final Flashcards

1
Q

3 things in nutrition to help woh wound healing

A

Protein, Vitamin C, Zinc

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2
Q

Antibiotic therapy is vigorously initiated if blood cultures verify a __________ condition.

A

septicemia

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3
Q

this is the remedy for what type of Incontinence

Follow the prescribed schedule for emptying the bladder either through voiding or by intermittent catheterization.

Supply urine-containment products: condom catheter, undergarments, pads, briefs. Monitor for signs and symptoms of urinary retention and UTI.

Monitor for autonomic dysreflexia

A

Reflex Incontinence

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4
Q

Modes of Transmission where

  • Contaminated items
  • Water
  • Drugs, solutions
  • Blood
  • Food (improperly handled, stored, or cooked; fresh or thawed meats)
A

Vehicles

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5
Q

Pre-filled syringe

Do not expel air bubble prior to administration

A

lovenox

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6
Q

type of IV Solution that

Uses
Intracellular/cellular hydration

Fluid management for a patient who is both volume-depleted and hyperosmolar

A

Hypotonic

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7
Q

is a disorder characterized by the lack of airflow through the nose and mouth for periods of 10 seconds or longer during sleep. There are three types central, obstructive, and mixed

A

Sleep apnea

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8
Q

What is the normal blood pressure range for adult

A

<120/80 B/P (mmHg)

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9
Q

Loss of continence because of causes outside the urinary tract. Usually related to functional deficits such as altered mobility and manual dexterity, cognitive impairment, poor motivation, or environmental barriers

A

Functional Incontinence

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10
Q

stage of pressure ulcer where

nonblanchable erythema of intact skin

A

1

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11
Q

less concentrated than plasma

action:fluid shifts from plasma into the cells

A

hypotonic

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12
Q

4 late Respiratory Signs and Symptoms of Hypoxia

A

 Dyspnea at rest
 Use of accessory muscles
 Retractions on inspiration
 Pause for breath between sentences, words

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13
Q

normal pH for urine

A

4.6-8.0

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14
Q

_________ disease is the infectious disease transmitted from one person to another.

A

Communicable

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15
Q

A patient is experiencing some problems with joint stability. The doctor has prescribed crutches for the patient to use while still being allowed to bear weight on both legs. Which of the following gaits should the patient be taught to use?

  • Four-point
  • Three-point
  • Two-point
  • Swing-through
A

-Four-point

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16
Q

type of Medications Long-term use

alters metabolism of anesthetic agents.

A

Anticonvulsants

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17
Q

is a symptom that patients experience when they have chronic difficulty falling asleep, frequent awakenings from sleep, and/or a short sleep or nonrestorative sleep

A

Insomnia

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18
Q

6 cause of Hypokalemia

A

Diuretics

  • Diarrhea
  • Vomiting
  • Gastric suction
  • Steroid administration
  • Bulemia

D- drugs (steroids, diuretics, laxatives)
I- inadequate intake (nothing by mouth, anorexic)
T- too much (water, base, insulin)
C- Cushing syndrome
H- heavy fluid loss (suctioning)

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19
Q

Provide 60-80% concentrations of O2

A

Non-rebreather Face Mask with reservoir bag

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20
Q

Oral suctioning is performed with a ____ device.

A

Yankauer

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21
Q

______ determines if there is actual tissue damage v. reactive hyperemia.

A

Blanch test

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22
Q

Infiltration Score where

blanching, cool to touch, edema > 6 inches, Mild to moderate; numbness

A

3

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23
Q

Wound is left open to heal “from the ground up”—as in a contaminated wound

Takes longer time to heal, leaves bigger scar, greater risk for infection, can be more difficult for patient both physically and psychologically

A

Secondary intention:

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24
Q

Central Lines watch for what 6 things

A

Watch for: SOB, chest pain, cough, hypotension, tachycardia, anxiety after or during insertion

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25
Q

Clinical Manifestations :

  • Anorexia, N/V
  • Weakness
  • Lethargy
  • Confusion, headache
  • Muscle cramps/twitching
  • Seizures
  • Coma
A

Hyponatremia

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26
Q

Type of Cleansing Enema that

Distends the colon
Stimulates peristalsis
Softens feces

A

Isotonic (Normal saline)

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27
Q

Oxygen Capability 24-48%

A

Nasal cannula

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28
Q
Clinical Presentation:
Tachycardia
Pulmonary Edema
Tachypnea
Confusion
Coma
A

Metabolic Acidosis

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29
Q

Regulates amount of water in the body

Helps with electrical signals in the brain, nervous system and muscles

A

Sodium

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30
Q

Scraping or rubbing away of epidermis; may result in localized bleeding and later weeping of serous fluid.

A

Abrasion

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31
Q

Soft, pink, fleshy projections of tissue that form during the healing process in a wound not healing by primary intention.

Red and moist, viable

A

granulation tissue

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32
Q

is a problem many patients experience as a result of dyssomnia. Causes include symptoms (e.g., fever, difficulty breathing, or pain) caused by illnesses, emotional stress, medications, environmental disturbances

A

Sleep deprivation

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33
Q

Provide 40-60% concentrations of O2

A

simple face mask

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34
Q

Provides 24%-60% oxygen

A

Venturi Mask

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35
Q

developed after prolonged intake or when a medication accumulates due to impaired metabolism

A

Toxic Effect

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36
Q

a flaring of moderate to severe pain despite therapeutic doses of analgesics

A

breakthrough pain

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37
Q

FLUID SPACING

Normal

Between
ICF & ECF

A

1st

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38
Q

Calcium (Normal Value: )

A

9-10.5 mEq

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39
Q

Clinical presentation:
Numbness
Muscle twitches
Seizures

A

Respiratory alkalosis

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40
Q

Injection locations

up to 3 ml

A

Vastus lateralis

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41
Q

nursing diagnosis

K
E
S
A

A

knowledge

experience

standards

attiudes

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42
Q

Specific gravity for urine

A

(1.0053-1.030),

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43
Q

an adaptive state characterized by a decreasing response to repeated constant doses of a drug or the need for increasing doses to maintain a constant response

A

tolerance

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44
Q

6 things that are on the Braden scale for prediction of PU Development

A
Sensory Perception
Moisture
Activity
Mobility
Nutrition
Friction and Shear
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45
Q

(protrusion of visceral organs through a wound opening) occurs.

A

Evisceration.

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46
Q

4 General rules of body mechanics

A

Assess the situation CAREFULLY before acting!

Use the large muscle groups whenever possible.

Work at appropriate height!

Use mechanical lifts

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47
Q

Sodium (Normal Value: )

A

135-145 mEq

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48
Q

wound drainage that is

Bright red; indicates active bleeding

A

Sanguineous

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49
Q

The nurse evaluates that the NAP has applied a patient’s sequential compression device (SCD) appropriately when which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply.)

A. Initial patient measurement is made around the calves

B. Inflation pressure averages 40 mm Hg

C. Patient’s leg placed in SCD sleeve with back of knee aligned with popliteal opening on the sleeve.

D. Stockings are removed every 2 hours during application.

E. Yellow light indicates SCD device is functioning.

A

Patient’s leg placed in SCD sleeve with back of knee aligned with popliteal opening on the sleeve.

Inflation pressure averages 40 mm Hg

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50
Q

What is the normal pulse range for adult

A

60-100 HR/minute

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51
Q

PaCO2 normal range

A

34-45

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52
Q

Body measures of height, weight, and skinfolds to evaluate muscle atrophy.

A

anthropometric measurements

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53
Q

Provides 5-10L of O2

Minimum of 5L/min O2 required to prevent client from re-breathing exhaled carbon dioxide

A

Simple Face Mask

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54
Q

Loss of more water than sodium
Hypertonic imbalance
Water deficit

ECV Deficit + Hypernatremia
Gastroenteritis (Severe N&V)

clinical dehydration

A

Hypovolemia

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55
Q

smart goal means

A
S: specific
M: measurable
A: Achievable
R: Relevant
T: Time Bound
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56
Q

Type of Enema that

  • lubricates and softens stool
A

Oil Retention

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57
Q

3 Hypokalemia interventions

A

Interventions:
-Administer potassium supplement
PO can have a bad taste and be irritating to the GI tract
IV must be well diluted and NEVER given as a bolus

  • Assess renal status (UOP) prior to giving supplemental potassium
  • Encourage foods rich in potassium
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58
Q

3 late Central Nervous System Signs and Symptoms of Hypoxia

A
  • Combativeness
  • Coma
  • confusion
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59
Q

clinical manifestations

Thready pulse
Decreased BP, Increased HR, Increased RR
Decreased Cap Refill, cool clammy skin, poor skin turgor
Hypoxia
Weak, dizzy
Decreased Weight
Increased thirst
Decreased urine output
Confusion, changes in LOC, lethargy (seizures, coma)
A

Hypovolemia

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60
Q

Involuntary loss of urine occurring at somewhat predictable intervals when patient reaches specific bladder volume related to spinal cord damage between C1 to S2

A

Reflex Incontinence

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61
Q

size of catheter for

Most medical/surgical patients, daily use

A

20-24 gauge

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62
Q

Type of Cleansing Enema that

Irritate mucosa
Distends the colon

A

Soap suds

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63
Q

A nurse is instructing a patient who has decreased leg strength on the left side how to use a cane. Which action indicates proper cane use by the patient?

  • The patient keeps the cane on the left side of the body.
  • The patient slightly leans to one side while walking.
  • The patient keeps two points of support on the floor at all times.
  • After the patient places the cane forward, he or she then moves the right leg forward to the cane.
A

The patient keeps two points of support on the floor at all times.

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64
Q

By using known criteria in conducting an assessment such as reviewing with a patient the typical characteristics of pain, a nurse is demonstrating which critical thinking attitude?

  • Curiosity
  • Adequacy
  • Discipline
  • Thinking independently
A

Discipline

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65
Q

causes

Intake
Decreased PO intake
Decreased Na intake
Inability to drink/express thirst

Output
Diarrhea, vomiting
Profuse sweating, drainage
Hemorrhage

Drugs
Diuretics, laxatives

Diseases
Renal disease
Third spacing: burns

A

Hypovolemia

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66
Q

Accidental administration of a non-vesicant solution into subcutaneous tissues.

The severity of the swelling is measured an a standardized scale

A

Infiltration

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67
Q

Immunizations are often given _______

A

Intramuscular (IM)

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68
Q

wound drainage that is

Clear, watery plasma

A

Serous

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69
Q

Provides 6-10 L of O2 per minute

rebreathe first third of exhaled air in conjunction with O2.

Patient is still taking in room air.

A

Partial Non-rebreather with a reservoir bag

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70
Q

Infiltration Score where

blanching, cool to touch, edema >6 inches pitting, Moderate to severe pain, Circulatory impairment

A

4

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71
Q

A patient has been on bed rest for over 4 days. On assessment, the nurse identifies the following as a sign associated with immobility:

A. Decreased peristalsis
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Increased urinary output

A

Decreased peristalsis

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72
Q

Modes of Transmission where

• Personal contact of susceptible host with contaminated inanimate object (e.g., needles or sharp objects, dressings, environment)

A

Indirect

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73
Q

What is your role as a nurse during a fire? (Select all that apply.)

  • Help to evacuate patients
  • Shut off medical gases
  • Use a fire extinguisher
  • Single carry patients out
  • Direct ambulatory patients
A
  • Help to evacuate patients
  • Shut off medical gases
  • Use a fire extinguisher
  • Direct ambulatory patients
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74
Q
Clinical Manifestations:
- + Chvostek’s sign
- + Trousseau’s sign
Numbness/tingling
Muscle twitch
Cramping
Hyperactive reflexes
Tetany 
Seizures
A

Hypocalcemia

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75
Q

stage of pressure ulcer where

full-thickness tissue loss; not involving underlying fascia. SC fat may be visible. May include tunneling and undermining.

A

3

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76
Q

one of a group of analgesics that act on higher centers of the brain and spinal cord to modify perceptions of moderate to severe pain

A

opioid

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77
Q

Respiratory alkalosis cause

A

Deep and Fast Breathing!

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78
Q

A nurse is evaluating a patient who is in soft wrist restraints. Which of the following activities does the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)

  • Check the patient’s peripheral pulse in the restrained extremity
  • Evaluate the patient’s need for toileting
  • Offer the patient fluids if appropriate
  • Release both limbs at the same time to perform range of motion (ROM)
  • Inspect the skin under each restraint
A

Check the patient’s peripheral pulse in the restrained extremity

Evaluate the patient’s need for toileting

Offer the patient fluids if appropriate

  • Inspect the skin under each restraint
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79
Q

Type of Anesthesia where

Administration of drugs by inhalation, intravenous, rectal, or oral route

a patient loses all sensation, consciousness, and reflexes, including gag and blink reflexes.

involves major procedures with extensive tissue manipulation

A

General

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80
Q

(the movement of gases in and out of the lungs)

A

VENTILATION

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81
Q

treatment approaches used to complement conventional medical treatments

A

complimentary therapies

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82
Q

Syringe (1 to 3 mL) and needle (25- to 27-gauge, 3/8- to 5/8-inch)

when injecting, If you can grasp 2 inches insert at a 90-degree angle; (1 inch) of tissue, 45-degree

A

Subcutaneous:

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83
Q

Clinical Manifestations:

  • F: fever/flushed dry skin
  • R: restless
  • I: Increased fluid retention
  • E: Edema
  • D: Decreased urine output
  • Seizures
  • Irritability/hallucinations
  • Thirst, sticky mucus membranes
A

Hypernatremia

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84
Q

Worst possible score = __
Best possible score = __

braden scale

A

6

23

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85
Q

This is required for tests of renal function and urine composition

If urine is accidentally discarded or contaminated or the patient is incontinent, restart the time period.
.

A

24-Hour Urine Specimen

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86
Q

6 Hyperkalemia interventions

A

Interventions:

  • Eliminate parenteral potassium
  • Kayexalate
  • Monitor EKG
  • Administer calcium gluconate to protect the heart
  • IV loop diuretics
  • Renal dialysis
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87
Q

wound drainage that is

Thick, yellow, green, tan, or brown

A

Purulent

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88
Q

3 early Central Nervous System Signs and Symptoms of Hypoxia

A

apprehension

restlessness or irritability

confusion, poor concentration and lethargy

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89
Q

3 late Cardiovascular Signs and Symptoms of Hypoxia

A

 Dysrhythmias
 Cyanosis
 Cool, clammy skin

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90
Q

type of Medications cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the ability of the body to withstand stress. Before and during surgery, dosages are often increased

A

Corticosteroids

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91
Q

Potassium (Normal Value: )

A

3.5-5.0 mEq

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92
Q

What is the correct order of steps for removal of protective barriers after leaving an isolation room?

  1. Remove gloves.
  2. Perform hand hygiene.
  3. Remove eyewear or goggles.
  4. Untie top and then bottom mask strings and remove from face.
  5. Untie waist and neck strings of gown. Remove gown, rolling it onto itself without touching the contaminated side.
A

-1, 3, 5, 4, 2

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93
Q

____________ heals by forming new tissue, a process that can take longer

Involves granulation

A

full-thickness wound

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94
Q

What is the normal respiratory range for adult

A

12-20

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95
Q

—fruits and vegetables, bran, chocolate, alcohol, coffee

A

Foods with laxative effect

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96
Q

—cheese, lean meat, eggs, pasta

A

Constipating foods

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97
Q

______ or workplace bullying between colleagues sometimes occurs and includes behaviors such as withholding information, backbiting, making snide remarks or put downs, and nonverbal expressions of disapproval such as raising eyebrows or making faces.

A

Lateral violence

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98
Q

Interval between entrance of pathogen into body and appearance of first symptoms (e.g., chickenpox, 14 to 16 days after exposure; common cold, 1 to 2 days; influenza, 1 to 4 days; measles, 10 to 12 days; mumps, 16 to 18 days; Ebola 2 to 21 days

A

Incubation Period

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99
Q

, considered one of the most tolerated and safest analgesics available, is available in a variety of over-the-counter (OTC) oral medications (e.g., cold and flu remedies) or rectal forms and in an intravenous (IV) preparation (Ofirmev).

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

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100
Q

FLUID SPACING

Abnormal

Trapped, cannot be easily exchanged with the ECF

ACITES
EDEMA (a/w burns, trauma, sepsis)

A

3rd

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101
Q

Which is the correct gait when a patient is ascending stairs on crutches?

  • A modified two-point gait (The affected leg is advanced between the crutches to the stairs.)
  • A modified three-point gait (The unaffected leg is advanced between the crutches to the stairs.)
  • A swing-through gait
  • A modified four-point gait. (Both legs advance between the crutches to the stairs.)
A

A modified three-point gait (The unaffected leg is advanced between the crutches to the stairs.)

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102
Q

_______ wound extends into the subcutaneous layer, and the depth and tissue type varies, depending on body location

A

A full-thickness

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103
Q
Clinical Manifestations:
- Muscle weakness
- Constipation
- Anorexia, N/V
- Dysrhythmias
- Neurosis
Diminished reflexes
Renal calculi (flank pain)
A

Hypercalcemia

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104
Q

Pain at access site with erythema or edema

is a grade __ on the Phlebitis Scale

A

2

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105
Q

Decrease pressure times- limit pressure every___ hours whether sitting in a chair, lying in bed, laying on a bony prominence

A

2

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106
Q

Which type of personal protective equipment are staff required to wear when caring for a pediatric patient who is placed into airborne precautions for confirmed chicken pox/herpes zoster? (Select all that apply.)

  • Disposable gown
  • N 95 respirator mask
  • Face shield or goggles
  • Surgical mask
  • Gloves
A

Disposable gown

N 95 respirator mask

Gloves

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107
Q

type of Medications such as beta blockers and calcium channel blockers interact with anesthetic agents to cause bradycardia, hypotension, and impaired circulation. They inhibit synthesis and storage of norepinephrine in sympathetic nerve endings

A

Antihypertensives

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108
Q

size of catheter for

Small children, Older adults, small vein access

A

22-24 gauge

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109
Q
Clinical Manifestations:
- Muscle weakness
- Bradycardia
Dysrhythmias
Flaccid paralysis
Intestinal colic
Tall T waves on EKG
M-muscles weakness 
U- urine output decreased 
R- respiratory failure 
D- decreased cardiac contractility  
E-  early muscle twitching 
R- rhythem changes
A

Hyperkalemia

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110
Q

Type of Anesthesia where

Used for short-term procedures, diagnostic, and therapeutic procedures that do not require complete anesthesia but rather a depressed level of consciousness

A

Conscious sedation

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111
Q

Pain at access site with erythema and edema, streak, palpable cord>1 inch in length & purulent drainage

is a grade __ on the Phlebitis Scale

A

4

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112
Q

A patient who has been isolated for Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) asks you to explain what he should know about this organism. What is the most appropriate information to include in patient teaching? (Select all that apply.)

The organism is usually transmitted through the fecal-
oral route.

  • Hands should always be cleaned with soap and water versus alcohol-based hand sanitizer.
  • Everyone coming into the room must be wearing a gown and gloves.

-While the patient is in contact precautions, he cannot
leave the room.

-C. difficile dies quickly once outside the body.

A

The organism is usually transmitted through the fecal-
oral route.

  • Hands should always be cleaned with soap and water versus alcohol-based hand sanitizer.
  • Everyone coming into the room must be wearing a gown and gloves.
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113
Q

A nurse enters a 72-year-old patient’s home and begins to observe her behaviors and examine her physical condition. The nurse learns that the patient lives alone and notices bruising on the patient’s leg. When watching the patient walk, the nurse notes that she has an unsteady gait and leans to one side. The patient admits to having fallen in the past. The nurse identifies the patient as having the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Falls. This scenario is an example of:

  • Inference.
  • Basic critical thinking.
  • Evaluation.
  • Diagnostic reasoning
A

Diagnostic reasoning

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114
Q

A healthy adult patient tells the nurse that he obtained his blood pressure in “one of those quick machines in the mall” and was alarmed that it was 152/72 when his normal value ranges from 114/72 to 118/78. The nurse obtains a blood pressure of 116/76. What would account for the blood pressure of 152/92? (Select all that apply.)

  • Cuff too small
  • Arm positioned above heart level
  • Slow inflation of the cuff by the machine
  • Patient did not remove his long-sleeved shirt
  • Insufficient time between measurements
A

Cuff too small

  • Insufficient time between measurements
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115
Q

size of catheter for

Trauma, large volume at a rapid rate

A

14-16 gauge

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116
Q

Nuts, beans
Canned entrees
Frozen bread, meals
Smoked/cured/canned meat and poultry

are all rich in ______

A

Sodium

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117
Q

size of catheter for

Surgical patient, rapid administration of fluids and blood products

A

18 gauge

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118
Q

________ wound heals by regeneration;

Involves epithelialization.

A

A partial-thickness

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119
Q

PaO2 normal range

A

80-100

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120
Q

type of IV Solution that

Examples:
0.9%NS
Lactated Ringers (LR)
D5W (note: D5W is the low end of isotonic, this can also be considered hypotonic)

A

Isotonic

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121
Q

type of Medications potentiate electrolyte imbalances (particularly potassium) after surgery.

A

Diuretics

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122
Q
  • Visual examination of the tracheobronchial tree through a narrow, flexible fiberoptic bronchoscope
  • Performed to obtain fluid, sputum, or biopsy samples; remove mucus plugs or foreign bodie
A

Bronchoscopy

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123
Q

4 Hyponatremia interventions

A

Interventions:
- Restrict fluid intake (if that is the cause of the hyponatremia)

  • Replace sodium
  • Hypertonic IV fluids (infuse slowly)
  • Seizure precautions
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124
Q

Keep O2 delivery systems ___ feet from open flames

A

10

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125
Q

Nurses signature on informed consent indicates what 2 things

A
  1. Patient signed without coercion

2. Patient was alert &; aware (competent)

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126
Q

absence of sensitivity to pain

A

analgesia

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127
Q

Urine is collected after voiding is initiated (midstream) and before voiding is completed

A

Midstream urine specimen

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128
Q

2 early Respiratory Signs and Symptoms of Hypoxia

A

 Tachypnea

 Dyspnea on exertion (DOE)

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129
Q

When an incision fails to heal properly, the layers of skin and tissue separate. This most commonly occurs before collagen formation (3 to 11 days after injury).

A

Dehiscence

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130
Q

three types of analgesics:

A

nonopioids, including acetaminophen and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

opioids (traditionally called narcotics); and

adjuvants or co-analgesics, a variety of medications that enhance analgesics or have analgesic properties that were originally unknown

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131
Q

Blood Transfusion Reactions

Anaphylactic Reaction is promptly treated with
_______,_____________ & _______________

A

antihistamines, steroids, and epinephrine

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132
Q

aspect of critical thinking where you must

Be open-minded as you look at information about a patient.

Do not make careless assumptions.

Does the data reveal a problem or trend that you believe is true, or are there other options?

A

Analysis

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133
Q

Which of the following actions by the nurse comply with core principles of surgical asepsis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Set up sterile field before patient and other staff come to the operating suite.
  • Keep the sterile field in view at all times.
  • Consider the outer 2.5 cm (1 inch) of the sterile field as contaminated.
  • Only health care personnel within the sterile field must wear personal protective equipment.
  • The sterile gown must be put on before the surgical scrub is performed.
A
  • Keep the sterile field in view at all times.

- Consider the outer 2.5 cm (1 inch) of the sterile field as contaminated.

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134
Q

7 things that must be on a medication order

A
patients full name 
date and time order is written 
medication name 
dosage 
route 
time and frequency of administration 
signature of health care provider
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135
Q

During early stages of hypoxia the blood pressure is _______ unless the condition is caused by shock. As the hypoxia worsens, the respiratory rate _____ as a result of respiratory muscle fatigue.

A

elevated

declines

136
Q

, chronic pain that persists in the absence of a detectable cause.

A

idiopathic pain

137
Q
  • typically are used for skin testing

- injection is 5 to 15 degrees

A

Intradermal (ID)

138
Q

6 Hyperkalemia causes

A
  • Hemolyzed serum sample (in lab)
  • Oliguria
  • Acidosis
  • Renal failure
  • Addison disease
  • Multiple blood transfusions
139
Q

4 Interventions for Hypernatremia

A
  • Restrict sodium intake in diet
  • Increased water intake
  • Dietary education: beware of hidden sodium in foods
  • Seizure precautions-
140
Q

Prevents medication from leaking back into the tissues

Reduces pain and discomfort

Good for elderly patients who have decreased muscle mass

A

Z-track Technique

141
Q

Type of Enema that

  • to relieve flatus (gas)
A

Return-flow/Carminative/Cathartics

142
Q

type of grief that

when the individual cannot openly grieve.

A

Disenfranchised Grief:

143
Q

Communication:

S―What is going on with the patient?

B―What is the clinical background or context?

A―What do I think the problem is?

R―What would I recommend?

A

Situation

Background

Assessment

Recommendation

144
Q

begins and lasts from 3 to 24 days. The main activities during this phase are the filling of a wound with granulation tissue, wound contraction, and wound resurfacing by epithelialization

A

proliferative phase

145
Q

Interval from onset of nonspecific signs and symptoms (malaise, low-grade fever, fatigue) to more specific symptoms.

(During this time microorganisms grow and multiply, and patient may be capable of spreading disease to others.)

For example, herpes simplex begins with itching and tingling at the site before the lesion appears

A

Prodromal Stage

146
Q

Fire safety

P
A
S
S

A
  • Pull pin
  • Aim at base of fire
  • Squeeze handles
  • Sweep from side to side to coat area evenly
147
Q

To prevent complications of immobility, what would be the most effective activity on the first postoperative day for a patient who has had abdominal surgery?

A. Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes while awake

B. Ambulate patient to chair in the hall

C. Passive range of motion 4 times a day

D. Immobility is not a concern the first postoperative day

A

Ambulate patient to chair in the hall

148
Q

State of extreme dryness, or the process of extreme drying

A

desiccation

149
Q

It is a drug delivery system that allows patients to self-administer opioids (usually morphine, hydromorphone, or fentanyl) with minimal risk of overdose.

A

patient-controlled analgesia

150
Q

Apply to contact with blood, body fluid, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes from all patients

A

Standard precautions

151
Q

Provide concentrations of O2 at 4-8L/m

A

Face Tent

152
Q

Provides 10L/min of O2

prevent room air and client’s exhaled air from entering the bag so only O2 in bag is inspired

A

Non-rebreather Face Mask with reservoir bag

153
Q

are sleep problems that are more common in children than adults. Some have hypothesized that sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is thought to be related to apnea, hypoxia, and cardiac arrhythmias caused by abnormalities in the autonomic nervous system that are manifested during sleep

A

The parasomnias

154
Q

: Difference between the systolic and diastolic

•Normal for Adult = 30-50mmHg

A

Pulse Pressure

155
Q

Normal Values for

Arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) is

A

35-45 mm Hg

156
Q

wound drainage that is

Pale, pink, watery; mixture of clear and red fluid

A

Serosanguineous

157
Q

Lab Values:

  • Decreased serum osmolality
  • Decreased urine specific gravity
A

Hyponatremia

158
Q

In blood pressure

•The second number; represents the pressure within the artery between beats

A

Diastolic

159
Q

Injection locations

recommended for volumes greater than 2 mL

A

Ventrogluteal

160
Q

Bowel Diversion

Injuries: Gunshot, MVA
Familial Polyposis
Cancer

Inflammatory Diseases
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn’s Disease

A

Ileostomy

161
Q

generally well-localized pain that results from activation of peripheral pain receptors without injury to the peripheral nerve or central nervous system, such as musculoskeletal pain

Comes from bone, joint, muscle, skin, or connective tissue; is usually aching or throbbing in quality and well localized

A

somatic pain

162
Q

determine the hours of care and number of staff required for a given group of patients every shift or every 24 hours.

A

acuity ratings

163
Q

are enteric-coated or extended release tabs or caps crushable

A

no

164
Q

Type of Medicated Enema that

Not for stool, but to remove potassium rapidly!

A

Kayexalate

165
Q

the ability of a drug to achieve its desired effect

A

efficacy

166
Q

3 Major sites for HAI infection

A

Surgical or traumatic wounds
Urinary and respiratory tracts
Bloodstream

167
Q

Pain at access site with erythema or edema plus streak formation and palpable cord

is a grade __ on the Phlebitis Scale

A

3

168
Q

the expected or predicted physiological response of the medication

A

Therapeutic effect:

169
Q

stage of pressure ulcer where

full-thickness tissue loss with extensive destruction. Exposed bone, tendon or muscle.

A

4

170
Q

6 causes of Hypercalcemia

A
  • Increased calcium intake
  • Decreased kidney excretion
  • Prolonged immobilization
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Decreased calcitonin
  • Bone disease
171
Q

Clinical Presentation:
Seizures
Headache
Dysrhythmias

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

172
Q

interventions

Restrict Na &amp; H2o
Promote excretion
Strict I&amp;O
Daily weight
Assessment (including vital sign, respiratory and skin)
Raise HOB
Skin care: protect edematous tissue
Monitor labs
Patient teaching
A

HYPERVOLEMIA

173
Q

Interval when patient manifests signs and symptoms specific to type of infection. For example, strep throat is manifested by sore throat, pain, and swelling; mumps is manifested by high fever, parotid and salivary gland swelling.

A

Illness Stage

174
Q
  • Specimen of plural fluid obtained for cytological examination
  • Results may indicate an infection or neoplastic disease
A

Thoracentesis

175
Q

Posture that decrease pulse rate

A

Laying

176
Q

type of grief that

This type of grief is to expect, await, or prepare oneself for the loss

A

Anticipatory Grief:

177
Q

Type of Medicated Enema that

before colon surgery

A

Neomycin

178
Q

type of grief that

dysfunctional grief, the grieving person has a prolonged or significantly difficult time moving forward after a loss

A

Complicated Grief:

179
Q

type of IV Solution that

Caution:
Should be used with extreme caution
Used cautiously in patients with cardiac and renal failure

A

Hypertonic

180
Q

type of IV Solution that

Uses:
Correct fluid volume deficit in the vascular system
Treatment of vascular dehydration
Fever
Labor
Running
A

Isotonic

181
Q

is being self-directed and independent in accomplishing goals and advocating for others.

A

Autonomy

182
Q

stage of pressure ulcer where

partial-thickness skin loss

A

2

183
Q

Signs and Symptoms:

Change in Vital Signs, fever, chills, rash, hypotension, shock

A

Blood Transfusion Reactions

184
Q

when Giving a medication through a feeding tube

Flush tube with _____ before medication, in between medications, and when done

A

water

185
Q

the dose of a particular drug beyond which additional amounts of the same drug do not increase the analgesic effect

A

analgesic ceiling

186
Q
Clinical Manifestations:
- Fatigue
- Anorexia, N/V
- Muscle weakness
- Decreased GI motility
Dysrhythmia
Parasthesia
Flat T waves on EKG
A

Hypokalemia

187
Q

6 Biggest indicators that someone will fall?

MORSE FALL SCALE

A
  1. History of falling within the last 3 months
  2. Secondary Diagnosis
  3. Ambulatory aid
  4. IV/Saline lock
  5. Gait/transferring
  6. Mental status
188
Q

Thick layer of dead, dry tissue that covers a pressure ulcer or thermal burn. It may be allowed to be sloughed off naturally, or it may need to be surgically removed.

Black or brown; hard,necrotic

A

eschar

189
Q

Phase of General Anesthesia

—starts when patient comes from anesthesia and is ready to leave operating room

A

Emergence

190
Q

4 things to lok for when assesing a pressure ulcer

A

Size of wound
Depth of wound
undermining,
tunneling, or sinus tract

191
Q

A patient is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) pneumonia. Which type of isolation precaution is most appropriate for this patient?

  • Reverse isolation
  • Droplet precautions
  • Standard precautions
  • Contact precautions
A

Droplet precautions

192
Q

Nursing intervention for

Musculoskeletal weakness, contractures, ↓ muscle tone and strength, ↓ROM

A

Mobilize patient, splint, PT, active and passive ROM, positioning, exercise program

193
Q

Soft white or yellow, stringy

wound

A

Slough

194
Q

________ wounds that involve total loss of the skin layers (epidermis and dermis).

A

full-thickness

195
Q

the point at which a person feels pain

A

pain threshold

196
Q

Bowel Diversion

Injuries
Cancer
Perforated Diverticulitis
Fistulas

A

Colostomy

197
Q
Hot, dry, flushed skin
•Headache
•Thirst
•Loss of appetite (anorexia)
•Malaise

these are signs and symptoms of

A

fever

198
Q

(the distribution of red blood cells to and from the pulmonary capillaries

A

PERFUSION

199
Q

Injection into a vein 25 degree angle

A

Intravenous (IV):

200
Q

interventions

Replace fluids!!!
Assess, assess, assess!

Hypovolemic:
Isotonic solution (stays in the vessels to increase BP)

Clinical Dehydration:
Oral or IV replacement (Hypotonic solution because of hemoconcentration)

A

Hypovolemia

201
Q

3 levels of critical thinking starting with lowest to highest

A

basic

complex

commitment

202
Q

Loss of water and electrolytes
OR
Isotonic Loss

Fluid Volume Deficit decrease in ECF

A

Hypovolemia

203
Q

Classic Signs

Erythema, warmth, edema, drainage, and discomfort

A

IV site infection

204
Q

5 Hypernatremia causes

A
  • Increased salt intake
  • Hypertonic IV solutions
  • Decreased renal excretion
  • Corticosteroids
  • Water loss
205
Q

Deflating the BP cuff too slowly will result in a false-high ________ blood pressure.

A

diastolic

206
Q

type of Medications (e.g., ibuprofen) inhibit platelet aggregation and prolong bleeding time, increasing susceptibility to postoperative bleeding.

A

NSAIDs

207
Q

A patient is admitted for dehydration caused by pneumonia and shortness of breath. He has a history of heart disease and cardiac dysrhythmias. The nursing assistant reports his admitting vital signs to the nurse. Which measurements should the nurse reassess? (Select all that apply.)

  • Right arm BP: 118/72
  • Radial pulse rate: 72 and irregular
  • Temporal temperature: 37.4° C (99.3° F)
  • Respiratory rate: 28
  • Oxygen saturation: 99%
A

Radial pulse rate: 72 and irregular

Respiratory rate: 28

  • Oxygen saturation: 99%
208
Q

the level of pain a person is willing to endure

A

pain tollerence

209
Q

4 Respiratory Acidosis causes

A
  • Insufficient ventilation
  • Impaired gas exchange
  • Impaired neuromuscular function
  • Dysfunction of brainstem respiratory contro
210
Q

Adequate fluid intake per day

A

(2000-2500mL)

211
Q

4 reasons for NG tube

A

1) Decompression 2) Enteral feeding 3) Compression 4) Lavage

212
Q

3 Hypocalcemia interventions

A
  • Increased calcium and Vitamin D
  • Seizure precautions
  • Quiet environment
213
Q

2 Advance Directives

A

Living wills

Durable power of attorney

214
Q

nursing interventions for patients who are receiving IV potassium:

Patient should receive no more than __mEq/hr

A

20

215
Q

Clinical Manifestations

Increased pulse
Increased BP
Increased RR
JVD
SOB, crackles, cough, hypoxia (Pulmonary Edema)
Increased weight
Increased edema
Muscle weakness
Confusion, lethargy, change in LOC (seizures, coma)
A

HYPERVOLEMIA

216
Q

Incentive Spirometry Correct use:

A

exhale normally then slowly and deeply inhale as much as possible, hold 3 seconds and exhale, repeat 10X every hour while awake

217
Q

: unintended, undesirable and unpredictable severe responses

A

Adverse effect

218
Q

HCO3 normal range

A

22-26

219
Q

Drugs that decrease pulse rate

A

Beta blockers

Calcium blockers

220
Q

A patient is receiving 5000 units of heparin subcutaneously every 12 hours while on prolonged bed rest to prevent thrombophlebitis. Because bleeding is a potential side effect of this medication, the nurse should continually assess the patient for the following signs of bleeding: (Select all that apply.)

A.	  Bruising
B.	  Pale yellow urine
C.	  Bleeding gums 
D.	  Coffee ground–like vomitus 
E.	  Light brown stool
A

Bruising
Bleeding gums
Coffee ground–like vomitus

221
Q

Eye: Avoid instilling any form of eye medications directly onto the _____

A

cornea

222
Q

The body alignment of the patient in the tripod position includes the following: (Select all that apply.)

  • An erect head and neck
  • Straight vertebrae
  • Extended hips and knees
  • Axillae resting on the crutch pads
  • Bent knees and hips
A

An erect head and neck

  • Straight vertebrae
  • Extended hips and knees
223
Q

Provide 30-50% concentrations of O2

A

face tent

224
Q

2 Metabolic Alkalosis causes

A

Increase of bicarbonate

Loss of metabolic acid

225
Q

is a system of organizing documentation to place the primary focus on patients’ individual problems.

A

problem-oriented medical record (POMR)

226
Q

Lab Values for ________

  • Increased serum osmolality
  • Increased specific gravity
A

Hypernatremia

227
Q
Clinical presentation: 
Altered LOC
Tachycardia
Diaphoresis
Headache
A

Respiratory Acidosis

228
Q

Surgical diversion of the drainage of urine such as a ureterostomy.

A

urinary diversion

229
Q

. If GRV is ___ mL or less, return aspirated contents to stomach. If GRV is greater than ____ mL, hold medication

A

250

230
Q

this is the remedy for what type of Incontinence

Avoid bladder irritants (e.g., caffeine, artificial sweeteners, alcohol).

instruct patient in pelvic muscle exercises, in , urge-inhibition exercises, and/or in bladder training

A

Urge Incontinence

231
Q

damaged tissue and mast cells secrete histamine, resulting in vasodilation of surrounding capillaries and movement/migration of serum and white blood cells into the damaged tissues.

4 to 6 days

A

inflammatory stage

232
Q

Injection locations

recommended for 2ml or less

A

Deltoid

233
Q

is one-on-one interaction between a nurse and another person that often occurs face to face. It is the level most frequently used in nursing situations and lies at the heart of nursing practice. It takes place within a social context and includes all the symbols and cues used to give and receive meaning.

A

Interpersonal communication

234
Q

Erythema at access site with or without edema

is a grade __ on the Phlebitis Scale

A

1

235
Q

6 parts to the chain of infection

A
infections agent or pathogen 
Reservoir or source for pathogen growth
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
236
Q

Restraints should only be left for ____ hours and should be checked every _____ hours

A

8

2

237
Q

(the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the red blood cells

A

diffusion

238
Q

Wound that is left open for several days; then wound edges are approximated is healing by ______

A

Tertiary Intention

239
Q

Provide 40-70% concentrations of O2

A

Partial Non-rebreather with a reservoir bag

240
Q

Normal Values for

Partial pressure of arterial oxygenation: (Pa02) is

A

60-100mm Hg

241
Q

You are caring for a patient who frequently tries to remove his intravenous catheter and feeding tube. You have an order from the health care provider to apply a wrist restraint. What is the correct order for applying a wrist restraint?

  1. Be sure that patient is comfortable with arm in anatomic alignment.
  2. Wrap wrist with soft part of restraint toward skin and secure snugly.
  3. Identify patient using two identifiers.
  4. Introduce self and ask patient about his feelings of being restrained.
  5. Assess condition of skin where restraint will be placed.
  • 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
  • 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
  • 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
  • 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
A
  • 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
242
Q

Closing a wound
Edges touch— APPROXIMATED
Heals more quickly, makes less of a scar

A

Primary intention:

243
Q

Lab Values

Decreased HGB & HCT
Decreased Na
Decreased Serum Osmolality
Decreased BUN

A

Fluid Volume Excess

HYPERVOLEMIA

244
Q

is a powerful form of communication that you use as a professional nurse. This level of communication is also called self-talk. People’s thoughts and inner communications strongly influence perceptions, feelings, behavior, and self-esteem.

A

Intrapersonal communication

245
Q

2 Metabolic Acidosis causes

A

Increase of metabolic acids

Loss of bicarbonate

246
Q

type of grief that

is a complex response with emotional, cognitive,social, behavioral and spiritual components

A

Normal Grief:

247
Q

3 early Cardiovascular Signs and Symptoms of Hypoxia

A

 Tachycardia
 Mild elevated BP
 Dysrhythmias

248
Q

lab values

Increased Na
Increased HGB &amp; HCT
Increased serum osmolality
Increased BUN
Increased urine specific gravity
A

Hypovolemia

249
Q

Type of Enema that

To relieve constipation or impaction, to empty for surgery, to clear out for exams, to establish bowel function during training

A

Cleansing

250
Q

a type of pain usually felt as burning or tingling and resulting from direct stimulation of nerve tissue of the peripheral or central nervous system

A

neuropathic pain

251
Q

________ wounds are shallow in depth, moist, and painful; and the wound base generally appears red

A

Partial-thickness

252
Q

type of IV Solution that

Examples
0.2% NS
0.45% NS
D5W
0.33NS
A

Hypotonic

253
Q

Humidification is necessary for clients receiving O2 therapy >__L/min

A

4

254
Q

type of IV Solution that

Examples:
3% NS
D5W/0.9%NS
D5W/LR

A

Hypertonic

255
Q

type of surgery tht

Restores function lost or reduced as result of congenital anomalies

A

Constructive

256
Q

Fire safety

R
A
C
E

A
  • Rescue & remove those in immediate danger
  • Activate the alarm
  • Contain/confine the fire by closing doors/windows and turning off O2 and electrical equipment.
  • Extinguish the fire.
257
Q

When should a nurse wear a mask? (Select all that apply).

  • The patient’s dental hygiene is poor.
  • The nurse is assisting with an aerosolizing respiratory procedure such as suctioning.
  • The patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a congested cough.
  • The patient is in droplet precautions.
  • The nurse is assisting a health care provider in the insertion of a central line catheter.
A
  • The nurse is assisting with an aerosolizing respiratory procedure such as suctioning.
  • The patient is in droplet precautions.

The nurse is assisting a health care provider in the insertion of a central line catheter

258
Q

What is the normal temperature range?

A

96.8-100.4 F

259
Q

5 Factors Affecting Wound Healing

A
Desiccation
Maceration
Edema
Infection
Necrosis
260
Q

Type of Anesthesia where

Anesthetic agent injected near a nerve or nerve pathway or around operative site. No sedation.

protect a patient’s limbs from injury until sensation returns.

results in loss of sensation in an area of the body by anesthetizing sensory pathways

A

Regional

261
Q

Wound is not sutured or stapled closed

Heals from bottom and sides

Takes time, but does work with right factors in place

A

Secondary Intention Healing

262
Q

The action of pulling or tearing away

A

Avulsion

263
Q

any of a group of drugs that reduce pain, fever, and swelling (inflammation), including aspirin

A

nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug

264
Q

type of IV Solution that

Uses:
Treat intravascular dehydration with interstitial or cellular over-hydration
Third spacing

A

Hypertonic

265
Q

after Catheter removal, client should void within ____ hours

A

6-8

266
Q

the final stage of healing, sometimes takes place for more than a year, depending on the depth and extent of the wound

A

Maturation

267
Q

A patient has an indwelling urinary catheter. Why does an indwelling urinary catheter present a risk for urinary tract infection? (Select all that apply.)

  • It allows migration of organisms into the bladder.
  • The insertion procedure is not done under sterile conditions
  • It obstructs the normal flushing action of urine flow.
  • It keeps an incontinent patient’s skin dry.
  • The outer surface of the catheter is not considered sterile.
A

-It allows migration of organisms into the bladder.

It obstructs the normal flushing action of urine flow

268
Q

causes

INTAKE
Increased fluid intake
Rapid isotonic IV fluids
Increase consumption of salty foods

Output
Increased retention of H2O or H2O+ salt
Kidney Disease
Aldosterone

Drugs
Corticosteroids

Diseases
Kidney, heart and liver failure

A

Fluid Volume Excess

HYPERVOLEMIA

269
Q

The effects of immobility on the cardiac system include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A.	  Thrombus formation 
B.	  Increased cardiac workload 
C.	  Weak peripheral pulses 
D.	  Irregular heartbeat 
E.	  Orthostatic hypotension
A

Thrombus formation

Increased cardiac workload

Orthostatic hypotension

270
Q

Type of Cleansing Enema that

Draws water into colon

A

Hypertonic (Fleet phosphate)

271
Q

Modes of Transmission where

• Large particles that travel up to 3 feet during coughing, sneezing, or talking and come in contact with susceptible host

A

Droplet

272
Q

type of Medications such as warfarin (Coumadin) or aspirin alter normal clotting factors and thus increase risk of hemorrhaging. Discontinue at least 48 hours before surgery.

A

Anticoagulants

273
Q

more concentrated than plasma

action: fluid shifts from the cells into the plasma

A

hypertonic

274
Q
  • calibrated in sixteenths of a minim and hundredths of a milliliter and has a capacity of 1 mL
A

The tuberculin syringe

275
Q

Infiltration Score where

blanching, cool to touch, edema 1-6 inch

A

2

276
Q

6 (+1) Rights of Medication Administration

A
Right Patient
 	Right Medication
 	Right Amount (dose &amp; volume)
 	Right Route
 	Right Time
 	Right Documentation
 	Right Reason
 	Remember: PMART DR
277
Q

Infiltration Score where

blanching, cool to touch, edema < 1 inch

A

1

278
Q

steps of diet progression

A
  • clear liquid
  • full liquid
  • thickened/ pureed liquids (dysphagia)
  • mechanical soft
  • soft/low residue
  • high fiber
  • low sodium
  • low cholesterol
  • diabetic
  • gluten free
  • regular
279
Q

Post-Op Stoma Care requires

Low-______ diet first few weeks

A

fiber

280
Q

6 Hypocalcemia causes

A
  • Renal failure
  • Hypoparathyroidism
  • Malabsorption: ie chronic diarrhea, steatorrhea
  • Pancreatitis
  • Alkalosis
  • Thyroid surgery (parathyroids removed or damaged)
281
Q

or acute confusional state, is a potentially reversible cognitive impairment that often has a physiological caus

A

Delirium

282
Q

IV where

Used for:
Long Term Therapy
All IV Therapies
Blood Draws
Bad peripheral veins
Large fluid volumes
Total parenteral nutrition (only IV nutritional supplement)
A

Central Lines

283
Q

: Injection into the dermis just under the epidermis

A

Intradermal (ID)

284
Q

nutrition

Used with patients who have un functional GI tract

A

Parenteral

285
Q

In blood pressure

•The higher number; represents the ventricles contracting

A

Systolic

286
Q

Modes of Transmission where

• Person-to-person (fecal, oral) physical contact between source and susceptible host (e.g., touching patient feces and then touching your inner mouth or consuming contaminated food)

A

Direct

287
Q

with enteral feeding If residue volume is >____ml HOLD TUBE FEEDING

A

200

288
Q

What is normal Pulse Oximetry Range?

A

95% to 100%

289
Q

Oxygen Capability at 1-6L/min

A

Nasal Cannula

290
Q

FLUID SPACING

Abnormal

Accumulation in the interstitial spaces

EDEMA

A

2nd

291
Q

Wound that is closed is healing by ____

A

Primary Intention

292
Q

Significant Results: 40 pulse beats up; BP 30mmHg down

For ___________ pulse and blood pressure

A

Orthostatic

293
Q

Wound edges not approximated is healing by ___

A

Secondary Intention

294
Q

pain that results from activating the pain receptors of organs in the thoracic, pelvic, or abdominal cavities and is felt as a generalized aching or cramping sensation sometimes referred to the surface of the body

A

visceral pain

295
Q

Type of Cleansing Enema that

Distends the colon
Stimulates peristalsis
Softens feces

A

Hypotonic (tap water)

296
Q

is the ability to produce disease.

A

Virulence

297
Q

: begins after discarding first specimen and ends with a final voiding at the end of the time period

A

Timed Urine Specimen

298
Q

nutrition

Used with patients who have functional GI tract

A

Enteral

299
Q

Syringe 2 to 3 mL

90-degree angle

A

Intramuscular (IM)

300
Q

type of Medications (e.g., beta blockers) can reduce cardiac contractility and impair cardiac conduction during anesthesia.

A

Antidysrhythmics

301
Q

: predictable and often unavoidable secondary effect of the medication

A

Side Effect

302
Q

Ear: instill eardrops at ______ to prevent vertigo, dizziness, or nausea.

A

roomtemp

303
Q

_________ wounds that involve only a partial loss of skin layers (the epidermis and superficial dermal layers)

A

Partial-thickness

304
Q

causes:

vein has ruptured allowing vesicant to seep into surrounding tissues

A

Extravasation

305
Q

is an assessment and communication technique that allows nurses to better understand and perceive the emotions of themselves and others.

A

Emotional intelligence (EI)

306
Q

Normal urine Output per 24 Hours:

A

1200 mL-1500 mL

307
Q

Type of Anesthesia where

involves loss of sensation at the desired site by inhibiting peripheral nerve conduction

commonly used in ambulatory surgery

can also be used in addition to general or regional anesthesia

patient experiences a loss in pain and touch sensation and motor and autonomic activities

A

Local anesthesia

308
Q

aspect of critical thinking where you must

Be orderly in collecting data about patients.

Apply reasoning while looking for patterns to emerge.

Categorize the data (e.g., nursing diagnoses.

Gather additional data or clarify any data about which you are uncertain.

A

Interpretation

309
Q

6 Hypercalcemia interventions

A
  • Decreased calcium intake (no antacids)
  • Increased fluid intake
  • Weight bearing exercises
  • Tx constipation
  • Renal dialysis if severe
  • Give calcitonin to decrease calcium level
310
Q

Signs and Symptoms

Fever, chills, prostration, pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting

A

Septicemia

311
Q
  • Drop in BP and dizziness with position change
  • Due to peripheral vasodilation accompanied by no increase in cardiac output
  • Occurs: in the elderly; with bedrest; post-operatively; with dehydration, blood loss; with cardiac, BP, sedative or narcotic medications.
A

Orthostatic Hypotension

312
Q

is a dysfunction of mechanisms that regulate sleep and wake states. Excessive daytime sleepiness is the most common complaint associated with this disorder. During the day a person suddenly feels an overwhelming wave of sleepiness and falls asleep

A

Narcolepsy

313
Q

type of Medications that enhance action of anesthetic agents. If taken within 2 weeks before surgery, aminoglycosides (gentamicin, neomycin, tobramycin) may cause mild respiratory depression from depressed neuromuscular transmission.

A

Antibiotics

314
Q

is a communication technique that makes an older adult more aware of time, place, and person.

A

Reality orientation

315
Q

Symptoms: swelling, redness, pain, blisters

A

Extravasation

316
Q

How can tempature be measured

A

Tympanic, oral, rectal, Axillary, Temporal artery, Esophageal, Pulmonary artery, Urinary bladder

317
Q

charting where

a patient meets all standards unless otherwise documented.

A

charting by exception (CBE)

318
Q

Softening and breaking down of skin from prolonged exposure to moisture.

A

maceration

319
Q

Interval when acute symptoms of infection disappear. (Length of recovery depends on severity of infection and patient’s host resistance; recovery may take several days to months.)

A

Convalescence

320
Q

Injection into tissues just below the dermis of the skin

A

Subcutaneous:

321
Q

Modes of Transmission where

• Droplet nuclei or residue or evaporated droplets suspended in air during coughing or sneezing or carried on dust particles

A

Airborne

322
Q

or sudden muscle weakness during intense emotions such as anger, sadness, or laughter, occurs at any time during the day.

A

Cataplexy,

323
Q

Incontinence caused by medical conditions that in many cases are treatable and reversible

A

Transient Incontinence

324
Q

the process of gradually adjusting the dose of a medication until the desired effect is achieved

A

titration

325
Q

Try to ________ to see if urinary retention is present before proceeding with an invasive procedure (urinary catheterization)- Decrease the risk of infection!

A

bladder scan

326
Q

a process that eliminates many or all microorganisms, with the exception of bacterial spores, from inanimate objects

A

Disinfection:

327
Q

Venturi Mask

_L=24-28%

_L=35-40%

_L=50-60%

A

4
8
12

328
Q

5 Hyponatremia causes

A

causes:
- Diuretics
- GI fluid loss
- Hypotonic tube feedings
- Hypotonic IV fluids
- Diaphoresis

329
Q

A patient with a right knee replacement is prescribed no weight bearing on the right leg. You reinforce crutch walking knowing that which of the following crutch gaits is most appropriate for this patient?

  • Two-point gait
  • Three-point gait
  • Four-point gait
  • Swing-through gait
A
  • Three-point gait
330
Q

is an alternative approach to communication with an older adult who is confused.

accepts the description of time and place as stated by the older adult.

A

Validation therapy

331
Q

Involuntary passage of urine often associated with strong sense of urgency related to an overactive bladder caused by neurological problems, bladder inflammation, or bladder outlet obstruction

A

Urge Incontinence

332
Q

type of IV Solution that

Caution (do not use in)
Cerebral/peripheral edema

A

Hypotonic

333
Q

IV where

Therapy will continue for 1 month or more

Therapy includes administration of a vesicant infusion or long-term antibiotic therapy

A

Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

334
Q

dilated, engorged veins in lining of rectum

Internal or external, painful

needing treatment as to not interfere with normal bowel habits

A

Hemorrhoids

335
Q

Phase of General Anesthesia

—from incision to near completion of procedure

A

Maintenance