Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ANTHR 390 > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the quadraceps femoris insert?

A

Tibial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does the pelvis complete ossification?

A

23-27yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does the lower limb bud appear?

A

~28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does pelvic condensation start?

A

34-36 days intrauterine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does pelvic chondrification begin?

A

6-7 weeks intrauterine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does ossification of the ischial tuberosity and ramal epiphysis occur?

A

13-23 rys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does ossification of the iliac crest occur?

A

10-20yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does foot condensation begin?

A

37 days intrauterine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does femoral chondrification occur?

A

41-52 days intrauterine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of joint is the talocrural (ankle) joint? What does it allow for?

A

Hinge

Allows for dorsi and plantar flexion, inversion and eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of joint is the sacrioiliac?

A

Synovial, cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of joint is the proximal tibiofibular?

A

Synovial, plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of joint is the knee joint? Which bones are involved?

A

Synovial, hinge

Femur, patella, tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of joints are the intertarsal joints?

A

Synovial, mostly inversion and eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of joints are the intertarsal and intermetatarsal joints?

A

Synovial, plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What muscles attach to the greater trochanter of the femur?

A

Gluteus minimus

Gluteus medius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What muscle is very close to the greater sciatic notch?

A

Piriformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What makes up the quadraceps femoris?

A

Rectus femoris
Vastus lateralis
Vastus intermedius
Vastus medialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What makes up the achilles tendon?

A

Soleus

Gastrocnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is triradiate ossification? When does it occur?

A

The fusion of the pubis, ilium and ischium.

Occurs are 9-14 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What attaches at the tibial tuberosity?

A

Patellar ligament and quadraceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What attaches at the gluteal tuberosity?

A

Castus lateralis

Gluteus maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What attaches at the adductor tubercle?

A

Adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the muscles of the hamstrings?

A

Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 5 muscles of the adductor group?

A 
Pectineus
Gracilis
Adductor brevis
Adductor Longus
Adductor Magnus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many pedal phalanges are there?

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many of each vertebrae?

A 
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
4-5 coccygeal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Gluteus minimus

A

Inferior gluteal line to greater trochanter

Abduct, medial rotate of hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Gluteus medius

A

Between anterior and posterior gluteal lines and greater trochanter
Abduct and medial rotate of hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gluteus maximus

A

Posterior gluteal line to gluteal tuberosity

Extensor and lateral rotator of hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At what time does the distal femoral epiphysis complete fusion?

A

14-18 females

16-20 males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what time does primary ossification of the pelvis occur?

A

2-6 months intrauterine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Flexor retinaculum

A

A fibrous band on the palmar side of the hand near the wrist. It arches over the carpal bones, covering them and forming the carpal tunnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Extensor retinaculum

A

Dorsal surface of the hand. Also holds together carpal tunnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which three nerves are in the hand?

A

Median
Ulnar
Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Radial nerve

A

Superficial to the extensor retinaculum on the doral surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ulnar nerve

A

Superficial to the flexor retinaculum on palmar surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Median nerve

A

Once it passes through the carpal tunnel, it divides into two branches - recurrent and palmar digital nerves. The palmar digital nerves give sensory innervation to the palmar skin and dorsal nail beds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three tendons of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Syndesmosis

A

A fibrous joint in which connective tissue is present to join the two bones.
Ex - the connection between the radius and ulna via the interosseus membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Synchrondosis

A

A cartilaginous joint in which a layer of hyaline cartilage is involved in the connection.
Temporary joint as will disappear with adult bone.
Ex - the fusion of the epiphysis to the diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What joint is temporary and will disappear with adult bone?

A

Synchrondosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

2 examples of plane joints

A

sternoclavicular

acromioclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

2 examples of a hinge joint

A

knee

elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

example of a pivot joint

A

superior radius and ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

example of an ellipsoid joint

A

wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2 examples of a ball and socket joint

A

shoulder and hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

example of a saddle joint

A

thumb, all movements possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which tendon(s) makes up the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Extensor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which tendon(s) make up the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Extensor pollicis brevis

Abductor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name the type of joint between the shaft of the radius and ulna

A

Syndesmosis via the interosseus membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The limb bud appears at what time?

A

As early as 26 days intrauterine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many bones are there in the hand?

A

27 total
8 carpals
5 metacarpals
14 phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the 3 parts of the innonimate?

A

Ilium, ischium, pubis

56
Q

What makes up the pelvis?

A

Two innonimates & sacrum

57
Q

What are the 3 muscles of the gluteal region?

A

Gluteus maximus, medius, minimus

58
Q

Name the three joints of the pelvis

A

Sacroiliac Joints - synovial. Hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage present. Interosseous sacroiliac ligament very important in the strength of these joints.
Pubic Symphysis - Synostosis. Fibrocartilaginous joint.
Acetabular Joint - Synovial, ball and socket. Most important ligament is the iliofemoral ligament.

59
Q

Identify two actions of the forearm

A

Supination

Pronation

60
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A

Sesamoid

61
Q

Action of the gluteus maximus

A

Extensor and lateral rotator of hip

62
Q

Action of the gluteus medius

A

Abduct, medial rotate of hip

63
Q

Action of the gluteus minimus

A

Abduct, medial rotate of hip

64
Q

Articular cartilage (hyaline)

A

The smooth, white tissue that covers the ends of bones where they come together to form joints.

65
Q

Canaliculi

A

Channels from the lacuna which house the cellular processes from the osteocyte

66
Q

Cancellous (spongy, trabecular) bone

A
  • scaffolding appearance
  • large soft tissue spaces
  • rarely includes vascular canals or osteons
  • located in ends of bones and in association with marrow
67
Q

Compact (cortical) bone

A

The dense outer surface of bone that forms a protective layer around the internal cavity

68
Q

Diaphysis

A

The main or midsection (shaft) of a long bone. It is made up of cortical bone and usually contains bone marrow and adipose tissue (fat).

69
Q

Endosteum

A

A thin vascular membrane of connective tissue that lines the inner surface of the bony tissue that forms the medullary cavity of long bones.

70
Q

Epiphysis

A

Secondary center

The end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft

71
Q

Haversian system (canal)

A
  • named after Clopton Havers

- central canal of the osteon, containing the vascular bundle (arterioles, venules, lymphatics and nerves, plus marrow)

72
Q

Interstitial lamella

A

One of the lamellae of partially resorbed osteons occurring between newer, complete osteons.

73
Q

Lacuna

A

Cell spaces to house osteocytes

74
Q

Lamellar bone

A
  • compact bone
  • dense bone structure
  • highly organized
  • limited soft tissue spaces
  • highly vascular
  • organized into Haversian systems
75
Q

Medullary cavity

A

The medullary cavity (medulla, innermost part) is the central cavity of bone shafts where red bone marrow and/or yellow bone marrow (adipose tissue) is stored; hence, the medullary cavity is also known as the marrow cavity.

76
Q

Metaphysis (growth plate)

A

The narrow portion of a long bone between the epiphysis and the diaphysis. It contains the growth plate, the part of the bone that grows during childhood and as it grows, it ossifies near the diaphysis and the epiphyses.

77
Q

Osteoblast

A
  • bone makers
  • arise from mesenchymal cells
  • produce bone matrix known as osteoid
  • as it is encased in matrix, it will reside in a lacuna and become an osteocyte
78
Q

Osteoclast

A
  • bone breakers
  • arises from mesenchymal cells
  • giant multinucleated phagocytic cell
  • resorbs and remodels bone and cartilage
  • resides in Howship’s lacuna
79
Q

Osteocyte

A
  • arise from osteoblast
  • maintain bone matrix and may release calcium
  • numerous processes interconnecting them
  • reside in lacuna
80
Q

Osteon

A

Chief structural unit of compact (cortical) bone, consisting of concentric bone layers called lamellae, which surround a long hollow passageway,

81
Q

Periosteum

A

A membrane that covers the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones.

82
Q

Primary center of ossification

A

Located in the shaft

83
Q

Secondary center of ossification

A

Located in the epiphysis

84
Q

Sharpey’s fibres

A

Any of the thready processes of the periosteum that penetrate the tissue of the superficial lamellae of bones

85
Q

Volkmann’s canal

A

Connecting branches between Haversian canals, feed intersitial lamellae

86
Q

Woven bone

A
  • fetal bone
  • poorly organized and weak bone
  • large vascular spaces
87
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A
  • appositional growth
  • no cartilaginous model
  • mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
  • bone matrix is layered down
  • osteocytes and canaliculi are evident
88
Q

Endochondral ossification

A
  • associated with growth phase and repair
  • originate from a cartilaginous model
  • cartilage cells replaced by bone cells
  • growth occurs in length and width
89
Q

What are the dental formulas?

A

Deciduous 2102

Adult 2123

90
Q

Ethics: biological anthropologists must consider the following:

A 
Study Group
Present day descendants
Future descendants
Other populations
 Science
Scholarship
Publication of results without disposing data
 Colleagues
Students, trainees, employers, employees, public
Held accountable for what doing and WHY
91
Q

Ethics: WHY am I doing this research?

A

How will this research project be vetted?

How might the research impact descendants and local communities?

What are the full implications of conducting this research?

How is the publication vetted before being publicized?

How does history

92
Q

Ethics: WHY am I doing this research?

A

How will this research project be vetted?

How might the research impact descendants and local communities?

What are the full implications of conducting this research?

How is the publication vetted before being publicized?

How does history of the discipline impact the ability to conduct research?

93
Q

What kind of ethical legislation is in place in Alberta?

A

Every situation is unique, no comprehensive legislation except how to deal with remains in general.
Chief medical examiner authority until deemed otherwise.
Have NOT resolved all the issues

94
Q

Scientific value in studying human remains

A
  • medical school use of cadavers
  • autopsies to understand disease and forensic science
  • skeletal and mummified remains can be studied for information on health, development and human societies
  • human remains in the context of culture
  • all humans benefit from information and therefore all humans have a stake in its aquisition
95
Q

What is an isotope?

A

Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei.
Same chemical properties, different mass.

96
Q

What is the relationship of carbon and nitrogen in tissues?

A

In any area local foods have certain stable isotope values and human tissue values reflects the proportion of foods eaten. This analysis depends on knowing available foods and values.

97
Q

How is diet reflected by isotopes?

A

Stable isotope analysis reconstructs nutritional importance of foods.
Reconstructs diet at the individual level and can address questions of diet and gender, age, class.

98
Q

How to identify someone’s age?

A 
Method 1: dental eruption
Method 2: epiphyseal fusion
Method 3: pubic symphseal change
4: rib end analysis
5: cranial suture closure
6: degenerative change
99
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

A group of microorganisms that adhere to a surface. A microbial aggregate. May include bacteria, fungi, protozoa, proteins and extracellular DNA.

100
Q

What are individualizing features?

A

Dentition
Trabecular patters and xrays
Sinuses
Pathology

101
Q

What are the implications of bone analysis & biofilm?

A

Biofilm can ruin specimens, so you might be unable to do microscopic analysis on the bone. In the example we talked about, the sections of bone appeared black.

102
Q

How has it changed since death? (Taphonomy)

A 
Animal scavenging
Burning
Secondary burial
Weather
Soil
103
Q

Endocrine disturbances

A

Thryroid, parathyroid, pituitary (growth regulation)

cretinous dwarfism, gigantism, acromegaly, hereditary achondroplasia

104
Q

Circulatory disturbances

A

Affects bloodflow to region

Trauma, infections, degenerative diseases, congenital disorders

105
Q

Nutritional disturbances

A

Lacking certain mineral and vitamins

Osteomalacia, rickets

106
Q

Congenital deformities

A

Non-fusion anomalies, accessory bones, accessory foramen, spondyloysis

107
Q

Occupational stress markers

A

Hypertrophy, osteophytosis, facets, grooves, accessory bones

108
Q

Dental disease

A

Caries, abcesses, peridontal disease, malocclusion

109
Q

Cultural modifications

A

Cranial deformations, trepinations

110
Q

Lytic lesions

A

Abnormal loss of bone.
Anemia-porotic hyperostosis: sickle cell, malnutrition, cribra orbitalla, cribra crani
Necrosis-bone death: alveolar absesses, amputations

111
Q

Proliferative lesions

A

Excess bone deposition.
Osteophytes: osteoarthritis, aging
Bone callus: around fracture, around implants
Generalized bone disease: striations on long bones
Button osteoma

112
Q

Deformative lesions

A

Abnormal curvature or morphology.
Environmentally caused: osteomalacia, rickets, vertebral wedging
Congenital cause: scoliosis

113
Q

Fractures

A 
Complete fracture
Incomplete fracture
Compound fracture
Pathological fracture
Stress fracture
114
Q

Fractures

A 
Complete fracture
Incomplete fracture
Compound fracture
Pathological fracture
Stress fracture
115
Q

Osteitis

A

Inflammation of the bone caused by infections

116
Q

Periositis

A

Inflammation of the periosteum

117
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation in the bone caused by bacteria and involves the medullary cavity

118
Q

Algor mortis

A

body temperature drops, time of death

119
Q

Rigor mortis

A

tensed pose of the body (2-4hrs post mortem)

120
Q

Livor mortis

A

pooling of blood causing discoloration of skin

121
Q

Degradation

A

begins immediately at tie of death; breakdown of body fluids and tissues via autolysis

122
Q

Putrefacation

A

gases created by microbes as body tissues are broken down and begin to decay

123
Q

Taphonomy: soil

A

Mineral within soil dictates the color of the stain on bones.

124
Q

Taphonomy: minerals

A

Can form crystals on bone surface. Groundwater can cause stains and calcium crusts of mineral.

125
Q

Taphonomy: metals

A

Mostly from artifacts that are burried with or near bodies.
Iron = red/brown
Copper= green/blue

126
Q

Why is taphonomy relevant to forensics?

A
  • can help indicate post mortem interval
  • can help indicate whether the remains are forensic or historic
  • can hide trauma
  • spread of forensic scene via carrying of remains
  • helpful to indicating length of time in one location
127
Q

Imaging techniques: 2D

A
  • plane plate radiography
    • x-ray radiography
  • ultrasonography
    • sound-based
    • 3D being developed
128
Q

Imaging techniques: 2D

A
  • plane plate radiography
    • x-ray radiography
  • ultrasonography
    • sound-based
    • 3D being developed
129
Q

Imaging techniques: 3D

A
  • computed tomography

- MRI - magnetic resonance imaging

130
Q

Radiography

A
  • x-ray beam passed through subject in a single plane
    advantages
  • fast, cheap, low relative radiation exposure
    disadvantages
  • 2D
  • superimposition is a problem
  • difficult to make accurate measurments
131
Q

Computed Tomography

A
  • CT scan
  • useful in clinical and research settings
  • data can be interpreted multiple ways
  • no superimposition
  • high tolerance for tissue differentiation
  • available in most hospitals
  • relatively quick
    disadvantages
  • spatial revolution not great
  • higher radiation dose
  • high running costs
132
Q

Ultrasonography

A 
pros
- quality bone surface rendering
- no radiation, few side effects
- scanners cheap, portable
cons
- cannot penetrate bone surface
- requires trained operator
- BMI dependent imaging
133
Q

2D vs 3D imaging

A 
2D
- gross assessment of bonw
- cheap and fast
- superimposition
- qualitative analysis
- fixed image
- initial pilot studies
3D
- specific observations
- expensive
- quantitative data
- in-depth analysis
134
Q

C3 plants

A

Most plants eaten by humans including crops

135
Q

C4 plants

A

A few plants eaten by humans including maize, millet and sugarcane.

136
Q

What are some solutions to eliminate biofilm?

A
  • eliminate airborne bacteria
  • chemical treatments
  • high energy radiation
  • low oxygen environments
  • refridgerations
  • dehydration at room temp

ANTHR 390 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions