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Oral Surgery 2 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered severe over jet?

A

7-10mm

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2
Q

What is considered severe reverse over jet (class 3)

A

-3 - -4mm

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3
Q

What is considered severe open bite?

A

-3 - -4mm

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4
Q

Most facial deformities in the U.S are what type?

A

Mandibular deficiency

Vertically maxillary excess

Or both

(This makes up 2% of the population)

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5
Q

What percent of the population has asymmetry in their face?

A

0.1%

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6
Q

What are some causes of dentofacial deformities?

A

Inherited tendencies

Prenatal problems

Systemic conditions during growth

Trauma

Environmental influences

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7
Q

Multifactorial nature of facial development ___ prediction of inherited pattern

A

Precludes

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8
Q

What does fetal alcohol syndrome cause in regards to congential facial abnormalities?

A

Midfacial hypoplasia

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9
Q

What are three environmental influences that may influence facial growth?

A

Respiratory difficulty

Mouth breathing

Tongue position

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10
Q

What are some things that trauma can cause in regards to facial growth?

A

TMJ ankylosis

Assymetric mandibular growth

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11
Q

True or false… any non-restorable teeth should be extracted before surgical intervention

A

True

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12
Q

When malocclusion involves ____, treating with Orthodontics alone may result in adequate ____ but poor facial or dental esthetics or poor long term prognosis for post-treatment retention (over-compensation).

A

Skeletal discrepancy

Occlusion

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13
Q

True or false.. it is typically better to delay surgery until growth complete in pts with problem of excess growth. However, surgery can be considered earlier for patients with growth deficiencies

A

True

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14
Q

What is compensatory response?

A

Undesirable angulation of anterior teeth

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15
Q

What is decompensation?

A

Aim of presurgical orthodontics to align the teeth in proper proportion to the arches. Magnifies the appearance of the defect

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16
Q

How long does presurgical orthodontics typically take?

A

12-18 months

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17
Q

What is the advantage of a vertical ramus osteomoty?

A

You arent involving the nerve

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18
Q

What is the advantage of rigid fixation (vertical ramus osteotomy)?

A

You dont have to wire the teeth shut

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19
Q

Is the bilateral saggital split osteotomy used for mandibular excess or deficiency?

A

Deficiency

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20
Q

What surgery would you do if it is a class 2 dental relationship but the A-P position of the chin is ok?

A

Total subapical osteotomy

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21
Q

What allows the adequate collateral circulation for mobilization of total maxilla in regards to maxillary excess?

A

Palatal and buccal gingival Pedicles

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22
Q

In maxillary excess, you may find what classes of occlusion?

A 
1
2
3
 Open bite
Transverse discrepancy
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23
Q

Vertical maxillary excess is often associated with apertognathia. What is that?

A

Anterior open bite

Results from excess downward growth of maxilla

Causes downward rotation of mandible

Result of premature contact of posterior teeth

Corrected by superior repositioning of maxilla in one or several pieces. Le fort osteotomy with or without segmentalization

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24
Q

What class of occlusion do you often see in maxillary/mid-face deficiency?

A

Class 3 with reverse anterior over jet

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25
Q

What surgical procedure do you do for maxillary horizontal deficiency?

A

Le fort 1 advancement

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26
Q

In severe midface deficiency you can do a lefort ___ advancement

A

2 or 3

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27
Q

What is the most common serious congenital anomaly in the orofacial region? It occurs 1 out of ___ births in the US

A

Cleft lip and palate

700

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28
Q

Who is cleft lip/palate more often seen in?

A

Less frequent in blacks, more frequent in Asians

Boys more often than girls

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29
Q

True or false… most cases of cleft lip are bilateral

A

False. 3/4 are unilateral (left>right)

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30
Q

True or false.. you can be genetically predisposed for cleft lip/palate

A

True

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31
Q

True or false… supernumerary teeth may be involved in cleft palates

A

True

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32
Q

What type of occlusion is seen in cleft palate?

A

Class 3 (pseudo-prognathism)

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33
Q

What are the hearing problems involved with cleft palate?

A

Levator veli and tensor veli palatini muscles unattached, make middle ear a closed space.

Requires myrinogotomy or leads to hearing loss

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34
Q

What is an alteration in a pts speech that persists after surgical correction of cleft palate?

A

Hyper-nasality

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35
Q

When is the usual time to correct cleft lip and cleft palate?

A

Cleft lip - rule of 10s (10wks)

Palate - usually 8-18 months

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36
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of early surgical repair of cleft lip/palate?

A

Advantages: proper muscle development, ease of breast feeding, development of phonation skills, better auditory function, better hygiene, psychological

Disadvantages: more difficult surgery on small structures. Scar formation causes maxillary growth restriction

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37
Q

True or false… in a palatorrhaphy, the hard palate is closed with soft tissues only.

A

True. The 3 layers include nasal mucosa, muscle, and oral mucosa

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38
Q

How does the maxillary sinus communicate with the environment?

A

Middle nasal meatus and nasal vestibule

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39
Q

What four arteries supply the maxillary sinus?

A

Facial artery

Maxillary artery

Infra-orbital artery

Greater palatine artery

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40
Q

The pterygoid plexus drains into the ___ vein. It also communicates with the cavernous sinus by ___

A

Facial

Emissary veins

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41
Q

What is the nerve supply to the maxillary sinus?

A 
ASA
MSA
PSA
IO
Greater palatine
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42
Q

How thick is the bone in front of the maxillary sinus?

A

1mm

This is why palpation works well. When you palpate the superior alveolar nerves are stimulated

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43
Q

What are three types of developmental anomalies seen with the maxillary sinus?

A

Agenesis (completely absent)

Aplasia/hypoplasia (seen with cleft palate, Chonal atresia, high palate, septal deformity, mandibular dysostosis, malformation of external nose)

Supernumerary (two completely separated sinuses on same side)

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44
Q

Hypoplasia of the sinus is seen with what conditions?

A

Cleft plate

Choanal atresia (back of nasal passage is blocked)

High palate

Septal deformities

Mandibular dysostosis

Malformation of external nose

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45
Q

What is the most common symptom of acute sinusitis?

A

Headache

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46
Q

What should you do if a pt fails to respond to the initial tx within 72 hours?

A

Culture and sensitivity tests should be carried out

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47
Q

What are some similarities between pulpal pain and sinusitis pain?

A

Tenderness on percussion

Sensitive to cold

Pain on mastication

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48
Q

What are some things that distinguish sinusitis pain from pulpal pain?

A

Cannot locate pain (unlike pulpal pain)

Radiating pain/headache (may also be present in pulpal pain)

Fever (may also be present in pulpal pain)

Viral infection

Pain of changing position

Nasal discharge

Foul taste, blood, pus, tinged mucous

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49
Q

When can sinus lift procedures contribute to acute maxillary sinusitis?

A

When the sinus membrane is severely lacerated or avulsed

When the sinus is overfilled

*significant disruption of the sinus membrane allows exposure of the graft material to the open sinus and possible contamination by nasal bacteria. (This is why you must place a membrane cover befor you place bone graft)

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50
Q

True or false… fistula are ALWAYS lined by stratified squamous epithelium and the patency of the tract is preserved until epithelial cells are removed

A

True

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51
Q

True or false… fistulas are associated with acute sinusitis

A

False. Chronic sinusitis

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52
Q

True or false… oro-antral fistulas are often iatrogenically created

A

True

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53
Q

True or false… you should be conservative with the A-P dimension of the palatal flap by making it short to avoid the artery

A

False. You want to be anterior enough so you contain the artery within the flap. Make it anterior enough so you dont cut the artery.

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54
Q

What is the difference between a pseudocyst and retention cyst?

A

The serum under the lining.

Pseudocyst = accumulation of serum (not mucus)

Retention cyst = accumulation of mucin forming a true cystic lesion

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55
Q

True or false.. you cannot distinguish between a pseudocyst and a retention cyst radiographically

A

True. You’d have to biopsy

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56
Q

What are the causes of pseudocysts and retention cysts?

A

Pseudocyst = cause is not clear but may be replanted to inflammation of the sinus lining

Retention cyst = blockage of ducts within the mucus-secreting glands within the sinus

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57
Q

Which antral pathology can become expansile and erode the walls of sinus?

A

Mucocele

This is why you must differentiate through removal and biopsy

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58
Q

Why are nasal cavity and sinus tumors so dangerous?

A

They are extremely close to vital organs

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59
Q

Sino-nasal malignancies are rare in the US but common in ___ and ___

A

Africa and Asia

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60
Q

Among the sino-nasal tumors, __ - ___% are maxillary sinus tumors

A

60-70%

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61
Q

Other than the two most common malignancies of the sinus (SCCA, adenoid cystic carcinoma) what are other types of malignant tumors of the maxillary sinus?

A

Malignant melanoma

Lymphoma

Salivary type neoplasm

Sarcomas

Metastatic tumors

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62
Q

What are some etiologies that can lead to cancer of the maxillary sinus?

A

Viral infections (EBV and HPV)

Exposure to wood dust

Nickel and chrome industries

Leather industries

Iatrogenic causes (irradiation)

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63
Q

What are the clinical features of a maxillary tumor?

A

Nasal obstruction

Recurrent sinusitis

Cranial neuropathy

Sinus pain

Facial parashteia

Propotosis

Diplopia

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64
Q

The treatment of maxillary tumors depends on the extent and histological type. What are some treatments?

A

Surgery - maxillectomy

Radiotherapy - total 6500 rads in 5 weeks

Chemotherapy - cisplatin and 5 flurouracil

Combined management

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65
Q

Should the chair be lower for the extraction of maxillary or mandibular teeth?

A

Mandibular

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66
Q

True or false.. in the first step of an extraction, you use the periosteal elevator to sever the PDL

A

False.. just separate the soft tissue attachements.

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67
Q

What is very important before extraction?

A

Proper oral hygiene

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68
Q

An un-obstructed pathway is a requirement for ideal extraction. What can you use to ensure an unobstructed pathway?

A

Use a bite block. This is because pts usually close their jaw to compensate for the pressure

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69
Q

When are tractional forces used for tooth extraction?

A

The final removal of tooth from socket. They should always be small forces because teeth are never “pulled”

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70
Q

What is the initial movement during the extraction of the lower second and third molars?

A

Lingual (this is also the direction that these teeth should be finally withdrawn)

All other teeth (expect those with conical roots) the initial movement should be buccal

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71
Q

What is the initial movement used in upper central incisor and lower second premolars?

A

Primary rotary movement

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72
Q

Why should the final withdrawing movement of teeth be outward?

A

To avoid traumatizing the opposing tooth

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73
Q

When would you use the wheel and axel technique?

A

When one root of a multiple-rooted tooth is left in the alveolar process

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74
Q

__% of the population have sought TMD treatment

A

16%

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75
Q

What is the dividing line between neck vs. jaw in muscle ligamentous?

A

Jaw is in front of the ear canal

76
Q

What kind of a splint do you want for muscle ligamentous?

A

Hard maxillary splint that opens the bite to a flat bite… ? (Not sure what he meant by this)

77
Q

What is the most common TMD?

A

Muscle-ligament problems

78
Q

You should always look for complicating disorders associated with internal derangements such as…

A

Ehlers-danlos

Prescription medication

Psycholigical

Abuse

Habits

79
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis develop intra-articular __ formations. Can involve ___

A

Pannus

Bone loss

80
Q

True or false.. the treatment varies between youth and aged for TMJ arthritis

A

True

81
Q

What are some treatments for TMJ arthritis?

A

Physical therapy

Bite splint?

Prosthetic joint

Injection of platelet rich plasma and stem cell

Injection of hyaluronic acid (need to inject both spaces)

82
Q

TMJ arthritis can cause mild to substantial bony changes, bone spurs and ___

A

Sub-condylar cyst formation

83
Q

True or false.. TMJ arthritis bone changes always occur slowly

A

False. They may occur rapidly

84
Q

What does it mean to not treat an X ray. “It it moves and doesn’t hurt it is a joint”

A

If its asymptomatic and functional, there is no reason to correct it

85
Q

What does the sound sound like in TMJ arthritis?

A

Bone on bone fibrillar “bony” sounds

Pain is variable more deep sense constant

…this guy’s slides dont make any sense… smh..

86
Q

True or false.. arthrocenesis is very helpful for TMJ arthritis. Steroids and physical therapy are also useful

A

True

87
Q

True or false… splints are useful treating TMJ ankylosis

A

False

88
Q

True or false.. fibrous TMJ ankylosis may continue to bony ankylosis

A

True.

Bony ankylosis doesn’t move, unlike fibrous ankylosis

89
Q

True or false… steroid injections are useful for TMJ ankylosis

A

True

90
Q

What is a medical condition that can lead to TMJ ankylosis?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

Muscle calcifications

91
Q

Is TMJ arthroscopy effective for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

No. Just osteoarthritis

92
Q

What is TMJ arthrocentesis?

A

Injection of cannula and lavage of fluid in joint.

93
Q

What is the biggest risk with TMJ arthrocentesis?

A

Its close to the ear canal (2mm away)

You can puncture the ear drum and even dislocate the ossicles

94
Q

Although TMJ tumors (and malignancies) are rare. List the most common to least common TMJ neoplasms.

A

Osteo-chondroma

Osteoma

Chondroma

95
Q

Facial planes in face can cause death from tooth infection within __ days (if spreads to specific facial planes)

A

5

96
Q

Pus is present in __

A

Abscesses

97
Q

What are the two ways in which odontogenic infections are spread?

A

Periapical spread

Periodontal spread

98
Q

6% of bacteria in odontogenic infections are ___.

44% are ___.

50% are ____.

A

Aerobic bacteria: 6%

Anaerobic bacteria: 44%

Aerobic + anaerobic bacteria: 50%

99
Q

When should you do culture/sensitivity testing of bacteria?

A

Infection is spreading

Rapid progression

Antibiotics are not working

Compromised host defenses (diabetes/ HIV)

Give it 72 hours

100
Q

Should you use narrow spectrum or broad spectrum antibiotics in an acute infection?

A

Narrow

101
Q

What should you look for in an intraoral examination?

A

Caries

Swellings of oral vestibule

Periodontal disease

Tooth mobility

Pericornitis

Swellings

*always be thinking about the airway

102
Q

What does it look like when there is pharyngeal swelling?

A

Difficulty swallowing

Uvula shifted away

103
Q

What does it look like if there is swelling in the retropharyngeal space?

A

Sniffing position

104
Q

What does it look like if there is swelling in the lateral pharyngeal space?

A

Head deviated to opposite side

105
Q

True or false.. when there is cellulitis in the facial planes it can lead to difficulty sleeping in the supine position

A

True

106
Q

What happens to the voice with epiglottitis?

A

Muffled voice

107
Q

What happens to the voice with swelling in the retropharyngeal/lateral pharyngeal space?

A

Distant quality to voice

108
Q

What happens when there is swelling in the sublingual space?

A

Elevated tongue

109
Q

Trismus is when opening is less than __mm.

A

30mm

This can mean they would be difficult to incubate

110
Q

Inflammation in which spaces will lead to trismus?

A

Inflammation of muscles of mastication

Masticator space (severe trismus)
(Specifically, Pterygomandibular space and temporal space)

Anterior compartment of lateral pharyngeal space (not posterior compartment)

111
Q

Infection usually goes through cortical or medullary bone?

A

Medullary bone. (Routes of spread of odontogenic orofacial infections along planes of least resistance)

112
Q

In infections, the bacteria that first appear are ___, then ___. Cellulitis is typically ___

A

Aerobes

Anaerobes

Mixed

Can end up in an abscess

113
Q

True or false… spread of infection through medullary bone is considered cellulitis

A

False.. cellulitis is inflammation through soft tissue or organ

114
Q

True or false… cellulitis develops swelling rapidly and often involves a high fever

A

True

115
Q

How long does it take to form ludwigs angina?

A

It can form within 4 hours

116
Q

Clinical examination of cellulitis underestimate extent in __% of cases

A

70%

117
Q

Where is the best place to evaluate the cellulitis?

A

Site of origin

118
Q

What antibiotics do you give a pt who is allergic to penicillin?

A

Clindamycin (great bone penetration)

Azithromycin

Clarithromycin

119
Q

True or false.. pus is a reason to put someone on antibiotics

A

True. Pain and swelling may also be reasons.

120
Q

What drug should you first give someone with an odontogenic infection?

A

Pen V (its narrow spectrum against gram positive and streptococcus species are highly prevalent)

121
Q

True or false… gangrenous gas is worse than pus

A

True

122
Q

What does infection in the vestibular space look like?

A

Diffuse facial swelling

Elevation of the oral vestibule

Draining sinus

123
Q

True or false… in a vestibular space infection you should take out the causing tooth.

A

False. You dont necessarily have to extract the tooth but you need to open up the area to change the oxygen environment. (Not sure about this one, my notes are unclear)

124
Q

In a sup-periosteal space infection, the dental infection perforated the __ but not the ___

A

Cortical layer but not periosteum

125
Q

A buccal space infection is a ___ space infection. It connects to what three spaces?

A

Subcutaneous

Infraorbital space

Periorbital tissues

Superficial temporal space

126
Q

In children, buccal abscesses are hardly ever due to a problem with a tooth, it is mostly ___

A

Sinusitis or idiopathic spread of an upper respiratory tract infection (hemophilus influenzae cellulitis)

127
Q

What is your workup if you are suspecting a facial plane infection?

A

CT (if you can)

Radiograph

Trismus evaluation

Examine dentition (try to find the potential location for the origin of spread)

128
Q

What happens if you get cellulitis in bilateral submandibular spaces and submental/sublingual space?

A

Ludwig’s angina

129
Q

What has a submandibular “woody” swelling, elevated tongue, and pt is in sniffing position, mouth pain, drooling, dysphagia.

A

Ludwig’s angina

130
Q

True or false… trismus is involved in ludwigs angina

A

False

131
Q

True or false.. lymph nodes are involved in ludwigs angina

A

False

132
Q

What are two dangerous things about Ludwig’s angina?

A

Rapid spread to lateral pharyngeal and retropharyngeal space and beyond

*rapidly obstructs upper airway (number one issue) ( may need to do tracheotomy)

133
Q

How do get a submental space infection?

A

Secondary spread from submandilbar space (its part of the sublingual and submylohyoid spaces)

You can get a submental space infection from mandibuar molars.

134
Q

True or false.. it is possible to get a submental space infection from a mandibular third molar

A

True

135
Q

True or false… a simple swelling can end up in the mediastinum, no matter where you start.

A

True. All odontogenic infections from any location have the potential to spread anywhere

136
Q

What are the most likely teeth to cause buccal space abscesses?

A

Maxillary molars and premolars because of the thin bone

137
Q

Which is safer of the two compartments of the lateral pharyngeal space… anterior or posterior?

A

Anterior is safer

138
Q

What is found in the anterior compartment of the lateral pharyngeal space?

A

Muscles

CT

139
Q

What is found in the posterior compartment of the lateral pharyngeal space?

A

Carotid sheath

9-12 cranial nerves

Sympathetic trunk

(This is considered the neuromuscular compartment)

140
Q

Where are peritonsillar abscesses found?

A

Lateral pharyngeal space

141
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of an infection in the anterior compartment?

A

Dysphasia

Trismus

Pain

142
Q

What are the signs/symptoms in the posterior compartment>

A

No trismus

Neurological/vascular problems… such as issues with the VAGUS nerve and other cranial nerve palsies

Edema of epiglottis and larynx

Horner’ syndrome (involves eye)

Superlative jugular thrombophlebitis (lemierre syndrome)

Carotid artery erosion

143
Q

True or false.. an infection in both the anterior and posterior comparment of the lateral pharyngeal space can cause trismus.

A

False. Anterior compartment can but the posterior compartment does not result in trismus

144
Q

The retropharyngeal space is delineated by ___ layers of deep cervical fascia. Most important to remember is the __ fascia

A

3

Alar

145
Q

The retropharyngeal space starts at __ and ends at ___. It results in ___ spread, affecting __ and ___ tissues

A

C7

T1

Mediastinal

Pleural

Pericardial

The dangerspace continues from the base of skull to diaphragm

146
Q

What is preseptal cellulitis?

A

Cellulitis around orbital space

147
Q

Subperiosteal abscess can affect the ___

A

Orbital wall

148
Q

Orbital cellulitis/abscess can cause what?

A

Optic nerve damage due to cavernous sinus thrombosis

149
Q

True or false… an orbital space infection can spread directly into the brain

A

True

150
Q

Infection in the masticator space can result in severe trismus because it surround the muscles of mastication. Name the three spaces that come together in the masticator space.

A

Pterygo-mandibular space (in back of third molar)

Superficial/deep temporal space (Side of head by temporalis)

Masseteric space (head of mandible under the masseter and above the ramus)

151
Q

What two things can an infection in the temporal space lead to?

A

Trismus

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

152
Q

___ is necessary for the diagnosis of the bugs involved in the infection. Always culture with facial plane infections. What kind of testing should you do first?

A

Pus

Gram stain

153
Q

What is the surgical treatment for odontogenic infections?

A

Gravity dependent surgical drainage

Antibiotics secondary

Tooth extraction

154
Q

In an odontogenic infection, initially the bugs are ___, (treat with __), then ___ (treat with __)

A

Aerobic streptococci

Treat with penicillin

Anaerobic bacteria (antibiotics that will kill penicillin resistant microbes)

Later, it is a mixed synergistic interaction of bugs that is predominantly anaerobic in nature

155
Q

___% of odontogenic infectious bugs are penicillin resistant

A

30-50%

156
Q

What is the treatment for mediastinitis?

A

Airway security

Contrast CT

Open thoracotomy

Broad spectrum antibiotics

157
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to ascending septic thrombophlebitis. Its anterior route is ___, its posterior route is ___.

A

Angular vein (infraorbital space)

Facial vein (buccal space, temporal space can also go this route!)

158
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis causes…

A

Congestion of retinal veins

CN 6 paresis
Opthalmoplegia
Blindness

Severe orbital/periorbital/infraorbital swelling

159
Q

What is the treatment for cavernous sinus thrombosis (4 things)

A

Tooth extraction/RCT
Drainage deep spaces
High dose IV antibiotics
Anticoagulation

160
Q

What are the 5 suspects for soft and hard tissue lesions?

A

Developmental

Neoplasm

Reactive/inflammatory

Trauma related

Metabolic/systemic

161
Q

What is the difference between an ulcer an erosion of the soft tissue?

A

Ulcer: a defect or break in continuity of the mucosa that creates a punched-out area similar to a crater

Erosion of the soft tissue: a shallow defect in the mucosa caused by mechanical trauma

162
Q

True or false… leukoplakia very often precedes the development of a malignant tumor

A

True

163
Q

What is the difference between minor RAU and minor RAU?

A

Minor: episodes fewer than 6 times a year. Lesions usually heal within 7-10 days. Smaller lesions

Major: outbreaks of larger, deeper ulcers that take longer to heal

164
Q

True or false.. there is no histological connotation associated with erythroplakia

A

True? But on the same slide it says…

Most can histologically be diagnosed as epithelial dysplasia or worse

Areas of erythroplakia have an increased rate of progression to carcinoma

165
Q

What are the three types of erythroplakia?

A

Homogenous form

Erythroleukoplakia

Specialized erythroplakia

166
Q

What is the differential breakdown for a 35 year old female who says there is a red area on FOM?

A

Physical trauma

Chemical burns

Infectious or non-infectious mucositis

Epithelial dysplasia (erythroplakia)

Carcinoma in-situ

SCCA

167
Q

Does midazolam have analgesia?

A

No

Its used for anxiolysis, short half life, amnestic qualities, status epilepticus

168
Q

What are the top two medical emergencies in the dental office?

A

Syncope

Allergic reaction

169
Q

What is the reversal for midazolam?

A

Flumazenil

170
Q

True or false.. a dentist will encounter an average of 4-7 emergencies in their first 5 years of practice

A

False

171
Q

True or false.. a bronchospasm is a protective reflex

A

False.. a laryngospasm is however

172
Q

What are the most common causes of symptomatic orthostatic hypotension?

A

A drop in the systolic BP of 10mm and diastolic BP of 10mm when repositioning the pt

Impaired autonomic reflex mechanisms

Not hypovolemia

173
Q

What pt population do you need to take extra percautions with administration of opioid and sedation medications?

A

Elderly and pediactric pts

174
Q

True or false… arterial pulsations cause a source of mismeasurment in pulse oximetry readings

A

False. Venous pulsations can cause errors. As well as bilirubin, color interferences, and body movements

175
Q

True or false… pts who are sedated, once awoken and can tell you their name, DOB, and location can be disconnected from the physical monitoring and discharged with an escort.

A

False

176
Q

In otherwise healthy pts, the duration of NPO for clear liquids is at least __ hours

A

6

177
Q

In the case of re-implanted or significantly displaced teeth with closed foramina, RCT should be instituted when?

A

2 weeks after initial stabilization

178
Q

What is the recommended minimum stabilization period for dentoalveoalr injuries with tooth displacement?

A

2-3 weeks

179
Q

In evaluation of pts with significant facial trauma, what should the first consideration be?

A

Airway

180
Q

In treating severe facial injuries involving maxillary, orbital, nasal, zygomatic, and mandibular fractures, the treatment begins with…

A

The mandibular arch and condyles to establish a vertical dimension then the occlusion

181
Q

True or false… the first rule of pt care is to do no harm unless the practitioner feels it is necessary to do harm to save a life

A

True

182
Q

What is the most common cause of end stage renal disease?

A

Diabetes

183
Q

True or false.. oral surgical procedures are planned the same day as dialysis to avoid too much clotting

A

False

184
Q

True or false… adjustment in dosing is needed when giving an opioid when they are also on benzodiazepines

A

True

185
Q

True or false… benzodiazepines in moderate sedation should always be reversed by flumazenil

A

True

186
Q

All of the following are examples of pre-prosthetic surgical intervention except…

A: tuberosity reduciton of mandibular lingual ridge

B: palatal torus reduciton

C: maxillary tuberosity reduction

D: maxillary frenulum trimmming

A

A

187
Q

What are three characteristics of sympotmollogy of a mandibular fracture?

A

Cranial nerve 5 division neurosensory deficit of the lip and chin

Ecchymosis in FOM

Discontinuity of fracture segments

Oral Surgery 2 (9 decks)

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