Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Abdominal > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

what are adrenal glands?

A

cresent shaped hypoechoic structures surrounded by echogenic fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the regions of adrenal glands?

A
  • medulla=inner portion

- cortex=outer portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what percent of the medulla comprises the gland?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what percent of the cortex comprises the gland?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where is the adrenal gland located in the body?

A

gerota’s fascia within the perinephric space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where is the adrenal gland located to the kidney?

A
  • anterior
  • medial
  • superior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where is the right adrenal located?

A

posterolateral to the IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where is the left adrenal located?

A
  • lateral to aorta

- posteromedial to splenic artery and tail of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the vascular supply of the adrenal glands?

A
  • superior suprarenal artery
  • middle suprarenal artery
  • inferior suprarenal artery
  • Rt suprarenal vein
  • left suprarenal vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where does the superior suprarenal artery arise from?

A

inferior phrenic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where does the middle suprarenal artery arise from?

A

lateraal aspect of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where does the inferior suprarenal artery arise from?

A

renal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where does the right suprarenal vein drain?

A

IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where does the left suprarenal vein drain?

A

left renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the adrenal functions?

A
  • endocrine glands
  • produce hormones
  • medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
  • corte secretes glutocorticoids, gonadal hormones, and mineral corticoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are some indications for scanning the adrenal glands?

A
  • abnormal lab values
  • increase in abdoinal girth
  • chronic liver disease
  • congestive heart failure
  • etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are adrenal lab values?

A
  • decreased hematocrit is suspicious for internal bleeding
  • leukocytosis is suspicious for infection
  • ACTH
  • aldosterone
  • potassium
  • sodium
  • glucocorticoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where is adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH) produced?

A

pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is elevation of ACTH associated with?

A
  • adrenal tumor
  • cushing disease
  • lung tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where is aldosterone secreted?

A

cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the funtion of aldosterone?

A

regulates sodium and water levels which affects blood volume and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is elevation of aldosterone associated with?

A

hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is decrease in aldosterone associated with?

A

hypoaldosteronism

addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is essential to normal function of every organ system?

A

potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the elevation of potassium associated with?

A

addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the decrease of potassium associated with?

A

cushing disease

hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the major component in determining blood volume?

A

sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the decrease in sodium associated with?

A

addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Glutocorticoids

A

Regulation of the metabolism of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cortisol

A

It is released in response to stress and a low level of blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how is the left adrenal best visualized?

A

right lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how ia the right adrenal best visualized?

A

left lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the most commone adrenal tumor?

A

incidentalomas

-adenomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where may benign adrenal neoplasms be in?

A
  • increases with age
  • hypertensive people
  • diabetics
  • hyperthyroidism
  • RCC
  • hereditary colorectal adenomatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Adrenal myelipoma

A

A rare benign neoplasm composed of mature adipose tissue and a variable amount of hematopoietic elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nonhyperfunctioning adenomas

A

more common

asymtomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hyperfunctioning adenomas

A

Present clinically with symptoms related to excess hormone production

  • cushing’s syndrome
  • conn’s disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

Excessive cortisol excretion

Hyperplastic glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cushing’s syndrome characterized by?

A 
Truncal obesity
Hirsutism
Amenorrhea
Hypertension
Weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Conn’s disease

A

excessive aldosterone excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Conn’s disease characterized by

A

Hypertension
Muscular weakness
Tetany(muscle spasms)
ECG abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hyperfunctioning Pheochromocytoma

A

Secrete norepinephrine and epinephrine into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

clinical manifestations hyperfunctioning Pheochromocytoma?

A 
Hypertension
Severe headache
Palpitations
Tachycardia
Excessive perspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

who is Pheochromocytoma most frequently seen in?

A

40-60 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

is Pheochromocytoma curable?

A

rare but curable cause of hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pheochromocytoma sonographically

A
  • 5-6cm in diameter-easily seen
  • More often in right gland
  • Well marginated
  • May be calcified
  • Heterogenous or homogenously solid
  • May have areas of necrosis or hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how do you diagnose rare benign adrenal tumors?

A

diagnosis must be made histologically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

is Primary Adrenocortical cancer benign or malignant?

A

highly malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what does Primary Adrenocortical cancer show in hyperfunctioning?

A

Clinical manifestations of excess hormone production in hyperfunctioning tumors are apparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does Primary Adrenocortical cancer invade?

A

adrenal vein
IVC
lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when does Primary Adrenocortical cancer recur?

A

after surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of hyperfunctioning malignant meoplasms?

A
  • smaller when discovered

- homogenous echo pattern

54
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of nonhyperfunctioning malignant neoplasms?

A
  • Heterogenous
  • Central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage
  • Calcifications
  • Well defined lobulated border
55
Q

adrenal gland is the ___ most frequent site of metastatic disease

A

4th

after lung, liver, and bone

56
Q

where is the most common primary tumors to spread to adrenal gland?

A 
Lung
Breast 
Melanoma
Kidney
Thyroid
Colon
57
Q

what can we not sonogrpahically differentiate between?

A

adenomas
carcinoma
pheochromocytoma metastases

58
Q

smaller lesions are more likely to be ______

A

benign

59
Q

when are larger lesions more likely to be malignant?

A
  • hemorrhage
  • necrosis
  • calcification
60
Q

what is useful to ruleout venous tumor extension?

A

duplex and colour doppler

61
Q

what do tumors look like sonographically?

A

solid

typically heterogenous

62
Q

why may a tumor have inhomogeneity?

A

necrosis

hemorrhage

63
Q

what do MRI and CT help distinguish?

A

difference between adenoma and metastases

64
Q

adrenal masses over 6cm

A

suspicous for malignancy

typically resected

65
Q

adrenal masses 4-6cm

A

close imaging followup

or surgical resection

66
Q

adrenal masses less than 4cm

A

managment is based on additional imaging findings

67
Q

what is another name for addisons disease?

A

Primary hypoadrenalism

68
Q

Addison’s disease

primary

A
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Antibodies attack the adrenal cortex
  • Failure of the adrenal gland ensues
  • Deficiency of cortisol –potentially fatal
  • ACTH deficiency
69
Q

Secondary hypoadrenalism

A

Disease of pituitary gland

Leads to adrenal failure

70
Q

tuberculosis-acutely

A

bilateral diffuse enlargment

-inhomogenous

71
Q

tuberculosis-chronically

A

more atropic and calcified

72
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

Caused by breathing in spores of a fungus,found in bird and bat droppings

73
Q

what is the 2 most common causes of adrenal calcifications in the adult?

A
  • tuberculosis (acute or chronic)

- histoplasmosis

74
Q

Up to ____ of patients who sustain blunt abdominal trauma are discovered to have hematomas in the ______region

A

25%, adrenal

75
Q

who can adrenal hemorrhage occur in?

A

patients on anticoagulant medication and can lead to hypocortisolism (addison disease)

76
Q

adrenal abscess sonographic appearance

A
  • usually hypoechoic or has complex echo structure
  • rarely anechoic
  • wall is irregular
  • distal acoustic enhancment may be present
  • air within the structure
77
Q

adrenal cysts

A

rare, benign lesions

78
Q

who do we see adrenal cysts in?

A
  • more frequently in 3rd-5th decades

- more in females

79
Q

adrenal cysts symptoms

A

-asymtomatic
-may cause symptoms with growth
(can compress adjacent structures)

80
Q

Hemochromatosis

A
  • Increased iron absorption
  • Leads to mild adrenocortical insufficiency
  • Glands are typically small
81
Q

Wolman’s disease

A
  • Rare autosomal recessive
  • Lipid storage disease
  • Infants die within 6 months of life
82
Q

what are the borders of the retroperitoneum?

A
  • superior-diaphragm
  • inferior-pelvic rim
  • anterior-posterior parietal peritoneum
  • posterior-posterior abdominal wall muscles and spine
  • lateral border-transversalis fascia and peritoneal portions of the mesentery
83
Q

Anterior Pararenal Space

A

Fat area between the posterior peritoneum and Gerota’s fascia

84
Q

what does the anterior pararenal space include?

A
  • pancreas
  • descending portion of the duodenum
  • ascending and descending colon
  • superior mesenteric vessels
  • inferior portion of the common bile duct
85
Q

Posterior Pararenal Space

A

Space between Gerota’s fascia and the posterior abdominal wall muscles

86
Q

what does the posterior pararenal space include?

A
  • iliopsoas and quadratus lumborum muscles
  • the posterior abdominal wall
  • contains fat and nerves.
87
Q

Perirenal Space

A

Space separated from the pararenal space by Gerota’s fasci

88
Q

what does the perirenal space include?

A
  • kidneys and adrenal glands
  • perinephric fat
  • ureters
  • renal vessels
  • aorta and inferior vena cava
  • lymph nodes
89
Q

Spaces in the retroperitoneum should be evaluated for what?

A

lymphadenopathy
neoplasms
fluid collections
ascites

90
Q

functions of the lymph nodes?

A
  • filter the lymph and debris and organisms

- form lymphocytes and antibodies to fight infection

91
Q

parietal nodes

A
  • retroperitoneum
  • surround aorta
  • are subdivided into groups
  • kidney, adrenal gland, ovarian/testicular nodes drain into the paraaortic nodes
92
Q

what do the parietal nodes subdivide into?

A
  • common illiac
  • epigastric
  • external illiac
  • iliac circumflex
  • internal illiac
  • lumbar and sacral nodes
93
Q

visceral nodes

A
  • peritoneum
  • course along the vessels supplying the major organs
  • located at the hilum of the organ
94
Q

what is a normal sonogrpahic appearance of a lymph node?

A
  • hypoechoic cortex
  • hyperechoic fatty center
  • smooth margins
  • oval shape
  • internal vascular blood flow especially at hilum
  • usually measures less than 1 cm
95
Q

what is a abnormal sonographic appearance of a lymph node?

A
  • enlarged hypoechoic mass over 1 cm in size
  • loss of lyperechoic fatty center
  • displacement of adjacent structures
96
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of a infected lymph node?

A

smooth wall margins and oval shaoe caused by infection

97
Q

what is the sonogrpahic appearance of a malignant lymph node?

A
  • irregular margins

- round shape

98
Q

gastrohepatic node region

A

region of the gastrohepatic ligament

99
Q

what is the associated pathology for gastrohepatic node region?

A
  • stomach, esophageal, and pancreatic carcinoma
  • lymphoma
  • metastaic disease
100
Q

mesenteric node region

A

along the mesentery

101
Q

what is the associated pathology for mesenteric node region?

A
  • inflammatory bowel

- small bowel carcinoma

102
Q

Pancreaticoduodenal node region

A
  • anterior to the IVC

- between the duodenum and head of pancreas

103
Q

what is the associated pathology for Pancreaticoduodenal node region?

A
  • colon and stomach carcinoma

- carcinoma of the pancreatic head

104
Q

perisplenic node region

A

splenic hilum

105
Q

what is the associated pathology for perisplenic node regions?

A
  • leukemia
  • non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • small bowel and colon carcinoma
  • metastatic disease
106
Q

porta hepatis node region

A

anterior and posterior to portal vein

107
Q

associated patholgy for porta hepatis node region?

A
  • gallbladder, biliary, liver, stomach, pancreatic carcinoma
  • lymphoma
  • metastatic disease
108
Q

retrocrural node region

A

inferior posterior mediastinum

109
Q

associated pathology for retrocrural node regions?

A
  • lung carcinoma

- lymphoma

110
Q

retroperitoneal node regions

A
  • periaortic
  • pericaval
  • intraaortocaval
111
Q

associated pathology for retroperitoneal node regions

A
  • lymphoma
  • renal carcinoma
  • metastatic disease
112
Q

Superior mesenteric and celiac arteries node region

A

periaortic

113
Q

associated pathology for Superior mesenteric and celiac arteries node region?

A

intraabdominal neoplasms

114
Q

Pelvic node regions

A

along the iliac vessels

115
Q

associated pathology for pelvic node regions

A

carcinoma of the pelvis

116
Q

why do we evaluate the retroperitoneum?

A
  • lymphadenopathy
  • neoplasms
  • fluid collections
  • ascities
117
Q

what are some non-vascular retroperitoneal pathology?

A 
Lymphadenopathy
Mesenteric Adenitis
Metastatic Disease
Benign Masses
Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
118
Q

what is the most common solid retroperitoneal mass?

A

lymphadenopathy

119
Q

lymphadenopathy

A
  • enlarged lymph nodes
  • infection or lymphoma
  • most commonly hypoechoic
  • if rounded with loss of echogenic central fat
120
Q

Mesenteric adenitis

A

-Inflammation of mesenteric lymph nodes
-Bacterial infection
-If it occurs in RLQ-pain
mimics appendicitis
-Linear probe is useful

121
Q

what is the most common malignant retroperitoneal tumor?

A

primary malignancies

122
Q

Metastatic disease

A
  • Frequently spreads to lymph nodes

- Appear as solid retroperitoneal masses

123
Q

Primary malignancies

A

lymphoma

124
Q

Other primaries include

A
  • Sarcomas

- High rate of recurrence after surgical excision

125
Q

Benign retroperitoneal masses

A

-Fibromas
-Schwannomas
-Neurofibromas
-Lipomas
-Fluid collections
CT or MRI needed to define benignity

126
Q

fluid collections

A 
Hematoma
Urinoma
lymphocele
Abscess
pseudocyst
127
Q

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

A
  • Associated with inflammatory AAA-5%
  • Patients more prone to back ache
  • Chronic periaortis
  • Mass(rind of tissue) encases the aorta and common iliac arteries
  • May involve ureters
  • Regresses after repair of AAA
128
Q

what is the most common complication of Retroperitoneal fibrosis?

A

ureteral obstruction and hydronephrosis

129
Q

how often to bilary structures occur?

A

5-23%

130
Q

Biliary strictures

A
  • Present with painless obstructive jaundice

- Abnormalities in liver function tests

131
Q

most common cause of biliary obstruction post transplant

A

Anastomotic stricture

Abdominal (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions