

LGL/NK cell

141
Q

the part of the antigen that an antibody binds to is called the

paranoid
paranaut
episode
epitope
none

A

epitope

142
Q

t-cells start developing in the _____ and complete their development into a naive mature T-cell in the ____

blood, bone marrow
thymus, blood
bone marrow, lymph node
bone marrow, thymus
none

A

bone marrow, thymus

143
Q

what type of WBC is present in the largest amounts in blood

neutrophil
erythrocyte
megakaryocyte
eosinophil
b-cell

A

neutrophil

144
Q

what type of cytokine would be associated with innate immunity rather than adaptive

interferon alpha
IL-2
interferon gamma
IL-4
none

A

interferon alpha

145
Q

the normal flora of the human body

are transient
include potential opportunistic pathogens
have very limited diversity and variation
are all gram positive
all

A

include potential opportunistic pathogens

146
Q

an opportunistic pathogen can cause a severe disease state when

someone is immune compromised
someone suffers a serious burn
the pathogen cross the blood brain barrier
the patient has HIV
all

A

all

147
Q

what disease caused people to get sick after hiking in the US

lyme disease
HIV
cholera
malaria
all

A

lyme disease

148
Q

what are three ways to initiate complement activation

classical, alternative, lectin
ontogeny, phylogeny, taxonomy
epidemiology, etiology, pathology
opsonization, membrane attack, inflammation
none

A

classical, alternative, lectin

149
Q

example of a professional antigen presenting cell

osteoblast
eosinophil
fibroblast
dendritic cell
all

A

dendritic cell

150
Q

which is true of class 1 MHC

present on all nucleated cells
bound to beta-2-microglobulin
presents antigens via endogenous pathway
presents peptide antigens to cytotoxic t-cells
all

A

all

151
Q

two antibodies that are present as multimers

IgA and IgG
M and D
D and E
M and A
A and E

A

M and A`

152
Q

cytokine that is the T-cell autocrine growth factor

IL-2
interferon gamma
IL-6
IL-4
none

A

IL-2

153
Q

phagocytic cell that is first on the scene at a wound

NK cell
macrophage
monocyte
PMN
megakaryocyte

A

PMN

154
Q

what molecule is produced by Th2 cell to promote b-cell activation

TNF-alpha
IL-1
interferon alpha/beta
IL-4
interferon gamma

A

IL-4

155
Q

what process is necessary for t-cell activation to occur

costimulation
cytotoxic t-cell activation
t-cell help
inflammation
none

A

costimulation

156
Q

which is a portal of entry for staphylococcus aureus

skin
eye
GI tract
respiratory tract
all

A

all

157
Q

e. coli binds to host epithelial cells using protein

superoxide dismutase
intimin
chitin
beta galactosidase
IL-2

A

intimin

158
Q

where is protein A found

on the surface of e. coli
in the blood of infected patients
secreted by staph aureus
in the alternative complement activation pathway
none

A

non

159
Q

the capsule is an important virulence factor for

bacillus anthracis
e. coli
clostridium botulinum
treponema denticola
all

A

bacillus anthracis

160
Q

which makes M proteins that protect against phagocytosis

streptococcus pyogenes
shigella fleneri
neiserria gonorrhea
staph aureus
e. coli

A

streptococcus pyogenes

161
Q

the mode of epidemiology where you would evaluate the results of a randomized control trial (RCT) is

palliative
descriptive
analytical
experimental
none

A

experimental

162
Q

what type of cell would have IgE bound to it and might stimulate an allergic response

PMN
macrophage
CTL
mast cell
none

A

mast cell

163
Q

what bacterium was spread by typhoid mary

yersinia pestis
pseudomonas aeruginosa
rickettsia typhimurium
listeria monocytogenes
none

A

none

164
Q

what antibody is produced at very high levels on the second exposure to an antigen

A

IgG

165
Q

what is teh term for t-cell activation by Lanzavecchia

A

serial t-cell activation

166
Q

what is one bacteria that can cause meningitis

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

167
Q

two types of disulfide bonds that are important for antibody structure

A

interchain
intrachain

168
Q

what type of antibody would protect you against a virus that infected your respiratory epithelial cells

A

IgA antibody

169
Q

what type of modification to proteins is important for the determination of microbial binding to surface receptors

A

post-translational modifications

170
Q

infection you can get from staph aereus

A

skin infection

171
Q

type of injury with life threatening infection with widespread removal of the skins barrier function

A

third degree burn

172
Q

four hallmarks of inflammation

A

redness, pain, swelling, warmth

173
Q

example of infectious disease caused by a natural disaster

A

cholera

Microbiology (16 decks)

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