Final Flashcards

1
Q

Regression formulas for estimating stature are highly accurate and not prone to error.

A

B

False

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2
Q

Which of the following problems in stature reconstruction involves the difference between long limb bones and stature that occur through time?

A
Method of measuring body for stature
B
Secular changes
C
Self reporting of stature
D
Inter-observer
A

B

Secular changes

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3
Q
Which of the following skeletal elements cannot be used in long limb bone regression formulas to reconstruct living stature?
A
Bicondylar length of femur
B
Total length of Tibia
C
Total length of Ulna
D
Total length of humerus
A

A

Bicondylar length of femur

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4
Q
Which of the following skeletal elements can be measured to reconstruct living stature?
A
Metacarpals
B
Metatarsals
C
Vertebral column
D
All of the above
A

D

All of the above

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5
Q

D

All of the above

A

A

Femur

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6
Q
Which of the following bones can be used to reconstruct stature, even if only the head remains?
A
Femur
B
Tibia
C
Humerus
D
All of the above
A

C

Humerus

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7
Q
Which of the following should be used to adjust stature calculated from long limb bones?
A
Age of individual
B
Bone shrinkage
C
Reported versus measured stature
D
All of the above
A

D

All of the above

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8
Q
Trauma is just one category of pathological conditions that can occur in humans.
A
True
B
False
A

True

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9
Q
One of the manners of death discussed in the textbook is "gunshot wound."
A
True
B
False
A

False

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10
Q
A hinge fracture is one type of an infraction.
A
True
B
False
A

True

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11
Q
A fall from a great height is likely to result in only simple fractures.
A
True
B
False
A

False

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12
Q
A fracture line will often cross a suture or another fracture line, and continue onward.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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13
Q
A stress fracture of the heel in an athlete is an example of a pathological fracture.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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14
Q
The dowager’s hump is most often the result of an attack by another person.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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15
Q
The direction of force is one of the characteristics that aids in understanding of bone trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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16
Q
One of the directions of force that is seen in deaths due to attacks by other persons is tension.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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17
Q
Gunshot wounds apply a dynamic force to bone.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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18
Q
Bludgeoning with a club results in sharp force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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19
Q
Bone injury that occurs around the time of death is termed antemortem trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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20
Q
Perimortem bone trauma can result in sharp edges of broken bone.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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21
Q
Postmortem damage to bone can be distinguished from antemortem and perimortem trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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22
Q
Which of the following results in displacement?
A
Complete fracture
B
Fatigue fracture
C
Stress fracture
D
All of the above
A

D

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23
Q
Which of the following is a pathological fracture?
A
Hoop fracture
B
Radiating fracture line
C
Fatigue fracture
D
All of the above
A

C

Fatigue fracture

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24
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of forces causing trauma that refers to the size of the impact surface?
A
Direction
B
Speed
C
Focus
D
None of the above
A

C

Focus

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25
Q
Which of the following is a direction of force that is studied in bone trauma?
A
Tension
B
Torsion
C
Shearing
D
All of the above
A

D

All of the above

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26
Q
The parry fracture results from which direction of force?
A
Tension
B
Bending
C
Compression
D
Shearing
A

B

Bending

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27
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic postmortem damage to bone?
A
Radiating fracture lines
B
Hinging
C
Right angle broken surfaces
D
All of the above
A

C

Right angle broken surfaces

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28
Q
Keyhole wounds are common when a bullet exists a bone.
A
True
B
False
A

False

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29
Q
The size of entrance wounds are, on the average, the same as their calibers.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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30
Q
Generally, forensic anthropologists should do the same analysis of pellet wounds as they do when working with other projectile wounds.
A
True
B
False
A

False

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31
Q
Which of the following terms refers to the size of a projectile?
A
Caliber
B
Gauge
C
Rifling
D
All of the above
A

A Caliber

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32
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of a projectile exit wound in bone?
A
Inward beveling
B
Outward beveling
C
Round shape
D
All of the above
A

B

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33
Q
Which of the following fracture lines is likely to occur in a skull?
A
Butterfly
B
Radiating
C
Irregular
D
All of the above
A

B

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34
Q
A butterfly fracture is most likely to appear on which of the following bones?
A
Skull
B
Femur
C
Vertebrae
D
All of the above
A

B

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35
Q
Which of the following sizes is most likely caused by a .22 caliber bullet?
A
0.27
B
0.26
C
0.34
D
0.43
A

A

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36
Q

In cases of multiple projectile wounds, which of the following characteristics of fracture lines from a wound indicates that it was the first wound to occur?
A
Fracture line does not end at another fracture line
B
Fracture line ends at another fracture line
C
Fracture line radiates outward from exit wound
D
All of the above

A

A

Fracture line does not end at another fracture line

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37
Q

Which of the following characteristics of pellet wounds should forensic anthropologists note for use by ballistics experts?
A
Placement of pellets in the body
B
Placement of bone indentations caused by pellets
C
Retrieval of pellets from around the body
D
All of the above

A

A

Placement of pellets in the body

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38
Q
Which of the following could cause projectile wounds to bone?
A
Arrows
B
Crossbow bolts
C
Tear gas canisters
D
All of the above
A

D

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39
Q
Which of the following is helpful in determining cause and manner of death in projectile wounds?
A
Location of wounds
B
Severity of wounds
C
Path of projectile
D
All of the above
A

D

All of the above

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40
Q
The length of an object can be readily told from wounds resulting from blunt force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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41
Q
The shape of an object can be readily told from wounds resulting from blunt force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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42
Q
Transverse fracture is a type of infraction.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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43
Q
In the skull, blunt force trauma causes both inbending and outbending of the vault bones.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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44
Q
In the face, fracture lines usually appear between the three buttresses: malar eminence, nasofrontal process, and alveolar ridges.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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45
Q
A ring fracture is a type of fracture that occurs on the face.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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46
Q
The buttresses of the cranial vault are: midfrontal, anterior temporal, midoccipital, and posterior temporal.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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47
Q
The edges of bone in ring fractures to the skull base include both inward and outward beveling.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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48
Q
Butterfly fractures occur only in long bones.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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49
Q
In some cases, the shape of the instrument causing blunt force trauma can be easily seen, as when a person is hit with a hammer.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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50
Q
Estimating the direction of the instrument that caused blunt force trauma is the hardest aspect of wound analysis to determine.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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51
Q
When estimating the energy of the instrument causing blunt force trauma, forensic anthropologists must consider both weight and speed.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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52
Q
Which of the following characteristics of instruments that could cause blunt force trauma should be of concern to forensic anthropologist?
A
Size
B
Shape
C
Weight
D
All of the above
A

D

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53
Q
Which of the following fractures or infractions involve an incomplete transverse fracture?
A
Bow fracture
B
Greenstick fracture
C
Toddler’s fracture
D
Depressed fracture
A

B

Greenstick fracture

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54
Q
Which of the following fractures or infractions involve an incomplete spiral or oblique fracture?
A
Bow fracture
B
Greenstick fracture
C
Toddler’s fracture
D
Depressed fracture
A

C

Toddler’s fracture

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55
Q
Which of the following fractures or infractions involves compression along the long axis of a bone?
A
Bow fracture
B
Greenstick fracture
C
Toddler’s fracture
D
Depressed fracture
A

A

Bow fracture

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56
Q
Which of the following fractures or infractions involve shattering of a bone into multiple pieces?
A
Transverse fracture
B
Spiral fracture
C
Comminuted fracture
D
Epiphyseal fracture
A

C

Comminuted fracture

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57
Q
Which of the following fractures or infractions involve the ends of long bones?
A
Transverse fracture
B
Spiral fracture
C
Comminuted fracture
D
Epiphyseal fracture
A

D

Epiphyseal fracture

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58
Q
Which of the following fractures or infractions is caused by excessive torsion applied to a bone?
A
Transverse fracture
B
Spiral fracture
C
Comminuted fracture
D
Epiphyseal fracture
A

B

Spiral fracture

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59
Q
Which of the following fractures to the cranial vault are most likely to occur in older persons?
A
Inner table fracture
B
Plug formation
C
Crushing of the diploe
D
Inner table crushing
A

B

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60
Q
A Le Forte 1 fracture guides around which facial buttress?
A
Alveolar ridges
B
Nasofrontal process
C
Malar eminence
D
All of the above
A

A

Alveolar ridges

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61
Q
A facial fracture that has characteristics of all Le Forte fractures guide around which facial buttress?
A
Alveolar ridges
B
Nasofrontal process
C
Malar eminence
D
All of the above
A

D

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62
Q
A fracture line that originates at the superior border of the eye and travels posteriorly and superior to the temporal line is being influenced by which two cranial vault buttresses?
A
Midfrontal and Anterior temporal
B
Anterior temporal and Midoccipital
C
Midoccipital and Posterior temporal
D
All of the above
A

A

Midfrontal and Anterior temporal

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63
Q
A fracture line that originates at the zygomatic bone and travels posteriorly along the squamosal suture is being influenced by which two cranial vault buttresses?
A
Midfrontal and Anterior temporal
B
Anterior temporal and Posterior temporal
C
Midoccipital and Posterior temporal
D
All of the above
A

B

Anterior temporal and Posterior temporal

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64
Q
Which of the following types of fractures caused by blunt forces can occur in long bones?
A
Transverse fractures
B
Comminuted fractures
C
Butterfly fractures
D
All of the above
A

D

All of the above

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65
Q
Which aspect of wound analysis involves measuring the dimensions of a wound caused by blunt forces?
A
Estimation of size
B
Estimation of shape
C
Estimation of direction
D
Estimation of energy
A

A

Estimation of size

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66
Q
Which aspect of wound analysis involves noting which side of the victim exhibits blunt force trauma?
A
Estimation of size
B
Estimation of shape
C
Estimation of direction
D
Estimation of energy
A

C

Estimation of direction

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67
Q
Which aspect of wound analysis involves tracing the fracture lines from points of impact?
A
Estimation of size
B
Estimation of shape
C
Estimation of sequence
D
Estimation of number
A

C

Estimation of sequence

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68
Q
Which aspect of wound analysis involves counting the number of blunt trauma impact sites on a skeleton?
A
Estimation of size
B
Estimation of number
C
Estimation of direction
D
Estimation of energy
A

B

Estimation of number

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69
Q
Which aspect of wound analysis involves noting the amount of damage to bones exhibiting blunt force trauma?
A
Estimation of size
B
Estimation of shape
C
Estimation of direction
D
Estimation of energy
A

D

Estimation of energy

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70
Q
Which aspect of wound analysis may involve fitting an instrument into traumatic injuries due to blunt force?
A
Estimation of size
B
Estimation of shape
C
Estimation of direction
D
Estimation of energy
A

B

Estimation of shape

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71
Q
Which of the following causes of death is possible in cases of blunt force trauma?
A
Homicide
B
Suicide
C
Accident
D
All of the above
A

D

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72
Q
Facture lines do not occur with sharp force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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73
Q
Clefts are created by a sharp instrument impacting a bone’s surface at a, or near, 90º angle.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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74
Q
Clefts caused by a meat cleaver, machete and ax are indistinguishable from each other.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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75
Q
Research has shown that the general type of weapon causing sharp force wounds can be determined by viewing their characteristics using scanning electron microscopy (SEM).
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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76
Q
When analyzing sharp force trauma, forensic anthropologists should explore many of the same aspects of wound analysis as in projectile and blunt force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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77
Q
The direction of force is easy to determine in the analysis of sharp force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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78
Q
Determination of the number of sharp force traumatic events is complicated by the fact that some events do not cause bone injuries.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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79
Q
In cases of strangulation, the hyoid is easily fractured in young persons.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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80
Q
Ligature is the most common form of strangulation that causes fracture of the hyoid bone.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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81
Q
Which of the following wounds resulting from sharp force trauma are most likely caused by stabbing?
A
Puncture
B
Incision
C
Cleft
D
All of the above
A

A

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82
Q
Which of the following wounds resulting from sharp force trauma are most likely caused by a slashing action?
A
Puncture
B
Incision
C
Cleft
D
All of the above
A

B

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83
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of a puncture wound?
A
Cone-shaped injury penetrating bone
B
V-shaped lines
C
V-shaped notches
D
All of the above
A

A

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84
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of an incision?
A
Cone-shaped injury penetrating bone
B
V-shaped lines
C
V-shaped notches
D
All of the above
A

B

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85
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of a cleft?
A
Cone-shaped injury penetrating bone
B
V-shaped lines
C
V-shaped notches
D
All of the above
A

C

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86
Q
Which of the following characteristics of clefts should forensic anthropologists explore?
A
Width of entry site
B
Depth of penetration
C
Striations
D
All of the above
A

D

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87
Q
Which of the following aspects of wound analysis involve noting the type of injury(s), their location on bone, and their size?
A
Description of wound(s)
B
Instrument characteristics
C
Direction of force
D
Number of events
A

A

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88
Q
Which of the following aspects of wound analysis involve recreating the traumatic event(s)?
A
Description of wound(s)
B
Instrument characteristics
C
Direction of force
D
Number of events
A

D

Sequence of events

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89
Q
Which of the following methods of strangulation is most likely to result in fracture of the hyoid bone?
A
Hanging
B
Ligature
C
Manual strangulation
D
All of the above
A

C

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90
Q
Which of the following methods of strangulation can result in fracture of the greater horns of the hyoid bone?
A
Hanging
B
Ligature
C
Manual strangulation
D
All of the above
A

D

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91
Q
Of the three basic types of pathologies, lytic lesions are the least likely to be mistaken for trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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92
Q
Lytic lesions have none of the characteristics of perimortem trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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93
Q
Lytic lesions can be mistaken for perimortem trauma or postmortem damage because of the loss of bone in conditions such as anemia, necrosis, and abscesses.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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94
Q
Proliferative lesions include osteophytes, osteomas, and generalized bone disease.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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95
Q
Deformative lesions are likely to be mistaken for proliferative lesions.
A
True
B
False
A

F

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96
Q
Skeletal anomalies include accessory ossicles, nonfusions, and extra foramen.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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97
Q
Various cranial ossicles might be mistaken for evidence of sharp force trauma if care is not taken during analysis.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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98
Q
Accessory bones have lines that radiate from them similar to fracture lines due to blunt force trauma.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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99
Q
Nonfusion anomalies are similar to lytic lesions.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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100
Q
Nonfusion anomalies often involve the continuance of an immature condition into adulthood.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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101
Q
Nonfusion anomalies often involve the continuance of an immature condition into adulthood.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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102
Q
Accessory foramina are similar to lytic lesions.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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103
Q
A trephination has all of the characteristics of a gunshot wound.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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104
Q
A pseudarthrosis involves nonfusion of two segments of a bone.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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105
Q
Occupational stress markers include conditions similar to lytic lesions.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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106
Q
Osteophytosis only occurs as proliferative pathological lesions that increase in frequency with age.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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107
Q
Facets occur where two bone surfaces contact each other near a joint.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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108
Q
Grooves are occupational stress markers that are similar to facets.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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109
Q
Osteophytes in the thoracic vertebrae is one of many occupational stress markers.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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110
Q
Which of the following antemortem skeletal conditions involves lytic, proliferative and deformative lesions?
A
Pathological conditions
B
Skeletal anomalies
C
Markers of occupational stress
D
All of the above
A

A

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111
Q
Which of the following antemortem skeletal conditions involves accessory ossicles, nonfusions, and accessory foramen?
A
Pathological conditions
B
Skeletal anomalies
C
Markers of occupational stress
D
All of the above
A

B

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112
Q
Which of the following pathological conditions involves abnormal bone loss?
A
Lytic lesions
B
Proliferative lesions
C
Deformative lesions
D
All of the above
A

A

Lytic lesions

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113
Q
An abnormal bony spur would be which of the following pathological conditions?
A
Lytic lesions
B
Proliferative lesions
C
Deformative lesions
D
All of the above
A

B

Proliferative lesions

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114
Q
Which of the following pathological conditions involves the unnatural shape of bone?
A
Lytic lesions
B
Proliferative lesions
C
Deformative lesions
D
All of the above
A

D

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115
Q
A cancerous tumor on a bone would fall into which of the following pathological conditions?
A
Lytic lesions
B
Proliferative lesions
C
Deformative lesions
D
All of the above
A

B

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116
Q
Into which of the following pathological conditions would the “dowager’s hump” most likely be classified?
A
Lytic lesions
B
Proliferative lesions
C
Deformative lesions
D
All of the above
A

C

Deformative lesions

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117
Q
Which of the following skeletal anomalies involves extra bones within other bones?
A
Accessory bones
B
Nonfusion anomalies
C
Accessory foramen
D
Miscellaneous anomalies
A

A

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118
Q
Which of the following skeletal anomalies appears as though single bones are made up of multiple segment?
A
Accessory bones
B
Nonfusion anomalies
C
Accessory foramen
D
Miscellaneous anomalies
A

B

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119
Q
Which of the following skeletal anomalies involves extra openings in bones?
A
Accessory bones
B
Nonfusion anomalies
C
Accessory foramen
D
Miscellaneous anomalies
A

C

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120
Q
Which of the following characteristics of an accessory bone distinguishes it from blunt force trauma?
A
Irregular outline
B
No fracture lines
C
Cortical bone on edges
D
All of the above
A

D

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121
Q
Which of the following characteristics of nonfusion anomalies distinguishes them from blunt force trauma?
A
Appearance at ossification centers
B
No fracture lines
C
Cortical bone on edges
D
All of the above
A

D

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122
Q
Which of the following segments of the human skeleton can exhibit nonfusion anomalies?
A
Axial skeleton
B
Thorax
C
Appendicular skeleton
D
All of the above
A

D

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123
Q
Which of the following parts of the human skeleton can exhibit accessory foramen?
A
Face
B
Skull base
C
Appendicular skeleton
D
All of the above
A

D

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124
Q
The septal aperture, which appears like a projectile wound, occurs in what bone?
A
Humerus
B
Femur
C
Skull
D
Vertebrae
A

A

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125
Q
Which of the following occupational stress markers could be mistaken for a pathological condition?
A
Osteophytosis
B
Hypertorphy
C
Deformations
D
All of the above
A

D

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126
Q
Which of the following occupational stress markers involve lytic lesions and enlarged areas where muscle attaches to bone?
A
Lesions of insertion area
B
Osteophytosis
C
Descrete markers
D
Fractures
A

A

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127
Q
Which of the following occupational stress markers involve bony spurs and ridging?
A
Lesions of insertion area
B
Osteophytosis
C
Descrete markers
D
Fractures
A

B

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128
Q
Which of the following occupational stress markers involve exostoses, spinal angulation, facets, and grooves?
A
Lesions of insertion area
B
Osteophytosis
C
Descrete markers
D
Fractures
A

C

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129
Q
Which of the following bones in the human skeleton can exhibit discrete markers associated with occupations?
A
Vertebrae
B
Calvicle
C
Scapula
D
All of the above
A

D

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130
Q
Which of the following bones in the human skeleton can exhibit fractures associated with occupations?
A
Vertebrae
B
Radius
C
Calcaneous
D
All of the above
A

D

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131
Q
A false start kerf is caused when a saw blade is drawn across a bone without much pressure.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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132
Q
The length breakaway spur may provide a clue as to the width of the saw blade used to cut bone.
A
True
B
False
A

A

True

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133
Q
The width of a kerf is the same as the width of the saw blade that caused it.
A
True
B
False
A

B

False

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134
Q
Striations on the cut surface of bone can aid in the determination of blade shape.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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135
Q
Hand saws generally leave cuts in bone with smooth, almost polished walls.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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136
Q
Carnivore scavenging involves random consumption and dismemberment of human remains.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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137
Q
Although burning can remove a lot of information about the sex, age, race, and other characteristics of a victim, positive identification is still possible.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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138
Q
Bone that has been burned for a long time in a hot fire (e.g., over 800º) will be black in color.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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139
Q
The human skull can explode during burning due to the buildup of steam pressure inside the cranial vault.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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140
Q
Weathering can cause cracking, warping, and flaking of cortical bone.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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141
Q
Weathering can mimic the effects of blunt force trauma as well as obscure its presence.
A
True
B
False
A

A

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142
Q
Burial damage involves bone shrinkage that could negatively influence calculations of stature.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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143
Q
Water transport damage involves bone shrinkage that could negatively influence calculations of stature.
A
True
B
False
A

B

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144
Q

Which of the following is a reason to study forensic taphonomy?
A
Postmortem damage may appear as perimortem trauma
B
Postmortem damage may be misidentified as a health condition
C
Postmortem damage may provide information surrounding death of descedent
D
All of the above

A

D

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145
Q
Which of the following forms of postmortem changes are most likely caused by humans?
A
Dismemberments
B
Scavenging
C
Water transport damage
D
Weathering
A

A

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146
Q
Which of the following steps for analyzing dismemberments is common to all forensic anthropological analyses?
A
Photograph cut bone ends
B
Removal of 3 inches of bone around cut
C
Incise an identification notch in lab bone cut
D
Removal of soft tissue
A

D Removal of soft tissue

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147
Q
Which of the following characteristics of saws is most helpful in determining the blade width of  a saw used to dismember a human body?
A
Type of saw (e.g., crosscut, rip)
B
Tooth set
C
Saw shape (e.g., straight, circular)
D
All of the above
A

B

Tooth set

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148
Q
Which of the following types of saw marks on bone contains the least amount of information about the instrument used in a dismemberment?
A
Superficial false start scratches
B
False start kerfs
C
Sectioned bone cuts
D
Breakaway spur
A

A

Superficial false start scratches

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149
Q
Which of the following types of saw marks on bone would not contain information on the width of the instrument used in a dismemberment?
A
Superficial false start scratches
B
False start kerfs
C
Sectioned bone cuts
D
Breakaway spur
A

A

Superficial false start scratches

150
Q
Which of the following aspects of saws would be of interest to law enforcement agencies in cases of dismemberments?
A
Number of teeth
B
Blade width
C
Blade shape
D
All of the above
A

D

151
Q
Which of the following types of saws cause fine, straight striations on a cut bone surface?
A
Circular saw with many teeth
B
Straight saw with many teeth
C
Circular saw with few teeth
D
Straight saw with few teeth
A

B

Straight saw with many teeth

152
Q
Which of the following types of saws cause coarse, straight striations on a cut bone surface?
A
Circular saw with many teeth
B
Straight saw with many teeth
C
Circular saw with few teeth
D
Straight saw with few teeth
A

D

153
Q
Which of the following postmortem injuries to bone are likely caused by carnivores chewing on the ends of bones?
A
Punctures
B
Pits
C
Scoring
D
Furrows
A

D

154
Q
Which of the following postmortem injuries to bone caused carnivores is not seen in human dismemberments?
A
Removal of the upper limbs
B
Removal of anterior portions of the chest
C
Removal of the lower limbs
D
All of the above
A

B

155
Q
Which of the following postmortem injuries to bone are likely caused by rodents?
A
Punctures
B
Pits
C
Grooves
D
Furrows
A

C

156
Q
Fire damage takes which of the following forms?
A
Blackening of bone
B
Checkerboard fractures
C
Concentric fractures
D
All of the above
A

B

157
Q
Which of the following color changes is associated with a low temperature fire?
A
Brown
B
Dark grey
C
Blue
D
White
A

A

158
Q
Which of the following results of fire damage is most likely to affect sex and stature calculations?
A
Blackening of bone
B
Checkerboard fractures
C
Bone shrinkage
D
Concentric fractures
A

C

159
Q
Which of the following results of fire damage is most likely to be mistaken for being due to blunt trauma?
A
Blackening of bone
B
Transverse fractures
C
Bone shrinkage
D
Checkerboard fractures
A

B

160
Q
Which of the following color changes is associated with a high temperature fire?
A
Brown
B
Black
C
Yellow
D
White
A

D

161
Q
Which of the following occurs in bone that has been exposed for a considerable length time to weathering?
A
Cracking
B
Flaking
C
Shrinkage
D
All of the above
A

D

162
Q
The width of the “living” nose is unrelated to the width of the nasal opening.
A
True
B
False
A

B

163
Q
The tip of the nose can be calculated fairly precisely from measurements of the skull.
A
True
B
False
A

A

164
Q
Epicanthic folds, everted lips and fat pads are all aspects of the face that depend on ancestral group.
A
True
B
False
A

A

165
Q
Estimates of body weight can be improved when articles of clothing are found in association with human skeletal remains.
A
True
B
False
A

A

166
Q
Which of the following aspects of individualization does not appear to be possible from current information?
A
Facial reproduction
B
Assessment of handedness
C
Estimation of living weight
D
All of the above
A

B

167
Q
Which of following problems plagues all methods used to determine the thickness of facial tissue on the skull?
A
Location of sites on face
B
Inward deformation at measurement site
C
Tissue thickness changes after death
D
All of the above
A

A

168
Q

Which measurement of facial tissue thicknesses should be used for obese persons?
A
Average measurement
B
Average measurement minus 1 or 2 standard deviations
C
Average measurement plus 1 or 2 standard deviations
D
None of the above

A

C

169
Q
Which step in facial reproduction involves estimating the placement of the tip of the nose?
A
Estimation of mouth width
B
Calculation of placement of pronasale
C
Application of clay on skull
D
None of the above
A

B

Calculation of placement of pronasale

170
Q
Which of the following facial features would not be used in a facial reproduction involving White persons?
A
Epicanthic fold
B
Everted lips
C
Fat pads under eyes
D
All of the above
A

D

171
Q
Which of the following methods can be used to create a facial reproduction from a skull or a cast of the skull?
A
Application of clay to the skull
B
Drawing a face based on the skull
C
Computer generate face based on tissue thicknesses
D
All of the above
A

D

172
Q
Which of the following information can be used to estimate living body weight from a decedent?
A
Weight of decedent’s bones
B
Size of dress associated with decedent
C
Demographic characteristics
D
All of the above
A

D

173
Q
Identifications can be of three types: positive, probable, and certain.
A
True
B
False
A

B

174
Q
Comparison of pre- and postmortem radiographs of the teeth is the only way of obtaining a "positive" identification of skeletal remains.
A
True
B
False
A

B

175
Q
Radiography of various skeletal elements can lead to "positive" identification of skeletal remains.
A
True
B
False
A

A

176
Q
Scalloping of the upper borders of the frontal sinuses is not useful in obtaining a "positive" identification of skeletal remains.
A
True
B
False
A

B

177
Q
The configuration of trabecular bone seen in radiographs of various skeletal structures can be used in obtaining a "positive" identification of skeletal remains.
A
True
B
False
A

A

178
Q
An unusual healed trauma can aid in obtaining a "positive" identification of skeletal remains.
A
True
B
False
A

A

179
Q
Identification of skeletal remains obtained by combining probabilities using Bayesian statistics cannot result in a positive identification.
A
True
B
False
A

B

180
Q
The imposition of pictures of a person’s face over a skull cannot lead to positive exclusion
A
True
B
False
A

B

181
Q
The point-by-point comparison of a picture of a person’s face superimposed over a skull can lead to a probable identification.
A
True
B
False
A

A

182
Q
Many of the questions posed by forensic odontologists are similar to those of forensic anthropologists.
A
True
B
False
A

A

183
Q
Ancestry can be easily determined from a person’s teeth.
A
True
B
False
A

B

184
Q
Age at death can be determined from teeth only from the information on tooth formation and tooth eruption described in Chapter 9.
A
True
B
False
A

B

185
Q
The point-by-point comparison of antemortem radiographs and records from decedents with postmortem examinations of their remains can lead to a positive identification.
A
True
B
False
A

A

186
Q
Antemortem and postmortem radiographs of amalgams and other dental appliances are used by forensic odontologists to obtain a positive identification.
A
True
B
False
A

A

187
Q
Identification by exclusion is useful in most forensic anthropological cases.
A
True
B
False
A

B

188
Q
A forensic anthropologist would not make a positive identification of an individual from which of the following?
A
Skull/face superimposition
B
Comparison of pre- and postmortem radiographs
C
Rare occurrences of malocclusion
D
None of the above
A

A

189
Q
In the past, which of the following has been used by forensic anthropologists to obtain a positive identification from radiography?
A
Frontal sinuses
B
Unique shape of first rib
C
Odd contour of proximal edge of scapula
D
All of the above
A

D

190
Q

Which of the following cause problems in the comparison of antemortem and postmortem radiographs of the frontal sinuses when used to make a positive identification?
A
Magnification of features in postmortem radiographs
B
Differing angles between ante- and postmortem radiographs
C
Blurry antemortem radiographs
D
All of the above

A

D

191
Q
Which of the following characteristics would not be used when obtaining a probable identification using Bayesian statistics?
A
Demographic characteristics
B
Position of body
C
Skeletal pathology
D
All of the above
A

B

192
Q
Which of the following characteristics would not be examined during the analysis of skull/face superimposition?
A
Position of ears
B
Position of nose
C
Thickness of the lips
D
Height of face
A

C

193
Q
Which of the following is not examined during the analysis of smile/teeth superimposition?
A
Shoveling, cusp 7 and bushman canine
B
Rotation of teeth
C
Spacing between teeth
D
Size of teeth
A

A

194
Q
Which of the following is a question that a forensic odontologist would attempt to answer from the teeth of a forensic case?
A
What class of tooth/teeth are present?
B
Was the person male or female?
C
What was the cause of death?
D
All of the above
A

D

All of the above

195
Q
Which of the following characteristics of teeth are the most useful in attributing ancestry to decedents from their teeth?
A
Shovel-shaped incisors
B
Cusp 7 of molars
C
Bushman canines
D
All of the above are equally valuable
A

A

Shovel-shaped incisors

196
Q
Which of the following characteristics is least able to be determined from teeth?
A
Age at death
B
Sex of decedent
C
Teeth are from a “Civilized” person
D
Cause of death
A

B

Sex of decedent

197
Q
Which of the following characteristics would be determined during a postmortem dental exam of a decedent?
A
Inventory of teeth
B
Identification of amalgams and prosthetics
C
Malocclusion, if present
D
All of the above
A

D

198
Q

Which of the following inconsistencies between antemortem and postmortem dental records would lead to an exclusion of a decedent?
A
Difference in number of teeth present
B
Difference in pattern of missing, filled, and unrestored teeth
C
More amalgams seen postmortem than antemortem
D
All of the above

A

B

Difference in pattern of missing, filled, and unrestored teeth

199
Q
During which of the following steps of positive identification from dentition would a decedent be excluded because of improperly fitting dental plates?
A
Comparison of written records
B
Comparison of casts and dental appliances
C
Comparison of radiographs
D
All of the above
A

B

Comparison of casts and dental appliances

200
Q
Which of the following characteristics could be useful in obtaining a positive identification from decedents based on their occupation?
A
Wear facets from pipe smoking
B
Smoke staining
C
Dental grooves
D
Enamel hypoplasias
A

C

Dental grooves

201
Q
Which of the following can be used in an “identification by exclusion”?
A
Only unidentified body in a plane crash
B
Unidentified bodies in a mass grave
C
Similar demographics to antemortem records
D
All of the above
A

A

Only unidentified body in a plane crash

202
Q

Define trauma

A

injury caused to living tissue by outside force

203
Q

What is the role of a forensic anthropologist in terms of trauma?

A
  1. decide on possibility of trauma being sustained around time of death
  2. discuss what could have caused trauma?
  3. how many wounds
  4. sequence
  5. placement
204
Q

Define cause of death. Examples?

A

Same in everyone, heart stops beating, lungs stop breathing

The cause of death is the specific injury or disease that leads to death.

  • So what causes that? □ Disease, trauma (accidental or intentional), old age, malnutrition
205
Q

Can you determine cause of death by looking at skeleton?

A

Almost impossible, too many factors

206
Q

Define manner of death.

A

§ Way they died

The manner of death is the determination of how the injury or disease leads to death.

207
Q

What are the 5 manners of death?

A

Homocide, suicide, accident, unknown, natural (old age)_

208
Q

Simple vs. Communuted fractures

A

○ Simple fracture - 2 broken segments only (common in falls)

Comminuted fracture - break that produces multiple bone fragments (more common in violent incidents)

209
Q

When are hoop fracture lines common?

A

projectile trauma

210
Q

What are the 3 important factors that are involved in forces causing trauma?

A

Direction
Speed
Focus

211
Q

What are the directions of forces causing trauma?

A

§ Tension - pull on long axis if bone (dislocations or allusion fracture - force of tendon rips bone off)
§ Compression - pushing down on bone (frequent affecting skull e.g. object hitting skull, get the shape of the object from the fraction, in picture = from hammer)
§ Torsion - one end fixed, other twisted (common in accidents e.g. ski accident, feet stuck, legs/body can twist)
§ Bending - force coming at right angles to the long axis; causes break through the cross section; this is the most common force in trauma; no fracture lines (comminuted?);
§ Shearing force - when a force is applied to one side of bone when the other side is fixed (most common in accidents;

212
Q

What is a Parry fracture?

A

usually defensive wound - bending

213
Q

What is a Colles’ fracture?

A

Sheering force fracture

When you fall and you put your arm out to stop yourself; another example would be cutting bone with a toothed instrument

214
Q

What is a vertical shear fracture?

A

e.g. pelvis broken in car accident)

215
Q

What are the 2 different speeds of forces? When are they common?

A

§ Dynamic force (fast), sudden, powerful - most common type; seen in violent incidents
§ Static force (slow), slowly applied, but builds up to a point where a bone would break - e.g. strangulation

216
Q

What are the 2 different focuses of force?

A

§ Narrow focus - e.g. pointy

§ Wide focus - delivered over large area

217
Q

What is a common tension fracture?

A

Avulsion fracture of the tip of the fibula; from pulling, lateral collateral ligament rips off top of bone

218
Q

What is a callus?

A

collar of new bone to help pieces of fracture come together

219
Q

How to determine antemortem trauma? When is this info useful?

A

see healing
□ If recent, the edges would be sharp and porosity - bringing blood to area for healing (in sharp force trauma e.g.)
□ If it was a fracture, would see callus (collar of new bone to help pieces of fracture come together)
§ Could help in identification of person

220
Q

When do you see vs. not see fracture lines?

A

§ Fracture lines do not occur in dry bone (hydrated and fleshed - so for the most part, people alive)
§ Dry bones - no fracture lines

221
Q

How to determine perimortem trauma?

A
  • no healing
  • fracture lines
  • sharp edges
222
Q

How to determine postmortem?

A

§ Dry bones - no fracture lines

§ No hinging

§ No infractions § Long bones - get breaks in right angles (cleanly)
§ If bones were buried for a period of time, then break - area that is broken will be of lighter colour (not stained from soil)

223
Q

When do postmortem traumas usually happen?

A

§ Mostly happens in recovery of bones

224
Q

What are the 4 types of trauma?

A

blunt, sharp, projectile, miscellaneous

225
Q

What are 2 aspects of firearms that determine effects on bone?

A

Size
Construction
Velocity

226
Q

What are the forces involved in projectile trauma?

A

compression force,

sometimes bending

227
Q

How do handguns and rifles vary in size?

A

Caliber

- diameter of bullet/width of barrel

228
Q

What is caliber usually reported in?

A

Usually reported in 1/100th of an inch (sometimes mm

229
Q

How do shotguns vary in size?

A

Gauge

230
Q

What is gauge?

A

§ More complicated (has to do with weight), measure in fractions of a pound
§ Maximum weight of a led ball
§ 10-gauge = 10 led balls of equal diameter from one pound of led, one of those balls in a barrel (?)
§ Smaller gauge = wider barrel
Birds (small) vs buck (big) shot -

231
Q

What are the 3 factors involved in construction of bullets?

A

Shape, internal composition, covering (jacket)

232
Q

What are the 3 types of bullet profiles (shapes)? When are they most common? What causes most damage?

A
§ Sharp 
Mostly out of rifles
				□ These go straight through, no extra damage to occur 
			§ Blunt 
- Handguns
- Causes more damage
			§ Hollow point:
Handguns		Cause larger (even more) damage; large wounds
233
Q

What are bullets usually made of?

A

Led

234
Q

What does a jacket on a bullet do?

A

§ Jacket reduces deformation and fragmentation, keeps bullet together more; will pass through target easier

235
Q

What is the difference between doubling weight and speed in terms of wounding impact?

A

○ If you double the weight, you will double the wounding power
If you double the speed, you will quadruple the wounding power

236
Q

What is ballistics?

A

look at rifling in gun to see if I matches bullet markings

237
Q

How to determine between entry and exit wound?

A

○ Wound bevelling
§ Exit will always be larger
§ Get a funnel shape
○ Inward bevelling (at site of bullet’s entry)
○ Outward bevelling (at site of exit wound)

238
Q

What are the 4 main projectile wound shapes and their characteristics?

A

Round

  • Angle of trajectory = perpendicular-Typically on entry wounds
  • On exit wound if it’s a jacketed, high velocity projectile

Oval

  • Angle of trajectory = not straight on
  • Bullet tumbling when hits target
  • Can work out some things from the shape
  • Can be from an exit wound if jacketed bullets

Keyhole

  • Usually from projectiles that graze the bone
  • Usually don’t find bullet in skull
  • Entry wounds
  • Occasionally on exit wounds
  • Most often on skull

Irregular

  • Every other shape
  • Usually due to shattering
  • Mostly in exits
  • More irregular with soft/hollow tip
239
Q

Why do projectiles cause smaller wounds in juveniles?

A

bones more pliable so don’t create as much resistance (less big wound)

240
Q

When do concentric fracture lines occur?

A

powerful weapons

241
Q

What are the factors you ned to analyze for bullet wound analysis?

A
  1. describe wounds
  2. estimate caliber
  3. estimate bullet construction 4. estimate bullet velocity
  4. estimate direction of fire
  5. estimate sequence
  6. miscellaneous
242
Q

How do you describe bullet wounds

A
§ Placement of wounds
			§ Size 
			§ Shape 
			§ Fracture lines
			§ Describe the bone (e.g. skull, left of right), must be really precise about this
			§ Measure 
			§ Bevelling (inward, outward, etc)
243
Q

What can you determine from pellet wounds?

A

direction and maybe range of fire

244
Q

How to determine range of fire of pellets?

A

§ Farther away = more dispersed

Close = tighter

245
Q

What can you determine about the size of an object in blunt force trauma

A

Not a lot

  • short vs. long
  • focused (imprint of object) vs. dispersed
246
Q

What features of the shape of an object can you tell by the wound?

A

Cross section outline

Longitudinal configuration

247
Q

What can you tell from the cross-sectional outline of a blunt wound?

A

Round vs. angular object

248
Q

What can you tell about the longitudinal configuration of a blunt wound?

A

angle of long axis (straight, curved, 90*, bent)

249
Q

How can you estimate weight of object from trauma>

A

§ Lighter object = smaller injury, fewer fracture lines

Heavy= larger wounds, more fracture lines, crushing and fragmentation more likely

250
Q

Depressed fractures are..

A

actually infarctions; bone pressed in towards skull

251
Q

What are the phases the skull goes through in a blunt force trauma?

A

□ Inbending and outbending at impact site
□ Radiating fracture lines on outbent surface
□ Wedges of bone created

□ Concentric fracture lines and bone wedges forced inward

252
Q

What variations of bone can affect impact of blunt for (skull)

A

□ Elastic (young) bone
□ Brittle (older) bone
□ Weak trabecular bone (outside layer of skull; lattice stutricre)
□ Weak inner table (skull)

253
Q

What are LeFort fractures?

A

fractures of the face

254
Q

What are the 3 areas of butressing of LeFort fractures?

A
  1. Alveolar ridge (blow to jaw; upper jaw from rest of face)
  2. Malar eminences (blow to mid face, separation)
  3. Nasofrontal (processes blow to upper part of face; above nose take the face from brain case)
255
Q

Where are the most common fractures on the skull vault?

A
  1. midfrontal (stronger)
  2. midoccipital
  3. posterior temporal
  4. anterior temporal
256
Q

Where is most common blunt fracture of pelvis?

A

through pubis, along ileum

257
Q

What are the factors you ned to analyze for blunt force wound analysis?

A
  1. wound description (placement and type of fracture)
  2. estimate size of instrument
  3. estimate shape “
  4. estimate direction of blows
  5. estimate force
  6. estimate number of blows
  7. estimate sequence “
  8. miscellaneous
258
Q

What does flaking on edge of fracture indicate?

A

multiple blow to the same area

259
Q

what is necessary for estimation of shape and size of instrument in blunt force?

A

imprint

260
Q

What are some characteristics of striations that are useful?

A
angle = determine angle of force
small = sharp; large = dull
261
Q

What are determining characteristics of puncture wounds? (cross section, striations, fracture lines, etc.)

A
Cross section: V-shaped 
Striations: vertical 
Fracture lines: sometimes 
Hinge fractures: sometimes 
Wastage: no
262
Q

What are determining characteristics of incision wounds? (cross section, striations, fracture lines, etc.)

A
Cross section: small V-shaped 
Striations: horizontal/parallel
Fracture lines: no 
Hinge fractures: no 
Wastage: no
263
Q

What are determining characteristics of incision wounds? (cross section, striations, fracture lines, etc.)

A
Cross section: pronounced V-shaped (not usually shallow)
Striations: vertical  
Fracture lines: yes 
Hinge fractures: possible 
Wastage: YES, main factor
264
Q

What are the different types hacking instruments that you can differentiate between?

A

Clever, machete, ax

265
Q

What are the factors you ned to analyze for sharp force wound analysis?

A
  1. wound description (placement and type of wound - puncture, incision, cleft; fracture lines wastage - and size)
  2. estimate instrument characteristics (type - stab, cut, chop; blade - size, surface contour, sharpness)
  3. estimate direction of blows
  4. estimate force
  5. estimate number of blows
  6. estimate sequence “
  7. miscellaneous
266
Q

What are the 3 methods of strangulation>

A

Hanging, ligature, manual

267
Q

When is hyoid bone most commonly fractured?

A

Manual

268
Q

How long does manual strangulation take on average?

A

4 minutes

269
Q

What are examples of non-metric trait?

A

○ Accessory bones
○ Non-fusion anomalies
○ Accessory foramen
○ Miscellaneous

270
Q

What are some examples of accessory bones?

A

Ossicles (on skull)

271
Q

What are some examples of non-fusion anomalies?

A
  1. retention of metopic suture (frontal bone)
  2. spondylolysis (vertebra)
  3. spina bifida (sacrum)
  4. os acromiale (scapula, acromion process)
  5. sternal foramen (can look like projectile wound)
  6. bipartite patella (patella remains as 2 separate bones)
  7. os trigonum (talus - ankle)
272
Q

What are some examples of accessory foramina?

A
  1. foramen of Huschke - (temporal bones)

2. septal aperture (distal humerus)

273
Q

What are some examples of miscellaneous anomalies?

A
  1. pseudathrosis - false joint because the unhealed area of the bone has motion like a joint
274
Q

What are some examples of dental disease?

A
  1. calculus - calcified plaque
  2. caries
  3. periodontal disease
  4. abscess
275
Q

What are some examples of infectious disease?

A
  1. leprosy
  2. TB (spine collapse then fusion)
  3. Syphilis (bone lesions on head)
  4. osteomyelitis/
    sinusitis
  5. otitis media (ear infections)
276
Q

What are some examples of congenital disease?

A
  1. birth defects
  2. craniosynostosis (premature closure of cranial sutures)
  3. congenital hip dysplasia (no socket for femur)
277
Q

What are some examples of metabolic disease?

A
  1. dietary dificiencies (scurvy, rickets, fluorosis - too much fluorine)
278
Q

Is trauma considered a pathology

A

Yes

279
Q

What are some examples of neoplastic disease?

A
  1. tumours

2. cysts

280
Q

What are some examples of joint disease?

A
  1. arthritis
  2. ankelosing spondylitis (spinal)
  3. DISH
  4. gout
281
Q

What are some examples of circulatory disease?

A
  1. necrosis
  2. osteochondritis dissecans (littel part that dies)
  3. osteoarthropathy (too much blood flow)
282
Q

What are some examples of miscellaneous disease?

A

Paget - too much bone growth
Proteus syndrome
Myositis ossificans (muscle that ossify)

283
Q

What is forensic taphonomy?

A
  • study of the postmortem changes to human remains, focusing largely on environmental effects
    ○ In the aspect of how it can provide more information surrounding circumstances of death
    ○ Things that could have occurred to them more commonly after they died
284
Q

Localized dismemberment vs. generalized

A

Localized - only certain body parts (to ease transport, remove ID, etc.)
Generalized - cuts to all parts of bady

285
Q

What are the two types of saws?

A

Crosscut and rip (based on blade type)

286
Q

describe crosscut saw

A
  • cuts across grain
  • way teeth are arranged (70*angles)
  • e.g. hack saws, etc.
  • teeth per inch (5-12)
287
Q

describe rip blade

A
  • cuts along the grain
  • 90* angles
  • chisel through
  • fewer teeth per inch (3.5-7)
288
Q

What is the tooth set

A
  • angle at which teeth are bent laterally from blade

- causes groove larger than blade

289
Q

What is the groove made by the saw called?

A

Kerf

290
Q

What is the superficial false start scratch?

A

little scratches that occur with little pressure before starting
- Don’t mistake this with real cuts

291
Q

What is the false start kerf?

A
  • push stroke that doesn’t take
292
Q

What is the sectioned bone cut?

A
  • number of strokes in same spot
  • deep
  • very useful for determining type of saw used
293
Q

What is the difference between striations from power saws vs. hand saws?

A

Power saw - uniform, fine (teeth smaller, more consistent)

Hand saw - irregular, more prominent striations

294
Q

How does floor of kerf help determine type of saw?

A

§ Coarse - fewer teeth per inch = rougher
§ Smooth - fine saw

  • only if incomplete cut
295
Q

What is breakaway spur>

A
  • people don’t cut all the way through, break off bone
296
Q

How to analyze saw marks?

A
  1. basic description ( Number of cuts, False start scratches, Measuring, Precise description of exact location)
  2. Direction of saw cut
  3. number of teeth (floor of kerf)
  4. blade width
  5. blade shape
  6. source of energy
297
Q

How to estimate blade width

A

width of kerf/1.5

298
Q

How to differentiate blade shape?

A

Circle vs straight
Fixed radius striae - Circular
Non-fixed - Straight

299
Q

What are the 3 major effects that animals have on bone?

A

Scattering, breakage through trampling, removal by chewing

300
Q

What are pits?

A

□ Punctures that don’t go all the way through

301
Q

Scoring vs. furrows

A

parallel scratches

- furrows, deeper, usually at ends of long bones

302
Q

What is the sequence of dismemberment by carnivore?

A
  1. Soft tissues of head and neck.
  2. Ventral thorax opened and contents of stomach and chest eaten, followed by sternum and rib ends
  3. Upper limbs, scapulae and clavicles, separated from thorax
  4. Lower limbs removed from pelvis
  5. Thorax removed from area where body deposited
  6. Long bones separated from each other and ends chewed
  7. All bones disarticulated, scattered, and chewed
303
Q

How is carnivore dismemberment different than human?

A

Humans - don’t remove scapula and clavicle - just humerus
Don’t remove femur from hip socket, just cut through femur instead
Don’t separate parts of thorax, keep it intact

304
Q

How to determine rodent activity?

A

Parallel tooth marks
different animals based on distance between teeth
- not really dismemberment

305
Q

What is calcination

A

when all thats left is calcium salts (after burned)

306
Q

What are the temperature dependent colours?

A

yellowish brown - darker yellow/brown - black - dark grey - lighter grey - white

307
Q

What are the temperature dependent shrinkage factor?

A

□ <700* 0-2%
□ 700-800 1-3%
□ 800+ 10-15% (as high as 25%)

308
Q

What are weather effects on bone?

A
○ Sunlight 
○ Shrinkage - 1.5% 
○ Cracking  - looks more like bark 
○ Flaking 
○ Disintegration 
○ Warping
309
Q

What is trowel trauma

A

trauma during recovery from shovel

310
Q

What causes cracking and warping?

A

pressure of soil

311
Q

What are the factors associated with body weight estimation?

A
  1. Sex - generally males are heavier because more muscle mass (if the same height)
  2. Muscle markings - size (larger = greater body mass)
  3. Skeletal robusticity (thick bones heavier than thin bones) a. Person with robust/well defined muscle markings will weigh more
  4. Height - taller people generally heavier
312
Q

How to determine BW?

A
○ Determine sex
○ Determine stature
○ Consult BMI charts (Need chart)  
§ E.g. US National Institutes of Health
○ Account for skeletal robusticity 
§ Gracile = lower end of the range
§ Robust = upper end of the range 
Look to other available evidence e.g. clothing (sizes)
313
Q

What are the 3 methods of facial reproduction>

A
  1. anatomical ( russian)
  2. tissue depth (american)
  3. anatomical + tissue depth (manchester)
314
Q

Who came up with anatomical (russian)?

A

Gerasimov

315
Q

What is the russian method based off of

A

muscles glands and fatty tissue based on markings

316
Q

How was Russian method developed? found what?

A

Compared faces of individuals to x-rays

  1. there is a relationship between face and skull shape
  2. thickness of soft tissues independent from ancestry
  3. thickness of soft tissues nearly independent of age
    - Looked at relationship between thickness of tissues and markings on skull
    - worked out relationship between nose shape and dimensions of nasal aperture and bones
    - figures out How mouth would look
    - how eyes would look
    - position of ears
317
Q

How to reproduce mouth appearance - russian method

A

based on shape and size of teeth, bite, projection of jaw

318
Q

How to reproduce eye appearance - russian method

A

size of eyeball, position of orbital tubercle and lacrimal fossa (line between these points = eye slit)

319
Q

How to reproduce position of ear - russian method

A

□ Ear length = length of nose
□ Ear width = 1/2 ear length
Location = auditory meatus, mastoid process, shape of jaw (slope)

320
Q

What are the 3 steps in the process of doing the russian method>

A
  1. description of cranium
  2. 2-D drawing
  3. 3-D reconstruction of each half of face (one half at time)
321
Q

Why reconstruct face 1/2 at a time?

A

asymmetry

322
Q

What are the problems associated with the russian method?

A

= need to be really really good with soft tissue anatomy
= very time consuming 2D and 3D process
= requires a lot of skill

323
Q

What are the advantages of the russian method?

A

= don’t need to determine ancestry

= can result in really realistic representations

324
Q

Who are people involved in american method?

A

Krogman, Snow, Gatliff

325
Q

Who developed the manchester method?

A

Neave

326
Q

What are the advantages of the tissue depth american method?

A

can be done quickly; don’t have to be an anatomist

327
Q

What are the disadvantages of the tissue depth american method?

A

□ Ancestry aspect - differences in geographic locations within race group; people of mixed ancestry;
□ Body type - people change weight
Can look very “generic”; can look bad

□Determination of tissue depths from cadaver =
debatable, hard to find landmarks;
tissue indentation from pulling from needle;
differences between living and death people (moisture gone from skin)

328
Q

What are the advantages of the anatomical and tissue depth manchester method?

A

use cast of skull instead (chain of custody)

- can fill in parts of skull that are missing

329
Q

What are the disadvantages of the anatomical and tissue depth manchester method?

A
  • tissue depth issue doesn’t go away
  • still requires a lot of anatomical knowledge
  • Time consuming and expensive
330
Q

WHat is tissue depth - american method?

A

using tissue depth at 21 landmarks on the skull
- depth using tables based on sex, age and ancestry
(geography also important, so is body type)

331
Q

How did they get tissue depth? (american)

A

cadavers with needles, MRIs, ultrasounds

332
Q

How to do american method?

A
  1. Sex, age, and ANCESTRY
  2. Cutting and placement of depth markers (cut to correct tissue depth, place it on the landmark)
  3. Prosthetics (e.g. eyes) - diameter of eyeball (24-25mm); careful where to place the iris (should be ~12mm)
  4. Connection of tissue depth markers with sculpting material - fill in area by markers (almost cover them but not quite); initially, don’t put anything on midline points so you can see centre
  5. Development of facial features
    - height of mouth (cementoenamal junctions)
    - width (2nd premolars)
    - philtrum
    - nose = width is based on ancestry (1.6, 1.3, 1.0); projection
333
Q

How to determine nasal projection (american method)

A

Projection = length of nasal spine x3; add to depth of marker 5
- If no nasal spine, add 3mm

334
Q

What is the best method of facial repro?

A

Manchester

335
Q

How to do Manchester method?

A
  1. make copy of skull
  2. Put in pegs (according to age, sex, ancestry)
  3. Put in eyes
  4. Wax is used to build muscles, nose and ears
  5. large muscles
  6. facial expression muscles
  7. subcutaneous and skin
  8. outer features
336
Q

What are the types of ID that you get from antemortem ID?

A
  • Tentative: where ID of person is suspected based on circumstances or related materials e.g. person had a wallet on them, had credit card, but no picture ID
  • Presumptive: good circumstances that provide basis for ID, no exclusionary evidence, no firm antemortem data, e.g. wallet with photo ID with person
  • Positive ID — demonstrated individualization of individual from skeleton
337
Q

What are the 2 main ways to ID people from antemortem records?

A
  • radiography

- odontology

338
Q

How do you use radiography to ID?

A

compare previous x-rays to current

  • point by point
  • mostly sinuses
339
Q

What is the most useful sinus for ID?

A

Frontal

340
Q

What are the components of the frontal sinus that are used to characterize?

A
  • septum (separates left + right cell)
  • right cell
  • left cell
  • scalloped superior border
  • medial cells
341
Q

What % of people don’t have frontal sinuses?

A

5%

342
Q

What % of people only have one side?

A

1%

343
Q

How to analyze frontal sinus to compare?

A
  1. size (whole thing, each sinus, etc.)
  2. differences between left and right
  3. degree of deflection of septum (left/right)
  4. amount of scalloping on upper border
  5. degree of merging with ethmoid sinus
344
Q

What are the problems with using the frontal sinus x-ray

A
  • not many people have head x-rays now
  • have to make sure you’re using the same x-ray techniques (angles, distance between x-ray tube and skull, etc)
  • if there is flesh on skull and person is alive, can’t put as much radiation, less sharp image
345
Q

What are other features that can be used in radiology ID?

A
  • other sinuses
  • patterns of trabecular bone
  • patterns of cranial sutures or wormian bones
  • unusual pathological conditions or anomalies
  • pins, plates, prosthetics
  • healed fractures
346
Q

What is the process if you’re given teeth in a forensic context?

A
Similar to any other bone 
§ Human?
§ Class of tooth
§ Mandibular or maxillary 
§ 1st, 2nd, 3rd, premolar/incisor
§ left or right?
§ Ancestry 
§ Age 
§ Sex (hard)
§ Postmortem interval 
§ Industrialized, non-industrialized 
§ Cause of death, state of health (hard)
§ MNI
347
Q

What are some dental ancestry markers?

A

Shovel shaped incisors - asian
Cusp 7 - 38.5% of Black
Bushman canine (lingual side cusp) - 18% of Black

348
Q

What are some dental age markers?

A

Juveniles - eruption

Adults - staining, tartar (calculus), pulp stones (90% of people over 50)

349
Q

What are some dental sex markers?

A

§ Not great if just teeth
§ Only in extremes
§ 1st and 2nd molars
§ Crown length in M1 and M2 □ If >11mm = M □ If <9mm = F □ Not 100%

350
Q

What is bruxism?

A

EXCEPTION, if you grind your teeth at night; could look like lived in a non-industrialized

351
Q

How can dental features give an indication of perimortem trauma?

A
  • Concussion (of tooth)
  • Subluxation (dislocation)
  • Extrusion(tooth pushed out) - Intrusion (tooth pushed in)
  • Avulsion (lost tooth)
  • Enamel infraction (fracture of enamel that doesn’t go all through)
  • Enamel fracture ◊ Complicated - affects the pump chamber ◊ Un-complicated - doesn’t ◊ Crown or crown root - Root fracture
  • Alveolar fracture (bone around tooth, jaw)
  • Gum wounds
352
Q

How can dental features give an indication of antemortem health ?

A

hard

- enamel hypoplasia (childhood infection, stress as a child)

353
Q

How to get positive ID from dental?

A
  • dental assessment of teeth postmortem
  • get inventory
  • look for restorations
  • look for dental pathology
  • look at bite, spacing, malocclusion
  • x-ray (same type as comparison)
354
Q

What is an odontogram?

A

no standard; used codes to label teeth

355
Q

how many surfaces to records during odontogram?

A

160 potential

356
Q

What is most common pattern for dnetal ID

A

all teeth present with no restrorations

357
Q

What are the problems with forensic odontology ID?

A
  • poor record keeping
  • recording errors
  • multiple densists
  • different coding methods
358
Q

What are the 3 different dental coding methods and their numbering systems?

A

Zsigmondy/Paler method (1-8 on each side + top and bottom)
FDI method (first = quadrant; second = 1-8 – 11-18; 21-28; 31-38; 41-48)
Universal numbering system (1-32; letters if children)

359
Q

What are the ethical responsibilities of forensic anthropology?

A

○ Accuracy is super important
○ Implications on friends and family
○ Implications to guilty party - not wrongfully convicted
○ Your responsibility to use most new and relevant and accurate resources and methods
○ Your work isn’t impeding judicial process (Pace is important - justice delayed is justice denied)

360
Q

What are the 3 major components of ethics?

A

○ Respect - want to treat human remains with utmost respect; once a living person, had friends, family, etc.
○ Confidentiality - can’t talk about case work, bound by confidentiality, can’t discuss until work has been made public by authorities; most of the time that doesn’t really happen, may never happen
○ Honesty - in terms of contributing info that can be substantiated by data; no opinions that cannot be substantiated; super important; difference between evidence and opinion; accurate assessment of our levels of certainty, why we have standard errors and 95% confidence interval

361
Q

Evidence vs. opinion

A

○ Evidence = data = physical remains (things you can touch, tings that you can see with your eyes and relate)
§ Observations made on bones
§ E.g. presence, fracture, not recovered, measurement

○ Opinion = interpretation of remains based on methods used
§ E.g. calculating stature, large mastoid processes therefore male, postmortem fracture (postmortem = opinion), ancestry, age, sex, stature, post mortem interval

362
Q

What are the different types of opinions?

A

□ Speculation - based on little or no data, guessing almost; want to avoid this at all costs; never would speculate in writing
□ Possible - a possibility, has a higher degree of certainty than speculation, but still not that great
□ Probable - want this one, highest degree of certainty; levels of probability (confidence intervals, 95% CI)

363
Q

How we determine levels of probability

A

◊ Testing on known collections

® Still some uncertainty because not modern populations necessarily

364
Q

What are some examples of appropriate language to use to avoid overstating

A

Omit statistics - instead of saying definite number, instead of saying 18-25 years, say late teens to mid-twenties; still giving defined range, but not as specific

Word qualifiers - likelihood: it is unlikely that she was taller than 160cm rather than specific range; consistency: characteristics seen on pubic symphysis were consistent with an age range of mid to late 40s, consistent gives you the “-ish” (can also use inconsistent)

365
Q

What are the “Mahan” guidelines?

A

§ Who can and can’t be an expert

366
Q

What came out of the Kelliher case?

A

□ Expert testimony - subject matter must be beyond scope of judgejury, such that expert assistance needed to form correct judgement
Can’t be common knowledge

367
Q

What came out of the Mohan case?

A

□ Expert evidence must be:

				- Both necessary and relevant in assisting judge/jury 
				- Experts must be properly qualified to testify						◊ Before this, people would just say that they were experts
368
Q

What came out of the J.-L.J case?

A

□ Theories and methods described in expert testimony must
® Be testable/tested
® Be subject to peer. Review and publication
® Have standards or known standard error rates
® Must be generally accepted by experts
Before this, could have obscure methods for people who were qualified

369
Q

What are the 2 parts of the final report and what do they include?

A

□ One page summary of skeletal analysis: case no., date, investigators names, condition of remains, ancestry, sex, age, stature, trauma and other skeletal characteristics -Could be point form
□ Description of methods and detailed discussion of results - Background of case (where remains were found, etc.)
- General condition of remains
- Complete inventory
- Demography (detailed methods used): ancestry, age, sex, stature
- Antemortem, perimortem, postmortem injuries (stages, etc. Must be described)
- Recommendations for further testing that you can’t do (beyond scope/expertise of forensic anthropologist) - e.g. DNA testing
- Appendices - photos, data tables, any raw data

370
Q

What are some procedures for casework?

A

§ Request fee - need to get paid, shouldn’t do work for free because then it doesn’t have as much value; established credibility
§ Establish and maintain procedures for maintaining chain of custody/evidence; if there’s any break, then all of your evidence can be deemed inadmissible
§ Production of notes for every stage of analysis - as soon as you get a phone call (note every call, any contact you’ve made, all emails), need to be legible and accurate