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Surgical Procedures I > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Pathology: removal of subcutaneous fat

A

Tumescent Liposuction

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2
Q

Which nerves are at risk during an acromioplasty?

A

Axillary

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3
Q

Pathology: Deficient bone structure, cancer, trauma, tissue atrophy to cheeck

A

Instertion of Malar Implants

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4
Q

What is Palatoschisis

A

Cleft Palate

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5
Q

Which fracture is associated with an increased rate of infection?

A

Compound

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6
Q

Anatomy associated with an acromioplasty

A

Clavicle
Acromion Process
Acromioclavicular joint

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7
Q

Which joints are freely movable also known as synovial joints?

A

Diarthrotic

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8
Q

Pathology: Tear or separation of the labrum or Recurrent shoulder dislocation

A

Bankhart/Putti Plat

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9
Q

When reimplanting bone what is the correct order of repair?

A 
Bone
Tendon
Nerve
Vessels
Skin
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10
Q

pathology: • Arthritis
• Humeral Neck Fracture
• Osteonecrosis

A

Total Shoulder Arthroplasty

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11
Q

What is used to “inflate” the surgical site during a arthroscopic procedure?

A

Lactated Ringers

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12
Q

What type of burn has char burns, damages vessels, nerves, muscles, tendons, and bone?

A

4th Degree Burn

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13
Q

What is Genu Varum?

A

Medial tibial deficiency - bow legged

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14
Q

When using power tools during an acromioplasty what must the ST be mindful to do?

A

Test the tool away from the field
Suction for plumes
Irrigate wound

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15
Q

What are the steps taken for bone implantation?

A

Ream
Rasp
Lavage
Implant

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16
Q

What special instrument might be used during Instertion of Malar Implants

A

Joseph Elevator

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17
Q

What type of gland is found only in the external auditory canal?

A

Ceruminous

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18
Q

What special item may be used during liposuction?

A

Mercedes suction cannula

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19
Q

The most common type of skin cancer is

A

Basal Cell

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20
Q

Two instruments used in an acromioplasty?

A

Burr

Saw

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21
Q

Which type of hip arthroplasty is related to trauma and which is degenerative

A

Hemi - Trauma

Total - Degenerative

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22
Q

Anatomy associated with a Knee arthroscopy

A

Meniscus

ACL, MCL, LCL, PCL

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23
Q

Which fracture is caused by repetitive force like jogging or jumping?

A

Greenstick

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24
Q

What incisions may be used for a mastopexy

A

Anchor shaped
Crescent
Benelli
Benelli Lollipop lift

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25
Q

What type of burn affects the epidermis, lasts 1 week, and has erythema (redness of skin)

A

1st degree burn

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26
Q

What preparing a skin graft, which site is prepped first?

A

Donor site

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27
Q

Pathology: Ptosis of breast, back pain, cosmetic

A

Mastopexy

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28
Q

Most commonly used method of scar revision

A

Z-Plasty

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29
Q

What is the tumescent solution made of?

A

NACL, 0.5% Lidocaine with Epinephrine, Wydase.

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30
Q

Which fracture is caused by a direct force towards the bone resulting in a horizontal fracture?

A

Transverse

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31
Q

Which fx is caused by a compressive force where the broken ends of the bones are forced into each other?

A

Impacted

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32
Q

What are the natural lines in the skin that are used as landmark for plastic surgeons to provide optimum cosmetic results?

A

Langer’s

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33
Q

Pathology: Genu Valgus, Venu Varum, Arthritis

A

Total Knee Arthroplasty

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34
Q

Pathology: Meniscus or Bucket handle tear, Joint mice, Diagnostic

A

Knee Arthroscopy

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35
Q

Name the two types of implants

A

Free flap - tissue from another location transferred and implanted to breast

Pedicle flap - tissue remains attached to blood supply

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36
Q

What instrument may be used during a mentoplasty?

A

Key Elevator

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37
Q

What are the two methods of estimating burn surface area?

A

Lund Browder Method

Rule of Nines

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38
Q

An infection in the bone is called

A

Osteomyelitis

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39
Q

What is Cheiloschisis

A

Cleft lip

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40
Q

What type of burn has extremely painful blisters and affects down to the dermis?

A

2nd degree burn

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41
Q

A graft containing the epidermis and only a portion of the dermis is called

A

split thickness graft

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42
Q

Pathology: Cheiloschisis or Palatoschisis

A

Cleft repair

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43
Q

What type of graft comes from dissimilar species?

A

Xenograft/heterograft

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44
Q

What is another name for bone cement?

A

Methyl Methyl Crylate

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45
Q

Pathology: Webbed Digits

A

Release of Syndactly

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46
Q

Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

47
Q

Pathology: • Increase size of the breast

• Create a new breast

A

Augmentation Mammoplasty

48
Q

What does TRAM stand for

A

Transverse Rectus Abdominus Myocutaneous

49
Q

Pathology: Shoulder impingement

A

Acromioplasty

50
Q

Special instruments needed for Total Hip Arthroplasty

A

IM reamers and Charnley Retractor

51
Q

Pathology: • Rotator cuff tear
• Avulsion of labrum
• Diagnostic

A

Shoulder Arthroscopy

52
Q

The most aggressive skin cancer that can spread to other organs

A

Melanoma

53
Q

What is a simple syndactly?

A

Just skin

54
Q

Tourniquet time for lower extremity?

A

1.5 hrs - 15 min let down

55
Q

What special items are used during an ACL repair?

A

Bone screws

Bioabsorbable screws

56
Q

What special item would be used during a hip fx repair?

A

DHS (dynamic hip screws)

57
Q

Anatomy for Shoulder Arthroscopy

A

Humeral Head
Clavicle
Rotator Cuff
Labrum

58
Q

Special instruments needed for knee arthroscopy

A

11 blade

Blunt probe
Power Shaver
Spinal Needle

59
Q

What type of retractor is used during a Dupuytrens Contracture Release

A

Lead hand

60
Q

What is a full face lift called?

A

Rhytidectomy

61
Q

A scar that is hypertrophic and bulbous and usually does not reduce over time

A

keloid

62
Q

Pathology: Trauma to the femoral neck

A

Hip Fracture Repair

63
Q

The shaft of a long bone is called the

A

Diaphysis

64
Q

What retractors would be used for a hip fx repair?

A

Bennet or Holman (cobras)

65
Q

Which fracture is caused by a twist force where the distal part of the bone is unable to move?

A

Spiral

66
Q

Fracture of fibula near ankle?

A

Potts aka Bimalleolar

67
Q

Burned tissue that is non elastic and may constrict underlying structures is

A

Eschar

68
Q

Hemostatic agents for arthroscopic procedures?

A
  • Epinephrine in fluid bags

* Arthrowand for hemostasis

69
Q

The patella is what type of bone?

A

Sesamoid

70
Q

Pathology: Trauma to the distal radius

A

Colles Fracture Repair

71
Q

A graft transferred from one human to another is called

A

An allograft

72
Q

Pathology: Fascia of the palm or fingers contracts

A

Dupuytrens Contracture Release

73
Q

In a total hip replacement which structure is reamed?

A

Acetabulum

74
Q

How do you apply an esmarch?

A

Distal to proximal

75
Q

The end of a long bone is called the

A

Epiphysis

76
Q

Pathology: Arthritis (rheumatoid), trauma, osteonecrosis

A

Total Hip Arthroplasty

77
Q

If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause

A

Ischemia

78
Q

Pathology: Micrognathia

A

Mentoplasty

79
Q

What ration does the mesh graft device expand skin?

A

3:1

80
Q

Anatomy for Total Knee Arthroplasty

A

Femur
Tibia
Patella

81
Q

Anatomy associated with torn ACL

A

Femur
Tibia
ACL

82
Q

What is a complex syndactly?

A

Skin, bone, nails

83
Q

What anesthesia technique might be used during a Dupuytrens Contracture Release

A

Bier Block

84
Q

Anatomy for Total Hip Arthroplasty

A

Acetabulum
Femur
Femoral Head

85
Q

What is the name of the test used to determine an ACL tear?

A

Lachman’s test

86
Q

What type of gland is found on external genitalia and axillae

A

Apocrine

87
Q

Anatomy associated with Bankhart

A

Glenoid
Humeral Head
Labrum

88
Q

Which fracture occurs in only one cortex of the bone?

A

Greenstick

89
Q

Pathology: Dermatochalasis

A

Blepharoplasty

90
Q

Tourniquet time for upper extremity?

A

1 hr and 15 min let down

91
Q

What is used to inflate the tissue expander

A

Saline

92
Q

Pathology: Torn ACL

A

ACL repair

93
Q

A total hip replacement would be indicated when the patient has

A

Degenerative hip joint disease

94
Q

What is Dermatochalasis

A

Baggy eyes

95
Q

What nerves are associated with a mentoplasty

A

Mental nerves

96
Q

Possible incisions for an Augmentation Mammoplasty

A

Axillary Crease
Inframammary Fold
Periareolar

97
Q

Anatomy for Total Shoulder Arthroplasty

A

Glenoid Fossa

Humeral Head

98
Q

What special room equiptment is needed for a hip fx repair?

A

Fracture Table

C-Arm

99
Q

A fracture that consists of multiple bone fragments

A

Comminuted

100
Q

Which joints allow the widest range of motion?

A

Ball and socket

101
Q

What is prepped during a rhytidectomy?

A

Full face

102
Q

Incision for Instertion of Malar Implants

A

Gingivobuccal

103
Q

Pathology: Cosmetic procedure that removes fat and tightens muscles of the abdomen

A

Abdominoplasty

104
Q

What special item should the ST have available during a Blepharoplasty

A

Eye ointment to keep eyes moist

105
Q

What is Genu Valgus?

A

Lateral tibial deficiency - Knock Kneed

106
Q

Special item needed for a Bankhart

A

Suture anchors

107
Q

Special instruments needed for Shoulder Arthroscopy

A

11 blade

Blunt probe
Power Shaver
Spinal Needle

108
Q

What type of retractor is used for an Augmentation Mammoplasty

A

Fiberoptic

109
Q

During an Augmentation Mammoplasty, how do you make room for the implant?

A

Tissue expander

110
Q

What type of graft comes from the same person?

A

Autologous

111
Q

What type of burn looks charred or pearly white may be painful or painless. Effects full thickness of the skin

A

3rd degree burn

112
Q

What type of gland produces oil?

A

Sebaceous

113
Q

What are the four types of bones?

A

Long, Short, Flat, Sesamoid

114
Q

Which fracture is caused by a direct crushing force that involves more than two bones?

A

Comminuted

Surgical Procedures I (3 decks)

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