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EPHE141 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What differences in a Female Pelvis allow for childbearing

A

Oval shape, iliac fossa is shallower, sacrum is broad, pelvis is light

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2
Q

What joint (and type) makes up the pelvis

A

Pubic Symphysis (amphiarthrotic cartilsginous symphysis joint)

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3
Q

What type of joint is the Sacroiliac joint

A

Syndesmosis (slightly movable). Sacrum and ilium of pelvic bone

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4
Q

The anterior ligaments of the hip joint

A

Pubofemoral ligament & Iliofemoral ligament

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5
Q

When are the pubofemoral and the Iliofemoral ligament the tightest

A

When standing up straight or extension of torso backwards

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6
Q

What is the posterior ligament of the hip joint

A

Ischiofemoral ligament

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7
Q

What movement does the ischiofemoral ligament prevent?

A

Excess abduction and extension

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8
Q

Function of the Ligament of the Head of the Femur

A

Joint Stabilization

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9
Q

Muscles that move the Thigh ONLY

A

Iliopsoas muscle, lateral rotators, adductor muscle group, gluteal group, tensor fasciae latae

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10
Q

Movement of Iliopsoas muscle group

A

Flexor of thigh (made up of Psoas major and iliacus muscle)

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11
Q

Function of Lateral Rotator Group

A

Laterally rotates the femur (abduction) Eg. When crossing leg onto knee

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12
Q

Muscles that make up the Lateral Rotator group

A

Piriformis, obturator internus, obturator externus

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13
Q

Function of Adductor Muscle group

A

Adduct femur @ hip joint

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14
Q

Muscles of the adductor muscle group

A

Adductor magnus, brevis, longus & Pectineus & Gracilis

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15
Q

Function of the gluteus medius & minimus

A

abduction & medial rotation @ hip joint

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16
Q

Muscles of the gluteal group

A

Gluteus maximus, medius and minimus

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17
Q

Function of Gluteus maximus

A

Extension, lateral rotation & abduction

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18
Q

What thigh adductor muscle also flexes leg at Knee

A

Gracilis muscle

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19
Q

Function of tensor fasciae latae (lateral side of thigh)

A

hip flexion, medial rotation & abduction

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20
Q

What type of joint is the knee joint

A

Modified hinge joint

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21
Q

Why is the knee joint not very stable?

A

It hasn’t the largest ROM of all joints

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22
Q

Other joint in knee

A

Patellofemoral joint, plane joint

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23
Q

Where is the articular capsule

A

Extends from distal femur to proximal tibia

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24
Q

Components of articular capsule

A

Medial & lateral menisci, fat pads, ligaments, muscles/tendons

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25
Q

Collateral ligaments of knee & function

A

Fibular Collateral & Tibial collateral ligament. Give side to side stability

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26
Q

When are the collateral ligaments of the knee the tightest?

A

When the leg is in full extension, standing up

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27
Q

What do the collateral ligaments prevent

A

Stops tibia from moving too far medially or laterally

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28
Q

The 2 cruciate ligaments of knee

A

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) & Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

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29
Q

ACL -location and function

A

Anterior surface of tibia, prevents knee from moving too far forward

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30
Q

PCL -location and function

A

Posterior surface of tibia, prevents knee from moving backwards

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31
Q

Is ACL or PCL more commonly injured?

A

ACL because spend more time standing in flexion, and impact comes from outside (PCL injury is usually when knee is in flexion, sitting down in car)

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32
Q

The 3 hamstring muscles that move both the thigh at hip and leg at knee

A

Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus

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33
Q

Movements of biceps femoris

A

Extension & lateral rotation of thigh at hip, flexion of leg at knee

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34
Q

Movements of semimembranosus

A

Extension & medial rotation of thigh at hip, flexion of leg at knee

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35
Q

Movements of semitendinosus

A

Extension & medial rotation of thigh at hip, flexion of leg at knee

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36
Q

Insertion of biceps femoris

A

Lateral tibial condyle

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37
Q

Insertion of semimembranosus and semitendinosus

A

Medial tibial condyle

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38
Q

Other flexors of knee

A

Sartorius, Gracilis, Popliteus

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39
Q

Why do semimembranosus and semitendinosus have different movements than biceps femoris

A

Different insertion points - biceps femoris inserts on lateral condyle of tibia

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40
Q

Medial thigh muscle that moves thigh at hip & leg at knee

A

Gracilis

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41
Q

Movements of gracilis muscle

A

Adduction & medial rotation of thigh at hip, flexion & medial rotation of leg at knee

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42
Q

What are the 2 anterior (quad) thigh muscles that move the thigh at hip and leg at knee

A

Rectus femoris & sartorius

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43
Q

Movements of the rectus femoris

A

Flexion of thigh @ hip & extension of leg @ knee

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44
Q

Movements of Sartorius (originates at iliac spine and inserts into patellar tendon)

A

Flexion, abduction, lateral rotation of thigh at hip & flexion of leg at knee

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45
Q

4 Muscles that act on the knee only

A

Rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis

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46
Q

Common origin and insertion point of quadriceps muscle

A

greater trochanter of femur and inserts into patellar tendon

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47
Q

3 tibiofibular joints

A

Proximal tibiofibular joint, interosseous membrane (middle joint) and distal tibiofibular joint

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48
Q

What is the Talocrural joint (ankle joint) composed of

A

Tibia, fibula and talus joints

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49
Q

key ligaments of the ankle

A

Tibiofibular ligaments, lateral ligaments and deltoid ligaments

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50
Q

3 lateral ligaments of ankle

A

anterior talofibular, posterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligament

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51
Q

Function of tibiofibular ligaments

A

stabilize ankle, limits external rotation of foot & distal fibular motion on the tibia

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52
Q

Function of lateral ligaments

A

Limits anterior and posterior displacement of talus & resists inversion

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53
Q

Function of deltoid ligament of ankle

A

reinforce ankle joint, help resist eversion

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54
Q

2 large calf muscles (plantar flexors)

A

Gastrocnemius and soleus muscle

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55
Q

2 types of nervous tissue

A

Neurons and Neuroglia

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56
Q

Functions of neurons

A

Transferring, conducting and processing of info

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57
Q

Functions of neuroglia

A

supporting cells, protect the neuron, phagocytic role

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58
Q

Role of CNS

A

includes all nervous tissue of brain and spinal cord. processing and coordinating sensory input and sends out motor output

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59
Q

Role of PNS

A

Associated with nervous tissue outside the CNS. Provides sensory info to the CNS and carries motor commands away from the CNS

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60
Q

What does the afferent division of the PNS do

A

Receptors that then send info to the CNS

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61
Q

What does the efferent division of the PNS do

A

sends info from CNS to muscles or glands effectors

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62
Q

4 types of CNS neuroglia (supporting cells)

A

Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells

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63
Q

2 types of PNS neuroglia

A

Satellite cells and schwann cells

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64
Q

Role of Astrocytes in CNS

A
  • maintain blood-brain barrier
  • structural support
  • regulate ion, nutrient and dissolved gas [ ]’s
  • absorb and recycle neurotransmitters
  • form scar tissue after injury
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65
Q

Role of Oligodendrocytes in CNS

A
  • *Myelinate CNS axons

- provide structural framework

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66
Q

Role of Microglia in CNS

A

-remove cell debris, wastes and pathogens by phagocytosis

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67
Q

Role of Ependymal cells in CNS

A
  • line ventricles (brain) and central canal (spinal cord)

- assist in producing, circulating and monitoring cerebrospinal fluid

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68
Q

Role of Satellite cells in PNS

A
  • surround neuron cell bodies in ganglia

- regulate 02, CO2, nutrient and neurotransmitter levels around neurons in ganglia

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69
Q

Role of Schwann cells in PNS

A
  • *myelinate peripheral axons
  • surround all axons in PNS
  • participate in repair process after injury
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70
Q

How are Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells similar

A

They both myelinate axons

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71
Q

The 2 types of synapses

A

Chemical synapse and electrical synapse

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72
Q

2 types of reflexes

A

Monosynaptic and polysynaptic

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73
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex

A

Simple reflex that involves transmission of info from sensory neuron to appropriate motor neuron across a single synapse in spinal cord
**doesn’t go to higher brain centre

74
Q

3 layers of meninges of the spinal cord (superficial to deepest)

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

75
Q

What is grey matter in the brain and spinal cord composed of

A

Neural cell bodies, axon terminals, dendrites, nerve synapses

76
Q

What is white matter in the brain and spinal cord composed of

A

bundles of axons (which are coated with myelin). White matter conducts, processes and sends nerve signals up and down the spinal cord

77
Q

What travels thru the dorsal root of the spinal cord

A

Sensory info, ascending nerve signals

78
Q

What travels thru the ventral root of the spinal cord

A

Motor info, descending

79
Q

4 nerve plexuses

A

Cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral

80
Q

Cervical plexus -which spinal nerves and what do they innervate

A

Spinal nerves C1-C4 and some of C5. Innervate the head, neck and chest

81
Q

Brachial plexus - which spinal nerves and what do they innervate

A

Spinal nerves C5 -T1. Innervate the pectoral girdle and upper limbs

82
Q

Lumbar plexus - which spinal nerves and what do they innervate

A

Spinal nerves T12-L5. Innervate the pelvic girdle and lower limbs.

83
Q

Sacral plexus - which spinal nerves and what do they innervate

A

Spinal nerves L4-S4. Innervate the pelvic girdle and lower limbs

84
Q

Dorsal root

A

sensory neurons (afferent, ascending). Tract names will start with “spino-“

85
Q

Ventral root

A

motor neurons (efferent, descending). Tract names will end with “-spinal”

86
Q

Routes of sensory info to the spinal cord

A

Dorsal ramus, ventral ramus and rami communicates

87
Q

Somatic sensations (which types of receptors)

A
  • arise from the skin
  • touch, pressure, cold pain
  • exteroreceptors, proprioceptors
88
Q

Visceral sensations (which types of receptors)

A
  • from internal organs, body wall, limbs, back

- interoreceptors

89
Q

3 major ascending sensory tracts in spinal cord

A

Posterior column, spinocerebellar tracts, spinothalamic tracts

90
Q

Which tracts have 1st, 2nd and 3rd order neurons

A

Posterior column tract and the spinothalamic tract

91
Q

What are dermatomes

A

Specific regions of the skin that spinal nerves supply

92
Q

Function of the hypothalamus

A
  • Monitors cerebral activities and coordinates autonomic functions
  • Coordinates function of endocrine system by inhibiting or stimulating endocrine cells within pituitary gland
  • sets appetite, thirst, sex drive, behaviors, emotional status
93
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system

A

Responsible for bodily functions not under conscious control

Eg. breathing, heart, digesting

94
Q

3 divisions of the Autonomic NS

A

Sympathetic, parasympathetic and enteric division

95
Q

Sympathetic NS

A

-“fight or flight”

Eg. want to dilate blood vessels going to muscles, constrict ones going to areas don’t need

96
Q

3 locations that preganglionic neurons can synapse in Sympathetic NS

A
  1. Sympathetic chain ganglia
  2. Collateral ganglia
  3. Adrenal medulla
97
Q

Route of preganglionic neuron synapsing in sympathetic chain ganglia

A

ventral root - spinal nerve - white ramus (myelinated) - sympathetic chain ganglia - SYNAPSE - postganglionic neuron exits thru grey ramus (unmyelinated) - target organ

98
Q

Function of cerebrum

A

left and right hemispheres. Interprets touch, vision, hearing, speech, emotions, learning

99
Q

Diencephalon

A

composed of the right and left thalamus, hypothalamus and cerebellum
-relays sensory info to brain regions

100
Q

Thalamus

A

large mass of grey matter, directs signals to different areas of the brain

101
Q

Hypothalamus

A

controls metabolic processes such as releasing hormones, regulating body temp, etc.

102
Q

Mesencephalon/Midbrain

A

Part of brain stem, associated with vision, hearing, motor control, sleep, arousal and temp regulation

103
Q

Pons

A

in upper part of brain stem, involved in controlling breathing, communication b/w different parts of the brain and hearing, taste, balance

104
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

controls autonomic functions such as breathing, digestion, heart, swallowing, sneezing

105
Q

Cerebellum

A

receives info from the sensory systems and spinal cord and regulates voluntary motor movements
Eg. posture, balance, coordination, speech

106
Q

How is the brain protected, nourished and supported?

A

bones of skull, cranial meninges (extra cushioning, absorb force), suspended in cerebrospinal fluid, blood brain barrier, rich blood supply

107
Q

Phase 1 of Menstrual cycle

A

Menstrual phase

  • functional layer destroyed b/c low E/P
  • which stimulates LH and FSH to increase and follicle development
108
Q

Phase 2 of menstrual cycle

A

Proliferation phase

-repair and regeneration of functional layer b/c high E

109
Q

Phase 3 of menstrual cycle

A

Secretory phase

  • secretion by uterine glands
  • high P and low E
110
Q

3 layers of uterine wall

A
  1. Endometrium (glandular, functional and basal layer)
  2. Myometrium- smooth muscle
  3. Perimetrium - incomplete serial layer
111
Q

Functions of uterus

A
  • protection & nutrition for embryo

- means of removing the embryo’s waste

112
Q

Structure of uterus

A
  • stabilized by 3 ligaments

- skeletal muscle & fasciae from pelvic floor stabilize

113
Q

Function of fallopian tubes

A

nourishes oocyte and transports it to uterus

114
Q

Structure of fallopian tubes

A

mucus membrane consisting of ciliated and non ciliated simple columnar & smooth muscle

115
Q

What hormone triggers ovulation

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

116
Q

Bulbourethral gland (Cowper’s gland)

A

-add fluids to semen (alkaline mucus) that neutralizes the ejaculate bc of urinary acids in urethra

117
Q

Function of Prostate

A

produces prostatic fluid which prevents sperm from coagulating in vagina and nourishes

118
Q

Seminal glands

A

Just before prostate. Adds to majority of semen, activates sperm and provides nutrients

119
Q

What is ejaculation/seminal fluid composed of

A
  • secretions from different glands
  • sperm
  • enzymes
120
Q

Structure of vas deferens

A
  • Smooth muscle lined with ET

- begins at tail of epididymis and ascends into abdominal cavity

121
Q

Structure of epididymis

A

Lined with pseudostratified columnar ET w/ long cilia

122
Q

Functions of epididymis

A
  • recycles damaged sperm
  • stores & matures sperm
  • fertilize when exposed to female reproductive
123
Q

2 Key cells of Seminiferous tubules

A

1) leydig cells

2) Nurse cells

124
Q

Function of Seminiferous tubules

A
  • site of sperm production
  • gradually turn into sperm
  • enter lumen of ST
  • go to epididymis last stage
125
Q

Leydig cells

A
  • androgen production (testosterone)

- stimulated by LH

126
Q

Nurse cells

A
  • stimulated by T and FSH to promote sperm production

- secretes inhibin & androgen binding protein

127
Q

Testes

A
  • produces sperm

- at development, testes are up near kidneys and then all come down to scrotum

128
Q

What is the nephron composed of

A

Renal corpuscle and renal tubule

129
Q

Where is the nephron’s parts located in the kidney

A

Cortex (outer): renal corpuscle, proximal conv, and distal convoluted
Medulla: Loop of Henle and collecting ducts

130
Q

3 functions of Nephron

A

1) Filtration - in renal corpuscle. H2O and solutes from blood to renal tubule. Driven by BP in glomerulus
2) Reabsorption - in renal tubule. H2O and solutes from tubule go back into plasma
3) Secretion- in renal tubules. Of additional substances into blood and renal tubules

131
Q

Pathway of blood filtrate in kidney

A

Renal corpuscle - proximal convoluted tubule - loop of Henle - distal convoluted tubule - connecting tubules - collecting duct - papillary duct

132
Q

The 3 layers of CT in the kidney

A

1) Fibrous capsule - innermost, maintains shape & protection
2) Perinephric fat - adipose tissue
3) Renal fasciae - outermost, anchors kidney

133
Q

Flow of Blood through and out kidneys

A

Renal artery - segmental arteries - interlobar arteries - arcuate arteries - cortical radiate arteries - afferent arterioles - Glomerulus - efferent arteriole - peritubular capillaries - venules - cortical radiate veins - arcuate veins - interlobar veins - renal vein

134
Q

Functions of urinary system

A
  • eliminates wastes from body
  • regulates blood volume & pressure
  • controls levels of electrolytes and metabolites
135
Q

Functions of liver

A
  • regulates metabolism (absorbs fat soluble vits, removes wastes)
  • removes old and damaged RBCs from blood
  • hepatocytes (liver cells) produce and secrete bile into Duodenum
136
Q

Stellate macrophages

A

Kupffer cells, in sinusoids of liver, engulf pathogens, debris and damaged blood cells

137
Q

Liver sinusoids

A

Vascular channels in liver that receive blood from terminal branches and bring to central veins

138
Q

Hepatic portal vein

A

-contains partially deoxygenated blood (contains nutrients absorbed from SI) and liver releases nutrients into central vein - hepatic vein - inferior vena cava

139
Q

Function of gall bladder

A

-stores and concentrates bile which emulsifies fat

140
Q

Function of pancreas

A
  • simple cuboidal epithelia
  • produce pancreatic juices (H2O, ions, dig enzymes)
  • Lipases, proteases, carbohydrases, nucleases
141
Q

Functions of LI

A
  • reabsorption of H2O
  • absorption of vitamins produced by housed bacteria
  • storage of fecal matter before defecation
142
Q

LI vs SI

A
  • larger diameter, thinner walls, no villi
  • more goblet cells (protectives walls of tracts)
  • lamina propria and submucosa (contain large lymphoid nodules)
  • muscular layer is only teniae coli
143
Q

Lamina propria

A

loose areolar CT that lies below epithelial

144
Q

Ileocecal valve

A

sphincter muscle that separates ileum and cecum (SI and LI)

145
Q

Functions of digestive system

A

ingestion, secretion, compaction, defecation

146
Q

4 major layers of digestive system

A

1) Mucosa (inner lining of gut)
2) Submucosa
3) Muscular layer
4) Serosa (most deep)

147
Q

What type of epithelium are gastric pits, intestinal villi and goblet cells

A

Simple columnar

148
Q

Function of SI

A
  • digestion
  • absorption of food
  • production of gastro hormones
149
Q

Function of lacteals in SI

A

Absorb digested fat, part of lymphatic

150
Q

Plicae circulares in SI

A

large circular folds, increase SA

151
Q

What does an increase in LH in males do

A

Stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone

152
Q

What does an increase in LH do in females

A

triggers ovulation - follicular cells to produce estrogens

-develops corpus luteum which produces progesterone and relaxin

153
Q

What do alpha cells in pancreas produce

A

produce glucagon

-stimulates glucogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

154
Q

What do beta cells in pancreas produce

A

produce insulin

-stimulates uptake of BG by cells, glycolysis and protein synthesis

155
Q

What are the 4 cells that the pancreas contains

A

alpha, beta, delta and F cells

156
Q

What do delta cells produce in the pancreas

A

Produce somatostatin

  • inhibits glucagon and insulin
  • slows rate of absorption in SI
157
Q

What do F cells in pancreas do

A

Pancreatic polypeptide

-inhibits gallbladder contractions

158
Q

What hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine which initiate fight or flight

159
Q

What do the adrenal glands secrete

A

hormones (epinephrine and norepinephrine) and steroids like aldersterone and cortisol
-they’re on top of kidneys

160
Q

Chromaffin cells

A

found in medulla of adrenal glands

-response to stress, monitor CO2, O2, and BP

161
Q

3 layers of adrenal cortex

A

1) zona glomerulosa- release aldersterone to kidney for retention of Na and H2O
2) zona fasciculate - regulate glucose metabolism, increase protein, CHO breakdown
3) zona reticularis - secrete androgens

162
Q

parathyroid glands

A
  • located on posterior of thyroid gland
  • produce parathyroid hormone bc low blood Ca levels
  • reduces urinary excretion of Ca and increases intestinal absorption
  • stimulates osteoclasts and inhibits osteoblasts
163
Q

When does calcitonin get released by thyroid

A

In response to high Ca levels

  • *inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts (bone forming)
  • decreases intestine absorption and increases excretion
164
Q

When does parathyroid hormone get released by parathyroid glands

A

In response to low Ca levels

165
Q

What are the 2 main thyroid hormones

A

T3 and T4

166
Q

What happens when thyroid hormone levels drop too low

A

The hypothalamus releases Thyrotropsin-releasing hormone (TRH)
which stimulates the pituitary gland to release Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
-stimulates thyroid to release thyroid hormones (T3, T4)

167
Q

Reflexes that regulate ventilation

A
  • mechanoreceptors (respond to changes in lung volume or BP)
  • chemoreceptors (changes in pressures of CO2, O2 and pH)
  • protective reflexes (injury, irritation)
168
Q

Muscles that help with inhalation

A

Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes (up neck), pectoralis minor and serratus anterior

169
Q

Muscles that help with exhaling

A

Internal intercostals, rectus abdominis, internal obliques

170
Q

In parasympathetic NS where do preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic

A

1) Near the target organ (terminal)

2) Within target organ (intramural)

171
Q

What are the 3 cranial meninges

A

Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

172
Q

Function of blood brain barrier

A

-allows a constant environment in CNS, lower permeability doesn’t allow many solutes, materials to transfer in

173
Q

What is the subarachnoid space composed of

A

collagenous fibers to help anchor cerebral blood vessels

174
Q

Where is the BBB different from rest of brain?

A

In hypothalamus, pineal gland capillaries and pituitary gland capillaries (have higher permeability)

175
Q

what does the pineal gland produce

A

melatonin

176
Q

The 2 types of pleura in the thoracic cavity

A

Parietal- lines the inner surface of thoracic cavity

Visceral - lines the lungs in the cavity

177
Q

What is the pericardium

A

dense tissue sac that covers the heart

178
Q

2 types of peritoneum in the abdominal cavity

A

Parietal - lines the cavity walls

Visceral - lines the digestive organs

179
Q

What helps lubricate organs in the abdominal cavity

A

peritoneal fluid

180
Q

What is the pericardium made up of

A

fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium

181
Q

Intercalated discs

A

over the myocardium (heart muscle)

-creates direct, electrical connection

182
Q

3 layers of blood vessels (outer to inner)

A

adventitia, tunic media, intima

EPHE141 (6 decks)

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