Final (Add to Test 2 and 3 Review Decks) Flashcards
1
Q
What is the origin and insertion of the teres major?
A
inferior angle of scapula, bicipital groove of the humerus (medial)
2
Q
The group of muscles that form the “fleshy pad” on the radial side of the palm are called:
A
thenar eminence
3
Q
The two arches of the feet are:
A
longitudinal arch and transverse arch
4
Q
What are the two primary movers for ankle dorsiflexion?
A
tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus
5
Q
What are the actions of the upper and lower parts of the trapezius?
A
depression and elevation
6
Q
What is the action of the pronator quadratus?
A
pronation
7
Q
What are the two prime movers for ankle plantarflexion?
A
gastrocnemius and soleus
8
Q
What is the longest muscle of the body and most superficial thigh muscle that forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?
A
sartorius
9
Q
What is the name of the muscle that is the strongest dorsiflexor of the ankle and enables the toes to clear the ground during ambulation? (Injury to this muscle can cause foot drop as well as shin splints.)
A
tibialis anterior
10
Q
What is the innervation of the adductor pollicis?
A
ulnar nerve
11
Q
The strongest hip flexor is the ______.
A
iliopsoas
12
Q
The intrinsic muscles of the hand are controlled (innervated) by the ______.
A
median and ulnar nerve
13
Q
The muscle(s) that originates on the transverse process of the cervical vertebrae and inserts on the upper two ribs with the primary purpose of flexing and rotating the neck as well as assisting in inspiration
A
scalenes
14
Q
The anterior forearm is innervated by the _____ nerve, with the exception of the FCU.
A
median
15
Q
The interossei are innervated by the:
A
ulnar nerve
16
Q
What nerve innervates the flexor digitorum superficialis?
A
median nerve
17
Q
The flexor muscles of the forearm originate on the:
A
medial epicondyle
18
Q
The hypothenar eminence is innervated by the ______.
A
ulnar nerve
19
Q
What muscle originates on the upper 8 ribs, inserts at the medial border of the scapula, abducts, and laterally rotates the scapula?
A
serratus anterior
20
Q
What is the action of the subscapularis?
A
medial rotation
21
Q
What are the prime movers for the hip (femur) flexion?
A
pectineus and psoas major and illiacus
22
Q
The gluteus minimus and medius insert at the _______.
A
greater trochanter of femur
23
Q
The dorsum of the hand is innervated by the _____ nerve.
A
radial
24
Q
The three prime hip (femur) adductors generally insert on the ________.
A
linea aspera of the femur
25
What is the only muscle in the quadriceps group that contributes to action of the hip (femur)?
rectus femoris
26
What nerve innervates the dorsal interossei?
ulnar nerve
27
What is the origin and insertion of the deltoid?
deltoid tuberosity of humerus and lateral third of clavicle
28
The thenar muscles are innervated by the:
median and ulnar nerve
29
What are the actions of the rhomboid major?
medial (downward) rotation of the scapula and adduction (retraction)
30
The extensor muscles of the forearm originate in the:
lateral epicondyle
31
The muscles that make up the thenar eminence include:
flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis
32
What are the two prime movers for foot eversion?
fibularis longus and fibularis tertius
33
What ligament of the knee provides anterior stability and is a place for a common knee injury?
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
34
What is the action of the supinator?
supination of the forearm
35
The muscles that make up the hypothenar eminence include:
flexor digiti minimi brevis, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi
36
Increased heart rate during exercise is an example of which concept in therapeutic exercise?
Intensity
37
```
Therapeutic exercise can be incorporated in which phase of recovery?
A. Healing phase
B. Improvement
C. Inflammatory response
D. Both a and b
```
D. Both a and b
38
Which muscle contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens as it contracts?
Eccentric contraction
39
Which statement is true?
A. Velocity increases with eccentric contractions
B. Velocity increases with concentric contractions
C. Velocity increases with isometric contractions
D. Maximal force at high velocities is advantageous
B. Velocity increases with concentric contractions
40
Suzie is in therapy to regain shoulder range of motion (ROM) after a total shoulder arthroplasty. Where is Suzie in the continuum of function?
Impaired function/Rehabilitation
41
Which statement of static stretching is true?
A. Passive range of motion (PROM) below the threshold of pain sustained 20 to 30 seconds
B. Active range of motion (AROM) below the threshold of pain sustained 20 to 30 seconds
C. PROM below the threshold of pain more than 20 to 30 seconds
D. AROM below the threshold of pain more than 20 to 30 seconds
A. Passive range of motion (PROM) below the threshold of pain sustained 20 to 30 seconds
42
Maximal force generation occurs in what type of muscle contraction?
Eccentric contractions
43
```
A client decided not to use mouthwash after brushing his teeth as he thought his teeth were clean enough. Which aspect of function BEST describes this statement?
A. Functional abilities
B. Ability to complete a task
C. To achieve occupations as desired
D. Social context
```
C. To achieve occupations as desired
44
Which phase of the healing process occurs directly after injury?
B. Inflammation
45
What should the first goal of the rehabilitation process address?
Pain and swelling
46
The occupational therapy assistant is working with a client who displays difficulty with wheelchair propulsion. What is most likely the problem with the ability to propel the wheelchair?
seat width too wide
47
Signs and symptoms of which condition include fatigue, joint pain, inflammation, edema, warmth, and redness?
rheumatoid arthritis
48
T/F: Intrinsic hand muscles cross the wrist but have a more significant function.
false
49
T/F: The occupational therapy assistant can instruct standing balance and transfer training to a client.
true
50
What is the goniometric landmark for hip flexion?
lateral aspect of the greater trochanter
51
T/F: The living room is considered an open environment.
False
52
What type of lift utilizes the longest and strongest muscles possible for the task?
diagonal lift
53
T/F: Boutonniere deformity describes a digit that is flexed at the PIP and hyperextended at the DIP.
True
54
T/F: Functional ability is considered an activity of daily living (ADL).
False
55
What is the proper name for pelvic rotation when the right ASIS landmark is anterior to the left ASIS landmark?
forward pelvic rotation
56
T/F: Thumb opposition is a combination of thumb flexion and abduction.
True
57
T/F: Carrying clothes to the bathroom to get dressed requires multiple motor skills.
True
58
T/F: Occupation therapy usually provides the direct treatment for foot drop.
False
59
What is the goniometric landmark for ankle dorsiflexion?
Over the lateral malleolus
60
T/F: The functional position of the hand is wrist extended 20 degrees, fingers slightly extended, and thumb in opposition.
False
61
T/F: Typically, the physical therapist will tell the occupational therapy assistant which type of transfer is needed.
False
62
What is the goniometric landmark for hip adduction?
Over the ASIS
63
What motion occurs when the ASIS landmarks are posterior to the pubic symphysis?
posterior pelvic tilt
64
T/F: Open environments are more predictable environments.
False
65
The occupational therapy assistant is using an orthotic in therapy. What is the occupational therapy assistant most likely NOT trying to achieve?
a. provide rest or support
b. increase function
c. increase range of motion
d. maintain abnormal muscle tone
d. maintain abnormal muscle tone
66
Which digit can abduct in either direction?
Third
67
How does the OTPF-3 categorize functional mobility?
ADL
68
Small finger intrinsic movements include all of the following except:
- opposition
- extension
- abduction
extension
69
Johnny is learning to alternate heavy tasks and light tasks to be able to complete his ADL tasks in a timely fashion each morning. What is Johnny learning?
energy conservation
70
T/F: The ulnar nerve is known as the "nerve of function" for the hand.
False
71
What joint motion is impaired by foot drop?
ankle dorsiflexion
72
Johnny is learning the proper foundation of sliding board transfers so as to assist his wife to transfer to the wheelchair or commode. What is Johnny learning?
body mechanics
73
Splints are considered what type of lever?
First class
74
T/F: Pronation of the ankle is a combined active motion of dorsiflexion, eversion, and abduction.
True
75
T/F: The PIP joints of the fingers are commonly called the knuckles.
False
76
T/F: In anterior pelvic tilt, the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) move downwards and forwards.
True
77
The thumb has three joints, which is not a joint of the thumb?
- MCP
- CMC
- PIP
- IP
PIP
78
Johnny has just started therapy to relearn motor skills that became impaired after breaking his fourth and fifth metacarpal bones when he punched a brick wall. The therapist will most likely choose which type of skill and environment to begin therapy?
closed skill/closed environment
79
The occupational therapy assistant is working with a client to increase independence with bed mobility starting from supine in the bed. Which functional mobility will the client most likely initiate first?
rolling
80
T/F: Transferring to a bathtub may be best achieved with a tub transfer bench or chair because it removes the possibility of tripping while stepping into the tub.
True
81
What is the goniometric landmark for knee flexion?
lateral epicondyle of the femur
82
T/F: The spine in neutral alignment is an example of good body mechanics.
True
83
T/F: Gait patterns and walking patterns have the same meaning.
True
84
T/F: Functional mobility for bathing only relates to tub and shower transfers.
False
85
T/F: When the thumb moves toward the ceiling with the hand facing palm up, the movement is referred to as palmar abduction.
True
86
Swing phase accounts for how much of the gait cycle?
40%
87
Swan neck deformity describes fingers that are:
hyperextended at the PIP and flexed at the DIP
88
Pincer grasp is typically developed at what age?
9 to 12 months
89
T/F: Motor skills are an example of client factors.
False
90
T/F: Most ADL's require elements of functional mobility.
True
91
What is the goniometric landmark for hip internal rotation?
over the midpoint of the patella
92
Johnny has experienced a bilateral below-the-knee amputation due to a motor vehicle accident. Johnny has learned to regain his mobility to interact with his environment using a lightweight wheelchair. This is an example of what?
assistive technology
93
T/F: A soft wrist cock-up splint applies force to the wrist when applied.
True
94
What is NOT a treatment for edema?
- elevation
- cardiovascular exercise
- movement
- hot packs
hot packs
95
What is the typical distance between the feet during ambulation?
2 to 4 inches
96
T/F: Posterior pelvic tilt is a component of good body mechanics.
False
97
T/F: Supination of the ankle is a combined active motion of plantarflexion and inversion only.
False
98
What is the most important function of the hand?
opposition
99
T/F: A posterior pelvic tilt is needed during sitting to enable the trunk to accomplish normal reaching.
False
100
T/F: A standard wheelchair is typically 22 to 24 inches wide.
False
101
T/F: Dorsiflexion occurs when the client puts his or her foot into the pant legs during lower extremity dressing.
False
102
Which condition is associated with a Stenar lesion?
- Skier's thumb
- Dupuytren's disease
- Trigger finger
- Tendinitis
Skier's thumb
103
T/F: It is important for an individual with weak lower extremities, poor balance, and decreased endurance to continue to complete tasks such as stepping into a bathtub and standing to shower in order to increase independence with functional tasks.
False
104
T/F: Lifting with a straight back reduces pressure on the back by up to 25%.
True
105
What is the best functional task that requires opposition?
- writing
- holding a soda can
- gripping a baseball
- wiping a table
writing
106
Which joint only abducts at the MCP and does not adduct?
third digit
107
T/F: The PIP joints are closer to the fingertips than the DIP joints.
False
108
Stance phase accounts for how much of the gait cycle?
60%
109
T/F: Step length and stride length have the same meaning.
False
110
T/F: Compared to the glenohumeral joint, the hip joint has greater mobility but less stability.
False
111
T/F: Lower extremity amputation is an example of a body structure.
True
112
T/F: Cylindrical, spherical, and hook are examples of power grips.
True
113
T/F: The hand of a prosthetic is called a terminal device.
True
114
T/F: Colles' fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement.
True
115
T/F: A person's quality of movement is impacted by the environment.
True
116
What is considered a transitional movement?
- sit to stand
- supine
- standing
- static balance
sit to stand
117
T/F: Kinesiology can be used in remedial and compensatory approaches.
True
118
T/F: Kinesiology can be used alone to solve a client's problem.
False
119
T/F: Motor behavior is a term that describes how the similar concepts of motor development, motor learning, and motor control combine to typify muscular control and movement.
True
120
T/F: Occupational therapy assistant entry-level practice requires knowledge of kinesiology.
True
121
T/F: ACOTE and NBCOT are the same organization.
False
122
T/F: The WHO ICF and AOTA OTPF-3 promote a holistic approach.
True
123
T/F: The OTPF-3 is the comprehensive knowledge base for all OT practice.
False
124
T/F: Internal motivators are the most influential.
False
125
T/F: Client factors may be either internal or external to the client.
True
126
T/F: Context and environment do not affect occupational performance.
False
127
T/F: It is important to know what motivates the client.
True
128
T/F: Motivators remain constant throughout a person's life.
False
129
T/F: The biomechanical approach is a holistic approach.
False
130
T/F: The three types of muscle are cardiac, smooth, and skeletal.
True
131
T/F: Sensory neurons are also called afferent or ascending.
True
132
T/F: An upper motor neuron (UMN) injury leads to flaccid paralysis.
False
133
T/F: Dermatomes map out motor innervation.
False
134
T/F: Decubiti can form over bony landmarks that are called projections.
True
135
T/F: Some bony landmarks protect structures such as nerves.
True
136
T/F: The only function of bones is to provide support for the body.
False
137
T/F: Skeletal muscle serves as a protective function for internal organs.
True
138
T/F: Skeletal muscle can provide stability as well as mobililty.
True
139
T/F: Environment is considered internal whereas context is external.
False
140
T/F: A person's participation in activity is based solely on physical health or diagnosis.
False
141
T/F: Universal design only applies to built structures.
False
142
T/F: The fluid force of buoyancy aids a client with arthritis to perform range of motion without pain.
True
143
T/F: Mass and weight describe the same thing and are interchangeable.
False
144
T/F: All levers are designed to produce balance.
False
145
T/F: An open kinematic chain allows for free movement of the distal extremity.
True
146
T/F: More injuries occur when a join is open-packed position.
True
147
T/F: The ICF states that having a diagnosis or disease is indicative of a disability and decrease in physical function.
False
148
What is the principle of mechanics and anatomy in relation to human movement?
kinesiology
149
What is the most recent model in OT incorporating kinesiology principles?
Biomechanical model
150
According to the WHO-ICF, what is the level of dysfunction that occurs at the body level?
Impairment
151
According to the WHO-ICF, what is the level of dysfunction that occurs at the individual level?
Activity limitation
152
According to the WHO-ICF, what is the level of dysfunction that occurs at the societal level?
Participation restriction
153
Eating a meal best fits in which domain of occupational therapy according to the OTPF-3?
area of occupation
154
The activity of brushing one's teeth every night best fits into which domain of occupational therapy?
Performance patterns
155
Muscles, bones, and nerves describe which aspect of client factors?
body structures
156
What domain of occupational therapy describes the unique qualities of an activity?
activity demands
157
Which aspect contributes to disability?
a. societal attitudes
b. context
c. environment
d. all of the above
all of the above
158
Which statement is true? "Having a disease or diagnosis...
- always leads to a decrease in function
- does not mean there is a disability
- is the responsibility of the individual
- focuses purely on the medial aspect
does not mean there is a disability
159
What model best describes the OTPF-3?
Biopsychosocial
160
The OTPF-3 provides:
- The specific knowledge needed for occupation therapy practice
- A guide to the practice of occupational therapy
- Terminology to use, such as patient
- An in-depth discussion of kinesiology
A guide to the practice of occupational therapy
161
The meaning of the term occupation is most closely related to:
- everyday activity
- work-related activity
- activity you are paid to be involved in
- leisure and free time activities
everyday activity
162
The World Health Organization (WHO) defines health as:
including physical, mental, and social well-being
163
According to the ICF, a disability is caused by:
- an individual's medical diagnosis
- restriction imposed by society
- family history and culture
- many different factors
many different factors
164
What are the two major sections of the OTPF-3?
Domain and process
165
In order for your client to be more independent at home, the inside doors were removed so the wheelchair can fit through. This is an example of a modification to:
the physical environment
166
Your client demonstrates an internal locus of control. The client believes that:
his or her actions will have an impact on the outcome
167
For an external factor to be motivating to a client, it needs to include:
personal value or importance
168
Which of the following may be a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
- lower motor neuron injury
- flaccid paralysis
- upper motor neuron injury
- middle neuron injury
upper motor neuron injury
169
Sensory neurons relay information:
to the cerebral cortex
170
The division of the CNS concerned with voluntary movement is the:
cerebral cortex
171
Your client suffers from ataxia, a movement disorder, caused by damage to what area of the CNS?
cerebellum
172
Your client suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Where did this injury occur?
central nervous system (CNS)
173
The cardiovascular system helps to support movement by all of the following except:
- removing waste product from tissues
- providing nutrients to tissues
- providing oxygen to tissues
- removing oxygen from tissues
removing oxygen from tissues
174
If a join moves in the sagittal plane, the axis is what?
Frontal plane
175
What describes a structure's ability to return to its original shape?
elasticity
176
When a muscle is activated, it can only:
produce tension
177
What type of contraction does not change the length of the muscle?
isometric
178
What type of contraction changes the length of a muscle?
eccentric
179
Your patient is performing hip abduction. In which plane does this motion occur?
frontal
180
The knee is uniaxial and moves in flexion and extension. What is the axis?
Frontal
181
Which of the following contextual factors is the most difficult to modify?
- personal
- cultural
- temporal
- virtual
personal
182
The aspect of the environment that is concerned with the person's ability to use common features is termed:
negotiability
183
Universal design is intended to enable use for:
all people
184
External forces that contribute to shear force and may result in decubiti include:
friction, pressure, forces parallel to skin's surface
185
All forces share the qualities of:
magnitude and direction
186
If the point of application of force is directly through the object's center of gravity, the motion produced will be:
linear
187
A force couple is designed to:
increase strength in rotary motion
188
Join compression occurs naturally in the lower extremity during which of the following activities:
- walking
- doing a push-up
- hanging upside down from a jungle gym
- sleeping
walking
189
Pressure over a small surface area can lead to:
decubiti
190
Which of Newton's laws describes why it is easier to continue pushing a lightweight client in a wheelchair as compared to a heavier client?
law of acceleration
191
The use of seatbelts to stop forward motion of passengers during a car accident is based on Newton's law of:
law of inertia
192
You are using a nutcracker to try to open walnuts. The nuts are too hard to crack so you increase the mechanical advantage of the nutcracker by:
lengthening the handles
193
The distance from the point of application of force to the axis of rotation is called the:
force arm
194
In general, the longer force arm gives the mechanical advantage of?
increased strength
195
What class lever is the most common in the human body?
3rd class lever
196
What class of lever is designed for increased speed and range of motion (ROM)?
3rd class lever
197
What class of lever is designed for power and strength?
2nd class lever
198
What class of lever is designed for balance?
1st class lever
199
Your client is doing straight leg lifts from a seated position. The client complains of "cramping" as the leg reaches 100 degrees of hip flexion. This could be due to:
active insufficiency of the muscles of the anterior thigh
200
Passive insufficiency of the long finger flexors can assist a person with weakness in doing which of the following?
- grasp something
- play the piano
- type
- make pottery
grasp something
201
The condition of insufficiency occurs because a muscle:
crosses two or more joints
202
In a closed-kinetic chain, movement at one joint:
causes movement at subsequent joints
203
When working with a client, it is important to remember that a joint is most stable in:
the close-pack position
204
Which class lever allows for balance?
a first class lever
205
Who establishes accreditation standards for occupational therapy that includes knowledge of kinesiology?
ACOTE
206
T/F: The skeletal system is the only body system that contributes to movement.
false
207
Sapulohumeral rhythm is represented by which ratio?
2:1
208
T/F: The carrying angle is greater in men than in women.
false
209
T/F: Active range of motion (AROM) and passive range of motion (PROM) evaluate the same quality of movement.
false
210
What is defined as the outcome of motor learning?
motor control
211
In ROM testing, where is the center of the goniometer placed?
Axis of the joint being measured
212
Anterior pelvic tilt creates what condition in the lumbar spine?
increased lordosis
213
What is an example of a motor and praxis performance skill?
- muscle power
- adjusting posture
- muscle tone
- reflexes
adjusting posture
214
Which is the appropriate elbow flexion ROM measurement using the neutral zero method?
- 140 degrees
- 0 degrees
- 140 to 0 degrees
- 0 to 140 degrees
0 to 140 degrees
215
T/F: Sitting balance does not involve the ability to reach.
True
216
Linda fell and injured a muscle in her rotator cuff. Which muscle could it be?
- anterior deltoid
- posterior deltoid
- subscapularis
- serratus anterior
subscapularis
217
Muscles that act as synergists provide
a stronger force along the line of pull
218
What muscle is a prime mover in wrist flexion and ulnar deviation?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
219
T/F: Pelvic position dictates the positioning of the rest of the vertebral column.
True
220
Brushing the hair on the back of your head requires which GH joint motion?
- GH joint external rotation
- GH joint internal rotation
- GH joint extension
- Upward rotation
GH joint external rotation
221
T/F: Normal typical movement is an example of adaptive motor behavior.
True
222
What landmark is used to measure GH joint horizontal abduction?
acromion process
223
Elbow flexion is an example of what type of end feel?
soft
224
Using the neutral zero method, how do you record 45 degrees of shoulder flexion?
0 to 45 degrees
225
A client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) displays flaccid paralysis of his dominant upper extremity. He can no longer play golf, which might best be described as:
abnormal atypical movement
226
T/F: Normal curves in the vertebral column provide support and strength.
True
227
T/F: When transferring from sitting to standing, the center of gravity remains the same.
False
228
Which ROM measurement describes forearm pronation using the neutral zero method?
- 8 degrees
- 0 degrees
- 80 to 0 degrees
- 0 to 80 degrees
0 to 80 degrees
229
Which is NOT a measure to increase standardization of ROM?
- selecting the client position that will not limit joint ROM
- utilizing the same type and size goniometer
- documenting any influential factors to ROM
- assessing MMT strength in the affected extremity first
assessing MMT strength in the affected extremity first
230
Which is a characteristic of normal atypical movement?
- coordination
- decreased time
- high velocity
- inefficiency
inefficiency
231
T/F: A manual muscle testing (MMT) grade of 2+ is the same as (F+).
False
232
T/F: The shoulder joint is an example of a body structure.
True
233
T/F: In forearm rotation, the radius moves around the ulna.
True
234
The true elbow flexor muscle is known as which muscle?
brachialis
235
Which body structure helps to keep the radius and ulna from separating?
interosseous membrane
236
T/F: There are 35 vertebra making up the vertebral column.
False
237
T/F: Increased kyphosis in the thoracic vertebrae can be reversible or fixed.
True
238
How much combined wrist ROM is necessary to complete most activities of daily living (ADLs)?
40 degrees
239
T/F: The radiocarpal joint is classified as a biaxial joint.
True
240
T/F: Antagonists are muscles that work together to increase the strength of a desired movement as they work in unison.
False
241
Which condition affects the abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, and the extensor pollicis brevis?
de Quarvian's
242
Symptoms caused by prolonged immobilization in a cast is called:
fracture disease
243
T/F: The intervertebral disks consists of 23 disks that allow for flexibility of the vertebral column as well as absorb and transmit shock in the vertebral column.
True
244
T/F: The combination of wrist flexion and extension together is called circumduction.
False
245
T/F: The triceps muscle can assist with forearm rotation.
False
246
Which elbow muscle always contracts during elbow flexion?
brachialis
247
T/F: The lumbosacral joint is the most important joint for trunk motions and connects the pelvis to the vertebral column.
True
248
T/F: Synergists are muscles that work against each other to equal or cancel out the movement and therefore gain stability.
False
249
T/F: Normal wrist range of motion (ROM) can be best determined by comparison of the involved side to the uninvolved side of the client.
True
250
T/F: An individual with pelvic obliquity would have issues with one side of their hip being higher than the other and could possibly lead to pressure ulcers.
True
251
Complications after a distal radius fracture include all of the following except:
- carpal tunnel syndrome
- complex regional pain syndrome
- tendon rupture
- avascular necrosis
avascular necrosis
252
T/F: Extrinsic hand muscles originate in the forearm, cross the wrist, and attach in the hand.
True
253
T/F: Complex regional pain syndrome is sometimes referred to as reflex sympathetic dystrophy.
True
254
T/F: The bicep is a stronger flexor muscle when combined with forearm pronation.
False
255
T/F: The vertebral column is biaxial and allows movement in 2 planes.
False
256
Which muscle primarily supinates the forearm?
biceps brachii
257
T/F: If the radial nerve is damaged affecting the triceps, the distal arm muscles innervated by the radial nerve will not be affected.
False
258
T/F: An extensor carpi radialis brevis tear is called tennis elbow.
True
259
Which nerve does not innervate the hand?
- median
- ulnar
- radial
- musculocutaneous
musculocutaneous
260
T/F: Primary adhesive capsulitis is also known as "frozen shoulder" that consists of three stages. The shoulder begins to lose range of motion during the second stage which is known as the "painful stage."
false
261
T/F: Postural control is ongoing from infant to a person's adult years.
False
262
The elbow flexors are strongest at approximately which range of motion (ROM)?
0 to 90 degrees
263
T/F: The sacroiliac joint is the most important articulation in the pelvic girdle.
False
264
T/F: Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs on the lateral side of the elbow.
False
265
Which two muscles provide a force couple at the forearm?
- biceps/brachialis
- biceps/supinator
- biceps/brachioradialis
- biceps/triceps
-biceps/supinator
266
During upper body dressing, you observe that Johnny has full ROM with shoulder flexion. What best describes the MMT procedures you will perform next in MMT?
- ROM
- Gravity eliminated testing
- Isometric testing
- Observation
-Isometric testing
267
What is the action of the flexor digitorum profundus?
flexion (4 fingers- DIP joints)
268
What is the origin and insertion of the pronator teres?
middle of lateral shaft of radius, medial epicondyle of humerus (humeral head)
269
What is the origin and insertion of the pectineus?
superior ramus of anterior pubis, pectineal line of femur
270
What is the action of the extensor carpi radialis brevis?
extension
271
What is the origin and insertion of the flexor pollicis longus?
base of distal phalanx of thumb, posterior ulna
