Final (Add to Test 2 and 3 Review Decks) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the teres major?

A

inferior angle of scapula, bicipital groove of the humerus (medial)

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2
Q

The group of muscles that form the “fleshy pad” on the radial side of the palm are called:

A

thenar eminence

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3
Q

The two arches of the feet are:

A

longitudinal arch and transverse arch

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4
Q

What are the two primary movers for ankle dorsiflexion?

A

tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus

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5
Q

What are the actions of the upper and lower parts of the trapezius?

A

depression and elevation

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6
Q

What is the action of the pronator quadratus?

A

pronation

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7
Q

What are the two prime movers for ankle plantarflexion?

A

gastrocnemius and soleus

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8
Q

What is the longest muscle of the body and most superficial thigh muscle that forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?

A

sartorius

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9
Q

What is the name of the muscle that is the strongest dorsiflexor of the ankle and enables the toes to clear the ground during ambulation? (Injury to this muscle can cause foot drop as well as shin splints.)

A

tibialis anterior

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10
Q

What is the innervation of the adductor pollicis?

A

ulnar nerve

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11
Q

The strongest hip flexor is the ______.

A

iliopsoas

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12
Q

The intrinsic muscles of the hand are controlled (innervated) by the ______.

A

median and ulnar nerve

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13
Q

The muscle(s) that originates on the transverse process of the cervical vertebrae and inserts on the upper two ribs with the primary purpose of flexing and rotating the neck as well as assisting in inspiration

A

scalenes

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14
Q

The anterior forearm is innervated by the _____ nerve, with the exception of the FCU.

A

median

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15
Q

The interossei are innervated by the:

A

ulnar nerve

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16
Q

What nerve innervates the flexor digitorum superficialis?

A

median nerve

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17
Q

The flexor muscles of the forearm originate on the:

A

medial epicondyle

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18
Q

The hypothenar eminence is innervated by the ______.

A

ulnar nerve

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19
Q

What muscle originates on the upper 8 ribs, inserts at the medial border of the scapula, abducts, and laterally rotates the scapula?

A

serratus anterior

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20
Q

What is the action of the subscapularis?

A

medial rotation

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21
Q

What are the prime movers for the hip (femur) flexion?

A

pectineus and psoas major and illiacus

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22
Q

The gluteus minimus and medius insert at the _______.

A

greater trochanter of femur

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23
Q

The dorsum of the hand is innervated by the _____ nerve.

A

radial

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24
Q

The three prime hip (femur) adductors generally insert on the ________.

A

linea aspera of the femur

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25
Q

What is the only muscle in the quadriceps group that contributes to action of the hip (femur)?

A

rectus femoris

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26
Q

What nerve innervates the dorsal interossei?

A

ulnar nerve

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27
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the deltoid?

A

deltoid tuberosity of humerus and lateral third of clavicle

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28
Q

The thenar muscles are innervated by the:

A

median and ulnar nerve

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29
Q

What are the actions of the rhomboid major?

A

medial (downward) rotation of the scapula and adduction (retraction)

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30
Q

The extensor muscles of the forearm originate in the:

A

lateral epicondyle

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31
Q

The muscles that make up the thenar eminence include:

A

flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis

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32
Q

What are the two prime movers for foot eversion?

A

fibularis longus and fibularis tertius

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33
Q

What ligament of the knee provides anterior stability and is a place for a common knee injury?

A

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

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34
Q

What is the action of the supinator?

A

supination of the forearm

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35
Q

The muscles that make up the hypothenar eminence include:

A

flexor digiti minimi brevis, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi

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36
Q

Increased heart rate during exercise is an example of which concept in therapeutic exercise?

A

Intensity

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37
Q
Therapeutic exercise can be incorporated in which phase of recovery?
A. Healing phase
B. Improvement
C. Inflammatory response
D. Both a and b
A

D. Both a and b

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38
Q

Which muscle contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens as it contracts?

A

Eccentric contraction

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39
Q

Which statement is true?
A. Velocity increases with eccentric contractions
B. Velocity increases with concentric contractions
C. Velocity increases with isometric contractions
D. Maximal force at high velocities is advantageous

A

B. Velocity increases with concentric contractions

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40
Q

Suzie is in therapy to regain shoulder range of motion (ROM) after a total shoulder arthroplasty. Where is Suzie in the continuum of function?

A

Impaired function/Rehabilitation

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41
Q

Which statement of static stretching is true?
A. Passive range of motion (PROM) below the threshold of pain sustained 20 to 30 seconds
B. Active range of motion (AROM) below the threshold of pain sustained 20 to 30 seconds
C. PROM below the threshold of pain more than 20 to 30 seconds
D. AROM below the threshold of pain more than 20 to 30 seconds

A

A. Passive range of motion (PROM) below the threshold of pain sustained 20 to 30 seconds

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42
Q

Maximal force generation occurs in what type of muscle contraction?

A

Eccentric contractions

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43
Q
A client decided not to use mouthwash after brushing his teeth as he thought his teeth were clean enough. Which aspect of function BEST describes this statement?
A. Functional abilities
B. Ability to complete a task
C. To achieve occupations as desired
D. Social context
A

C. To achieve occupations as desired

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44
Q

Which phase of the healing process occurs directly after injury?

A

B. Inflammation

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45
Q

What should the first goal of the rehabilitation process address?

A

Pain and swelling

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46
Q

The occupational therapy assistant is working with a client who displays difficulty with wheelchair propulsion. What is most likely the problem with the ability to propel the wheelchair?

A

seat width too wide

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47
Q

Signs and symptoms of which condition include fatigue, joint pain, inflammation, edema, warmth, and redness?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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48
Q

T/F: Intrinsic hand muscles cross the wrist but have a more significant function.

A

false

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49
Q

T/F: The occupational therapy assistant can instruct standing balance and transfer training to a client.

A

true

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50
Q

What is the goniometric landmark for hip flexion?

A

lateral aspect of the greater trochanter

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51
Q

T/F: The living room is considered an open environment.

A

False

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52
Q

What type of lift utilizes the longest and strongest muscles possible for the task?

A

diagonal lift

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53
Q

T/F: Boutonniere deformity describes a digit that is flexed at the PIP and hyperextended at the DIP.

A

True

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54
Q

T/F: Functional ability is considered an activity of daily living (ADL).

A

False

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55
Q

What is the proper name for pelvic rotation when the right ASIS landmark is anterior to the left ASIS landmark?

A

forward pelvic rotation

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56
Q

T/F: Thumb opposition is a combination of thumb flexion and abduction.

A

True

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57
Q

T/F: Carrying clothes to the bathroom to get dressed requires multiple motor skills.

A

True

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58
Q

T/F: Occupation therapy usually provides the direct treatment for foot drop.

A

False

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59
Q

What is the goniometric landmark for ankle dorsiflexion?

A

Over the lateral malleolus

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60
Q

T/F: The functional position of the hand is wrist extended 20 degrees, fingers slightly extended, and thumb in opposition.

A

False

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61
Q

T/F: Typically, the physical therapist will tell the occupational therapy assistant which type of transfer is needed.

A

False

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62
Q

What is the goniometric landmark for hip adduction?

A

Over the ASIS

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63
Q

What motion occurs when the ASIS landmarks are posterior to the pubic symphysis?

A

posterior pelvic tilt

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64
Q

T/F: Open environments are more predictable environments.

A

False

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65
Q

The occupational therapy assistant is using an orthotic in therapy. What is the occupational therapy assistant most likely NOT trying to achieve?

a. provide rest or support
b. increase function
c. increase range of motion
d. maintain abnormal muscle tone

A

d. maintain abnormal muscle tone

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66
Q

Which digit can abduct in either direction?

A

Third

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67
Q

How does the OTPF-3 categorize functional mobility?

A

ADL

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68
Q

Small finger intrinsic movements include all of the following except:

  • opposition
  • extension
  • abduction
A

extension

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69
Q

Johnny is learning to alternate heavy tasks and light tasks to be able to complete his ADL tasks in a timely fashion each morning. What is Johnny learning?

A

energy conservation

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70
Q

T/F: The ulnar nerve is known as the “nerve of function” for the hand.

A

False

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71
Q

What joint motion is impaired by foot drop?

A

ankle dorsiflexion

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72
Q

Johnny is learning the proper foundation of sliding board transfers so as to assist his wife to transfer to the wheelchair or commode. What is Johnny learning?

A

body mechanics

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73
Q

Splints are considered what type of lever?

A

First class

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74
Q

T/F: Pronation of the ankle is a combined active motion of dorsiflexion, eversion, and abduction.

A

True

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75
Q

T/F: The PIP joints of the fingers are commonly called the knuckles.

A

False

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76
Q

T/F: In anterior pelvic tilt, the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) move downwards and forwards.

A

True

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77
Q

The thumb has three joints, which is not a joint of the thumb?

  • MCP
  • CMC
  • PIP
  • IP
A

PIP

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78
Q

Johnny has just started therapy to relearn motor skills that became impaired after breaking his fourth and fifth metacarpal bones when he punched a brick wall. The therapist will most likely choose which type of skill and environment to begin therapy?

A

closed skill/closed environment

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79
Q

The occupational therapy assistant is working with a client to increase independence with bed mobility starting from supine in the bed. Which functional mobility will the client most likely initiate first?

A

rolling

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80
Q

T/F: Transferring to a bathtub may be best achieved with a tub transfer bench or chair because it removes the possibility of tripping while stepping into the tub.

A

True

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81
Q

What is the goniometric landmark for knee flexion?

A

lateral epicondyle of the femur

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82
Q

T/F: The spine in neutral alignment is an example of good body mechanics.

A

True

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83
Q

T/F: Gait patterns and walking patterns have the same meaning.

A

True

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84
Q

T/F: Functional mobility for bathing only relates to tub and shower transfers.

A

False

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85
Q

T/F: When the thumb moves toward the ceiling with the hand facing palm up, the movement is referred to as palmar abduction.

A

True

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86
Q

Swing phase accounts for how much of the gait cycle?

A

40%

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87
Q

Swan neck deformity describes fingers that are:

A

hyperextended at the PIP and flexed at the DIP

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88
Q

Pincer grasp is typically developed at what age?

A

9 to 12 months

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89
Q

T/F: Motor skills are an example of client factors.

A

False

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90
Q

T/F: Most ADL’s require elements of functional mobility.

A

True

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91
Q

What is the goniometric landmark for hip internal rotation?

A

over the midpoint of the patella

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92
Q

Johnny has experienced a bilateral below-the-knee amputation due to a motor vehicle accident. Johnny has learned to regain his mobility to interact with his environment using a lightweight wheelchair. This is an example of what?

A

assistive technology

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93
Q

T/F: A soft wrist cock-up splint applies force to the wrist when applied.

A

True

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94
Q

What is NOT a treatment for edema?

  • elevation
  • cardiovascular exercise
  • movement
  • hot packs
A

hot packs

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95
Q

What is the typical distance between the feet during ambulation?

A

2 to 4 inches

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96
Q

T/F: Posterior pelvic tilt is a component of good body mechanics.

A

False

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97
Q

T/F: Supination of the ankle is a combined active motion of plantarflexion and inversion only.

A

False

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98
Q

What is the most important function of the hand?

A

opposition

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99
Q

T/F: A posterior pelvic tilt is needed during sitting to enable the trunk to accomplish normal reaching.

A

False

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100
Q

T/F: A standard wheelchair is typically 22 to 24 inches wide.

A

False

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101
Q

T/F: Dorsiflexion occurs when the client puts his or her foot into the pant legs during lower extremity dressing.

A

False

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102
Q

Which condition is associated with a Stenar lesion?

  • Skier’s thumb
  • Dupuytren’s disease
  • Trigger finger
  • Tendinitis
A

Skier’s thumb

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103
Q

T/F: It is important for an individual with weak lower extremities, poor balance, and decreased endurance to continue to complete tasks such as stepping into a bathtub and standing to shower in order to increase independence with functional tasks.

A

False

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104
Q

T/F: Lifting with a straight back reduces pressure on the back by up to 25%.

A

True

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105
Q

What is the best functional task that requires opposition?

  • writing
  • holding a soda can
  • gripping a baseball
  • wiping a table
A

writing

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106
Q

Which joint only abducts at the MCP and does not adduct?

A

third digit

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107
Q

T/F: The PIP joints are closer to the fingertips than the DIP joints.

A

False

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108
Q

Stance phase accounts for how much of the gait cycle?

A

60%

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109
Q

T/F: Step length and stride length have the same meaning.

A

False

110
Q

T/F: Compared to the glenohumeral joint, the hip joint has greater mobility but less stability.

A

False

111
Q

T/F: Lower extremity amputation is an example of a body structure.

A

True

112
Q

T/F: Cylindrical, spherical, and hook are examples of power grips.

A

True

113
Q

T/F: The hand of a prosthetic is called a terminal device.

A

True

114
Q

T/F: Colles’ fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement.

A

True

115
Q

T/F: A person’s quality of movement is impacted by the environment.

A

True

116
Q

What is considered a transitional movement?

  • sit to stand
  • supine
  • standing
  • static balance
A

sit to stand

117
Q

T/F: Kinesiology can be used in remedial and compensatory approaches.

A

True

118
Q

T/F: Kinesiology can be used alone to solve a client’s problem.

A

False

119
Q

T/F: Motor behavior is a term that describes how the similar concepts of motor development, motor learning, and motor control combine to typify muscular control and movement.

A

True

120
Q

T/F: Occupational therapy assistant entry-level practice requires knowledge of kinesiology.

A

True

121
Q

T/F: ACOTE and NBCOT are the same organization.

A

False

122
Q

T/F: The WHO ICF and AOTA OTPF-3 promote a holistic approach.

A

True

123
Q

T/F: The OTPF-3 is the comprehensive knowledge base for all OT practice.

A

False

124
Q

T/F: Internal motivators are the most influential.

A

False

125
Q

T/F: Client factors may be either internal or external to the client.

A

True

126
Q

T/F: Context and environment do not affect occupational performance.

A

False

127
Q

T/F: It is important to know what motivates the client.

A

True

128
Q

T/F: Motivators remain constant throughout a person’s life.

A

False

129
Q

T/F: The biomechanical approach is a holistic approach.

A

False

130
Q

T/F: The three types of muscle are cardiac, smooth, and skeletal.

A

True

131
Q

T/F: Sensory neurons are also called afferent or ascending.

A

True

132
Q

T/F: An upper motor neuron (UMN) injury leads to flaccid paralysis.

A

False

133
Q

T/F: Dermatomes map out motor innervation.

A

False

134
Q

T/F: Decubiti can form over bony landmarks that are called projections.

A

True

135
Q

T/F: Some bony landmarks protect structures such as nerves.

A

True

136
Q

T/F: The only function of bones is to provide support for the body.

A

False

137
Q

T/F: Skeletal muscle serves as a protective function for internal organs.

A

True

138
Q

T/F: Skeletal muscle can provide stability as well as mobililty.

A

True

139
Q

T/F: Environment is considered internal whereas context is external.

A

False

140
Q

T/F: A person’s participation in activity is based solely on physical health or diagnosis.

A

False

141
Q

T/F: Universal design only applies to built structures.

A

False

142
Q

T/F: The fluid force of buoyancy aids a client with arthritis to perform range of motion without pain.

A

True

143
Q

T/F: Mass and weight describe the same thing and are interchangeable.

A

False

144
Q

T/F: All levers are designed to produce balance.

A

False

145
Q

T/F: An open kinematic chain allows for free movement of the distal extremity.

A

True

146
Q

T/F: More injuries occur when a join is open-packed position.

A

True

147
Q

T/F: The ICF states that having a diagnosis or disease is indicative of a disability and decrease in physical function.

A

False

148
Q

What is the principle of mechanics and anatomy in relation to human movement?

A

kinesiology

149
Q

What is the most recent model in OT incorporating kinesiology principles?

A

Biomechanical model

150
Q

According to the WHO-ICF, what is the level of dysfunction that occurs at the body level?

A

Impairment

151
Q

According to the WHO-ICF, what is the level of dysfunction that occurs at the individual level?

A

Activity limitation

152
Q

According to the WHO-ICF, what is the level of dysfunction that occurs at the societal level?

A

Participation restriction

153
Q

Eating a meal best fits in which domain of occupational therapy according to the OTPF-3?

A

area of occupation

154
Q

The activity of brushing one’s teeth every night best fits into which domain of occupational therapy?

A

Performance patterns

155
Q

Muscles, bones, and nerves describe which aspect of client factors?

A

body structures

156
Q

What domain of occupational therapy describes the unique qualities of an activity?

A

activity demands

157
Q

Which aspect contributes to disability?

a. societal attitudes
b. context
c. environment
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

158
Q

Which statement is true? “Having a disease or diagnosis…

  • always leads to a decrease in function
  • does not mean there is a disability
  • is the responsibility of the individual
  • focuses purely on the medial aspect
A

does not mean there is a disability

159
Q

What model best describes the OTPF-3?

A

Biopsychosocial

160
Q

The OTPF-3 provides:

  • The specific knowledge needed for occupation therapy practice
  • A guide to the practice of occupational therapy
  • Terminology to use, such as patient
  • An in-depth discussion of kinesiology
A

A guide to the practice of occupational therapy

161
Q

The meaning of the term occupation is most closely related to:

  • everyday activity
  • work-related activity
  • activity you are paid to be involved in
  • leisure and free time activities
A

everyday activity

162
Q

The World Health Organization (WHO) defines health as:

A

including physical, mental, and social well-being

163
Q

According to the ICF, a disability is caused by:

  • an individual’s medical diagnosis
  • restriction imposed by society
  • family history and culture
  • many different factors
A

many different factors

164
Q

What are the two major sections of the OTPF-3?

A

Domain and process

165
Q

In order for your client to be more independent at home, the inside doors were removed so the wheelchair can fit through. This is an example of a modification to:

A

the physical environment

166
Q

Your client demonstrates an internal locus of control. The client believes that:

A

his or her actions will have an impact on the outcome

167
Q

For an external factor to be motivating to a client, it needs to include:

A

personal value or importance

168
Q

Which of the following may be a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

  • lower motor neuron injury
  • flaccid paralysis
  • upper motor neuron injury
  • middle neuron injury
A

upper motor neuron injury

169
Q

Sensory neurons relay information:

A

to the cerebral cortex

170
Q

The division of the CNS concerned with voluntary movement is the:

A

cerebral cortex

171
Q

Your client suffers from ataxia, a movement disorder, caused by damage to what area of the CNS?

A

cerebellum

172
Q

Your client suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Where did this injury occur?

A

central nervous system (CNS)

173
Q

The cardiovascular system helps to support movement by all of the following except:

  • removing waste product from tissues
  • providing nutrients to tissues
  • providing oxygen to tissues
  • removing oxygen from tissues
A

removing oxygen from tissues

174
Q

If a join moves in the sagittal plane, the axis is what?

A

Frontal plane

175
Q

What describes a structure’s ability to return to its original shape?

A

elasticity

176
Q

When a muscle is activated, it can only:

A

produce tension

177
Q

What type of contraction does not change the length of the muscle?

A

isometric

178
Q

What type of contraction changes the length of a muscle?

A

eccentric

179
Q

Your patient is performing hip abduction. In which plane does this motion occur?

A

frontal

180
Q

The knee is uniaxial and moves in flexion and extension. What is the axis?

A

Frontal

181
Q

Which of the following contextual factors is the most difficult to modify?

  • personal
  • cultural
  • temporal
  • virtual
A

personal

182
Q

The aspect of the environment that is concerned with the person’s ability to use common features is termed:

A

negotiability

183
Q

Universal design is intended to enable use for:

A

all people

184
Q

External forces that contribute to shear force and may result in decubiti include:

A

friction, pressure, forces parallel to skin’s surface

185
Q

All forces share the qualities of:

A

magnitude and direction

186
Q

If the point of application of force is directly through the object’s center of gravity, the motion produced will be:

A

linear

187
Q

A force couple is designed to:

A

increase strength in rotary motion

188
Q

Join compression occurs naturally in the lower extremity during which of the following activities:

  • walking
  • doing a push-up
  • hanging upside down from a jungle gym
  • sleeping
A

walking

189
Q

Pressure over a small surface area can lead to:

A

decubiti

190
Q

Which of Newton’s laws describes why it is easier to continue pushing a lightweight client in a wheelchair as compared to a heavier client?

A

law of acceleration

191
Q

The use of seatbelts to stop forward motion of passengers during a car accident is based on Newton’s law of:

A

law of inertia

192
Q

You are using a nutcracker to try to open walnuts. The nuts are too hard to crack so you increase the mechanical advantage of the nutcracker by:

A

lengthening the handles

193
Q

The distance from the point of application of force to the axis of rotation is called the:

A

force arm

194
Q

In general, the longer force arm gives the mechanical advantage of?

A

increased strength

195
Q

What class lever is the most common in the human body?

A

3rd class lever

196
Q

What class of lever is designed for increased speed and range of motion (ROM)?

A

3rd class lever

197
Q

What class of lever is designed for power and strength?

A

2nd class lever

198
Q

What class of lever is designed for balance?

A

1st class lever

199
Q

Your client is doing straight leg lifts from a seated position. The client complains of “cramping” as the leg reaches 100 degrees of hip flexion. This could be due to:

A

active insufficiency of the muscles of the anterior thigh

200
Q

Passive insufficiency of the long finger flexors can assist a person with weakness in doing which of the following?

  • grasp something
  • play the piano
  • type
  • make pottery
A

grasp something

201
Q

The condition of insufficiency occurs because a muscle:

A

crosses two or more joints

202
Q

In a closed-kinetic chain, movement at one joint:

A

causes movement at subsequent joints

203
Q

When working with a client, it is important to remember that a joint is most stable in:

A

the close-pack position

204
Q

Which class lever allows for balance?

A

a first class lever

205
Q

Who establishes accreditation standards for occupational therapy that includes knowledge of kinesiology?

A

ACOTE

206
Q

T/F: The skeletal system is the only body system that contributes to movement.

A

false

207
Q

Sapulohumeral rhythm is represented by which ratio?

A

2:1

208
Q

T/F: The carrying angle is greater in men than in women.

A

false

209
Q

T/F: Active range of motion (AROM) and passive range of motion (PROM) evaluate the same quality of movement.

A

false

210
Q

What is defined as the outcome of motor learning?

A

motor control

211
Q

In ROM testing, where is the center of the goniometer placed?

A

Axis of the joint being measured

212
Q

Anterior pelvic tilt creates what condition in the lumbar spine?

A

increased lordosis

213
Q

What is an example of a motor and praxis performance skill?

  • muscle power
  • adjusting posture
  • muscle tone
  • reflexes
A

adjusting posture

214
Q

Which is the appropriate elbow flexion ROM measurement using the neutral zero method?

  • 140 degrees
  • 0 degrees
  • 140 to 0 degrees
  • 0 to 140 degrees
A

0 to 140 degrees

215
Q

T/F: Sitting balance does not involve the ability to reach.

A

True

216
Q

Linda fell and injured a muscle in her rotator cuff. Which muscle could it be?

  • anterior deltoid
  • posterior deltoid
  • subscapularis
  • serratus anterior
A

subscapularis

217
Q

Muscles that act as synergists provide

A

a stronger force along the line of pull

218
Q

What muscle is a prime mover in wrist flexion and ulnar deviation?

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris

219
Q

T/F: Pelvic position dictates the positioning of the rest of the vertebral column.

A

True

220
Q

Brushing the hair on the back of your head requires which GH joint motion?

  • GH joint external rotation
  • GH joint internal rotation
  • GH joint extension
  • Upward rotation
A

GH joint external rotation

221
Q

T/F: Normal typical movement is an example of adaptive motor behavior.

A

True

222
Q

What landmark is used to measure GH joint horizontal abduction?

A

acromion process

223
Q

Elbow flexion is an example of what type of end feel?

A

soft

224
Q

Using the neutral zero method, how do you record 45 degrees of shoulder flexion?

A

0 to 45 degrees

225
Q

A client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) displays flaccid paralysis of his dominant upper extremity. He can no longer play golf, which might best be described as:

A

abnormal atypical movement

226
Q

T/F: Normal curves in the vertebral column provide support and strength.

A

True

227
Q

T/F: When transferring from sitting to standing, the center of gravity remains the same.

A

False

228
Q

Which ROM measurement describes forearm pronation using the neutral zero method?

  • 8 degrees
  • 0 degrees
  • 80 to 0 degrees
  • 0 to 80 degrees
A

0 to 80 degrees

229
Q

Which is NOT a measure to increase standardization of ROM?

  • selecting the client position that will not limit joint ROM
  • utilizing the same type and size goniometer
  • documenting any influential factors to ROM
  • assessing MMT strength in the affected extremity first
A

assessing MMT strength in the affected extremity first

230
Q

Which is a characteristic of normal atypical movement?

  • coordination
  • decreased time
  • high velocity
  • inefficiency
A

inefficiency

231
Q

T/F: A manual muscle testing (MMT) grade of 2+ is the same as (F+).

A

False

232
Q

T/F: The shoulder joint is an example of a body structure.

A

True

233
Q

T/F: In forearm rotation, the radius moves around the ulna.

A

True

234
Q

The true elbow flexor muscle is known as which muscle?

A

brachialis

235
Q

Which body structure helps to keep the radius and ulna from separating?

A

interosseous membrane

236
Q

T/F: There are 35 vertebra making up the vertebral column.

A

False

237
Q

T/F: Increased kyphosis in the thoracic vertebrae can be reversible or fixed.

A

True

238
Q

How much combined wrist ROM is necessary to complete most activities of daily living (ADLs)?

A

40 degrees

239
Q

T/F: The radiocarpal joint is classified as a biaxial joint.

A

True

240
Q

T/F: Antagonists are muscles that work together to increase the strength of a desired movement as they work in unison.

A

False

241
Q

Which condition affects the abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, and the extensor pollicis brevis?

A

de Quarvian’s

242
Q

Symptoms caused by prolonged immobilization in a cast is called:

A

fracture disease

243
Q

T/F: The intervertebral disks consists of 23 disks that allow for flexibility of the vertebral column as well as absorb and transmit shock in the vertebral column.

A

True

244
Q

T/F: The combination of wrist flexion and extension together is called circumduction.

A

False

245
Q

T/F: The triceps muscle can assist with forearm rotation.

A

False

246
Q

Which elbow muscle always contracts during elbow flexion?

A

brachialis

247
Q

T/F: The lumbosacral joint is the most important joint for trunk motions and connects the pelvis to the vertebral column.

A

True

248
Q

T/F: Synergists are muscles that work against each other to equal or cancel out the movement and therefore gain stability.

A

False

249
Q

T/F: Normal wrist range of motion (ROM) can be best determined by comparison of the involved side to the uninvolved side of the client.

A

True

250
Q

T/F: An individual with pelvic obliquity would have issues with one side of their hip being higher than the other and could possibly lead to pressure ulcers.

A

True

251
Q

Complications after a distal radius fracture include all of the following except:

  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • complex regional pain syndrome
  • tendon rupture
  • avascular necrosis
A

avascular necrosis

252
Q

T/F: Extrinsic hand muscles originate in the forearm, cross the wrist, and attach in the hand.

A

True

253
Q

T/F: Complex regional pain syndrome is sometimes referred to as reflex sympathetic dystrophy.

A

True

254
Q

T/F: The bicep is a stronger flexor muscle when combined with forearm pronation.

A

False

255
Q

T/F: The vertebral column is biaxial and allows movement in 2 planes.

A

False

256
Q

Which muscle primarily supinates the forearm?

A

biceps brachii

257
Q

T/F: If the radial nerve is damaged affecting the triceps, the distal arm muscles innervated by the radial nerve will not be affected.

A

False

258
Q

T/F: An extensor carpi radialis brevis tear is called tennis elbow.

A

True

259
Q

Which nerve does not innervate the hand?

  • median
  • ulnar
  • radial
  • musculocutaneous
A

musculocutaneous

260
Q

T/F: Primary adhesive capsulitis is also known as “frozen shoulder” that consists of three stages. The shoulder begins to lose range of motion during the second stage which is known as the “painful stage.”

A

false

261
Q

T/F: Postural control is ongoing from infant to a person’s adult years.

A

False

262
Q

The elbow flexors are strongest at approximately which range of motion (ROM)?

A

0 to 90 degrees

263
Q

T/F: The sacroiliac joint is the most important articulation in the pelvic girdle.

A

False

264
Q

T/F: Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs on the lateral side of the elbow.

A

False

265
Q

Which two muscles provide a force couple at the forearm?

  • biceps/brachialis
  • biceps/supinator
  • biceps/brachioradialis
  • biceps/triceps
A

-biceps/supinator

266
Q

During upper body dressing, you observe that Johnny has full ROM with shoulder flexion. What best describes the MMT procedures you will perform next in MMT?

  • ROM
  • Gravity eliminated testing
  • Isometric testing
  • Observation
A

-Isometric testing

267
Q

What is the action of the flexor digitorum profundus?

A

flexion (4 fingers- DIP joints)

268
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the pronator teres?

A

middle of lateral shaft of radius, medial epicondyle of humerus (humeral head)

269
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the pectineus?

A

superior ramus of anterior pubis, pectineal line of femur

270
Q

What is the action of the extensor carpi radialis brevis?

A

extension

271
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the flexor pollicis longus?

A

base of distal phalanx of thumb, posterior ulna