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Final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following taxa is at the highest rank (that is: which is most inclusive)?

A) Family
B) Class 
C) Genus 
D) Phylum 
E) Order
A

d

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2
Q

Which of the following statements about proto-oncogenes is true?

A) They are found only in cancer cells.
B) Some encode normal proteins that regulate the cell cycle.
C) They are the mutated version of tumor-suppressor genes.
D) None of the above

A

b

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3
Q

Photosynthesis by bacteria has which of the following effects?

A) It converts nitrogen into a form usable by other organisms.
B) It releases oxygen into the atmosphere.
C) Photosynthesis by bacteria in our guts provides us with additional nutrients.
D) All of the above

A

b

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4
Q

An example of nondisjunction is when:

A) homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis
B) DNA fails to replicate before meiosis
C) a cell does not go through cytokinesis
D) meiosis stops after the first cell division

A

a

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5
Q

Coral bleaching has led to the loss of many coral reefs, also endangering associated species. How are protists involved?

A) A protist pathogen infects corals, causing bleaching.
B) Corals are a type of protist.
C) A symbiotic, autotrophic protist lives in corals. Warmer water temperatures cause the loss of this protist.
D) Corals eat a light-colored protist that causes them to turn white.
E) Protistsarenotinvolved.

A

c

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6
Q

Mitosis is necessary for all of the following EXCEPT:

A) growth
B) replacing worn-out cells
C) repair of wounds
D) production of gametes

A

d

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7
Q

If crossing over has taken place,

A) the chromosomes involved will each be a mix of maternal and paternal DNA
B) the individual must be homozygous
C) the chromosomes involved will end up in the same gamete
D) the cells that are formed will be genetically identical

A

a

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8
Q

Which of the following correctly places these events in order from oldest (first occurring) to youngest (most recent).

A) First prokaryote, Increase of oxygen in the atmosphere, First eukaryote, First multicellular organism, First land plant.
B) Increase of oxygen in the atmosphere, First prokaryote, First eukaryote, First multicellular organism, First land plant
C) First prokaryote, First eukaryote, Increase of oxygen in the atmosphere, First land plant, First multicellular organism
D) Increase of oxygen in the atmosphere, First prokaryote, First land plant, First eukaryote, First multicellular organism.
E) First eukaryote, First prokaryote, Increase of oxygen in the atmosphere, First multicellular organism, First land plant

A

a

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9
Q

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition. A man with hemophilia (XhY) and a woman who does not carry a copy of the allele that causes hemophilia (XHXH) have a son. What is the probability that he will have hemophilia?

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%

A

a

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10
Q

Life cycles for eukaryotes move between a diploid and haploid phase. At some point during the diploid phase, some cells of the organism undergo:

A) fertilization 
B) meiosis
C) mitosis
D) A & B
E) B & C
A

e

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11
Q

The phenotype of an organism is ___.

A) its genetic makeup
B) its physical characteristics
C) a hypothesis of its evolutionary origins
D) both A and B

A

b

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12
Q

Which of the following is true about Wolbachia bacteria?

A) They are being used to prevent the spread of dengue.
B) They can prevent male insects that are infected with Wolbachia from successfully
reproducing with uninfected females.
C) They can make males develop as females.
D) All of the above.

A

d

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13
Q

Algae are ____.
A) monophyletic
B) protists that are able to do photosynthesis
C) a type of plant
D) complex, multicellular archaea
E) a type of protist that is heterotrophic

A

b

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14
Q

Two plants with a heterozygous genotype (Aa) are crossed. What proportion of their
offspring are expected to have a heterozygous genotype (Aa)?

A) all of the offspring will be heterozygous
B) 3⁄4
C) 1⁄2
D) 1⁄4
E) none of the offspring will be heterozygous

A

c

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15
Q

The build-up of higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere was important because:

A) It allowed the evolution of photosynthesis.
B) It protected anaerobic organisms from competition.
C) It allowed the evolution of more complex organisms.
D) It was partially responsible for the extinction of the dinosaurs. E) Alloftheabove.

A

c

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16
Q

Which of the following occurs during prophase I of meiosis?

A) homologous pairs of chromosomes align in the center of the cell
B) homologous chromosomes pair up
C) homologous chromosomes are separated
D) sister chromatids are separated

A

b

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17
Q

Which of the following must be obtained (taken up) from the environment by fungi, animals, plants, AND protists? It is necessary to produce energy for cellular processes.

A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide 
C) ATP
D) Light
E) All of the above
A

a

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18
Q

Antibiotic resistance refers to:

A) a person whose body is resistant to the effects of antibiotics
B) bacteria that can survive and multiply in the presence of antibiotics
C) a protest movement against the use of antibiotics
D) viruses that become more virulent in response to exposure to antibiotics

A

b

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19
Q

The role of spindle microtubules is to:

A) replicate DNA
B) condense chromosomes
C) repair DNA
D) move and separate chromosomes

A

d

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20
Q

After meiosis I, the first cell division of meiosis, the result is:

A) two genetically identical cells
B) two haploid cells (cells that have one of each chromosome)
C) two diploid cells (cells that have pairs of chromosomes)
D) 4 genetically unique gametes

A

b

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21
Q

Which of the following is true of the first evidence of life on our planet?

A) They were prokaryotic cells
B) They occurred at least 7 billion years ago C) They were algae
D) They had mitochondria
E) Alloftheabove

A

a

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22
Q

A cell that has two nuclei is in which phase of mitosis? (nuclei = plural of nucleus)

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase

A

d

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23
Q

What do nodes on a phylogeny represent?

A) Speciation events.
B) The combination of genetic traits from two individuals.
C) Extant species.
D) The common ancestor for two or more lineages.
E) A and D

A

e

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24
Q

Crossing over takes place during:

A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) cytokinesis
D) both A and B

A

b

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25
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that causes a build up of thick mucus in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe. A person with cystic fibrosis:

A) must also have a parent with cystic fibrosis
B) is homozygous for an allele for cystic fibrosis
C) is more likely to be male than female
D) will have a 50% chance of passing the condition on to his or her children

A

b

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26
Q

When a chromosome undergoes DNA replication, 2 genetically identical _____ are generated.

A) homologous chromosomes
B) autosomes
C) sister chromatids
D) histones

A

c

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27
Q

Multicellular organisms use which of the following to transport molecules to and from their cells?

A) diffusion
B) pressure differences
C) intercellular connections such as rings of proteins or holes in connecting cell walls 
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
A

d

28
Q

DNA replication requires which of the following?

A) origin of replication
B) separation of DNA strands
C) DNA polymerase
D) All of the above

A

d

29
Q

Vibrio fischeri, the bacteria found in specialized organs in the bobtail squid, produce bioluminescence:

A) whenever it is dark
B) in response to a signal from the squid
C) when the density of bacteria is high
D) to blind predators

A

c

30
Q

If meiosis begins with a cell with 12 chromosomes, the resulting gametes will each have:

A) 3 chromosomes
B) 6 chromosomes
C) 12 chromosomes
D) 24 chromosomes

A

b

31
Q

In about half of all cases of cancer, p53 is not functioning. Cells need p53 to:

A) proofread DNA during DNA replication
B) pause the cell cycle if DNA is damaged
C) trigger the cell cycle to advance in response to growth factors
D) hold sister chromatids together during mitosis

A

b

32
Q

All Eukaryotes ____.

A) are unicellular
B) are animals or plants
C) have more complex cells than prokaryotes D) have chloroplasts
E) all of the above

A

c

33
Q

A plasmid is:

A) part of the bacterial cell wall
B) a type of ribosome
C) DNA that can be shared with other bacteria
D) the part of a bacterial cell that does photosynthesis

A

c

34
Q

Which of the following support the endosymbiotic theory?

A) Phylogenetic analyses place mitochondria and chloroplasts in a clade with Bacteria.
B) Mitochondria divide and multiply by binary fission.
C) Organelles have at least two membranes.
D) Chloroplasts have circular genomes.
E) All of the above

A

e

35
Q

During the Cambrian explosion:

A) Primates and other mammals diversified.
B) There were radiations of land plants, followed by radiations of terrestrial animals.
C) The first prokaryotes appeared.
D) There was a rapid radiation of the major groups (Phyla) of animals.
E) Humans initiated the sixth mass extinction.

A

d

36
Q

Mendel crossed a plant grown from a yellow seed with a plant grown from a green seed. The offspring consisted of all yellow seeds. This demonstrated that:

A) yellow is the dominant phenotype
B) yellow is the recessive phenotype
C) yellow and green are co-dominant
D) none of the above

A

a

37
Q

Genetic diversity in bacteria is due to:

A) horizontal gene transfer
B) mutations
C) crossing over during meiosis
D) both A and B

A

d

38
Q

Which of the following is true about biological evolution?

A) Evolution occurs within a single individual organism.
B) It is change in the frequency of a version of a gene.
C) It is change that occurs instantaneously.
D) It is an informed statement of what might be true.

A

b

39
Q

A polar covalent bond:

A) causes one atom to have a slightly positive charge and the other atom to have a slightly
negative charge
B) occurs when electrons are shared unequally
C) can cause a molecule to be hydrophilic
D) all of the above

A

d

40
Q

A population of fish that only eats one species of kelp will most likely die off if that kelp suddenly disappears. What is a reason or reasons for this?

A) The exact mutation(s) that would allow them to switch food sources is/are unlikely to
have occurred randomly in that generation.
B) The necessary genetic variation for all possible future situations is present in this population of fish.
C) The fish cannot change to a new food source while they are also adapting to defend themselves from predators.
D) This is a false statement; the fish would adapt because they need a new food source.
E) A&C

A

a

41
Q

Which of the following are parts of a tRNA molecule?

A) amino acid attachment site and start codon
B) anticodon and stop codon
C) anticodon and amino acid attachment site
D) start codon and stop codon

A

c

42
Q

Evolution acts on a ___________, which is a representation of an underlying __________.

A) Phenotype, genotype
B) Genotype, phenotype
C) Phenotype, phenotype
D) Genotype, genotype

A

a

43
Q

An mRNA was processed incorrectly and had no 5 ́ cap. What would be the result?

A) It would not be bound by a ribosome, so translation would not occur.
B) Translation would begin, but it would stop prematurely.
C) Translation would begin at the wrong location.
D) Translation would occur normally, but the amino acid sequence would be changed.

A

a

44
Q

All of the following are conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium EXCEPT:

A) Mating within a population must be random.
B) Individuals can migrate in and out of a population, as long as the population size remains
constant.
C) The size of a population must be large.
D) Individuals of any genotype must have the same reproductive success as individuals of
any other genotype.
E) Mutations cannot occur in a population.

A

b

45
Q

Which of the following would cause a cell to make an mRNA that is much longer than usual?

A) a mutation in a stop codon
B) a defective release factor
C) a mutation that prevents an intron from being spliced out
D) RNA polymerase does not recognize the promoter

A

c

46
Q

Field mice and beach mice are considered subspecies according to the Biological Species Concept. Based only on that information, what can you conclude about these mice?

A) Field mice and beach mice occupy similar habitats
B) Field mice and beach mice eat a similar diet
C) Field mice and beach mice can produce fertile offspring
D) Field mice and beach mice do not share a common ancestor

A

c

47
Q

You have discovered a population that is NOT evolving! You are going to be super famous. What must be true about this population?

A) Every time a cell’s genome is copied, there are no mistakes (that is: no mutation).
B) The population is geographically close to other populations of the same species, allowing gene flow.
C) The population is made up of more than one species.
D) At least one of the current genetic differences among individuals leads to differences in
the number of fertile offspring.
E) The number of individuals in the population is very small.

A

a

48
Q

Active transport of a molecule across the cell membrane requires energy because:

A) it causes a break in the cell membrane
B) the molecule has to be broken down first
C) the molecule is moving from an area of high concentration to one of low concentration
D) the molecule is moving from an area of low concentration to one of high concentration
E) the molecule is hydrophobic

A

d

49
Q

What is true of natural selection?

A) Natural selection creates organisms that are perfectly adapted to their environment.
B) Natural selection is a random process.
C) Natural selection preserves and distributes beneficial mutations.
D) A & C both are true
E) B & C both are true

A

c

50
Q

In order for a trait to be subject to the forces of evolution it must:

A) be beneficial for the individuals with the trait.
B) be harmful to the individuals with the trait.
C) be passed on from one generation to the next.
D) be common.
E) noneoftheabove.

A

c

51
Q

DNA acts as a template. The strands of DNA must be separated so that:

A) The bases are free to form hydrogen bonds with amino acids.
B) The bases are free to form covalent bonds with amino acids.
C) The bases are free to form hydrogen bonds with other nucleotides.
D) The bases are free to form covalent bonds with other nucleotides.

A

c

52
Q

A scientific theory is:

A) likely to be disproved by new evidence.
B) a speculative idea or unproved assumption.
C) a scientific explanation that remains untested.
D) not well supported by prior tests and observations.
E) a conceptual framework that explains existing facts.

A

e

53
Q

The phosphate groups in ATP:

A) are covalently bonded to each other
B) represent a significant source of stored energy
C) are negatively charged
D) release energy when separated from the rest of the molecule
E) all of the above

A

e

54
Q

__________ is the random process that initiated fur color change across populations of beach mice, and _____________ is the non-random process that caused additional changes in the frequencies of the lighter and darker mice.

A) Mutation, genetic drift
B) Natural selection, gene flow
C) Gene flow, mutation
D) Mutation, natural selection

A

d

55
Q

If you made a change in the DNA sequence of a promoter that inactivates the promoter (it no longer functions), what would happen to the RNA that is usually produced for that gene?

A) Nothing, the RNA would be made as usual.
B) The mutation in the DNA would result in a change in the sequence of the RNA.
C) RNA polymerase would not be able to recognize and bind to the DNA, so no RNA would be made.
D) The RNA would not be properly processed and would lack a polyA tail.

A

c

56
Q 
\_\_\_\_ is transcribed into \_\_\_\_ which is translated into \_\_\_\_.
A) DNA; RNA; protein
B) RNA; DNA; protein 
C) DNA; protein; RNA 
D) Protein; RNA; DNA 
E) Protein;DNA;RNA
A

a

57
Q

It is adaptive for ANY organism to ______ compared to other members of its population.

A) be physically stronger
B) be better able to obtain food
C) have a better defense against predators
D) have a larger number of healthy and fertile offspring
E) be faster and more agile

A

d

58
Q

Transcription continues until:

A) all bases in the DNA are copied
B) a stop codon is encountered
C) a terminator sequence is encountered
D) a ribosome pulls RNA polymerase off the DNA
E) a release factor blocks the RNA polymerase from continuing to read the DNA

A

c

59
Q

Glucose is broken down and converted to ATP during cellular respiration. As glucose is broken down, how does the potential energy of glucose change?
A) The potential energy of glucose decreases as it is broken down.
B) The potential energy of glucose increases as it is broken down.
C) The potential energy of glucose stays the same as it is broken down.

A

a

60
Q

A disease-causing population of microorganisms (known as oomycetes) is growing on a field of potato plants when the farmer decides to burn them all. The wind shifts and one row of plants and their oomycetes are saved. If they are left to reproduce, the ratios of genetic traits in the next generation of oomycetes could be very different from that found in the original population. This would be an example of:

A) gene flow
B) genetic drift
C) adaptation
D) non-random mating 
E) none of the above
A

b

61
Q

Which of the following connects amino acids into a polypeptide by catalyzing the formation of the covalent bonds?

A) the ribosome
B) the tRNA
C) the mRNA
D) RNA polymerase

A

a

62
Q

The scientific method begins with:

A) a hypothesis
B) a critical experiment
C) observations
D) predictions 
E) theory
A

c

63
Q

In a large population, the frequency of an allele (one version of a gene) drops from 0.70 to 0.10. One can most logically predict from this change, that in this environment,

A) the allele is selectively neutral (it has no effect on fitness).
B) random processes have changed allelic frequencies.
C) the allele reduces fitness.
D) the allele mutates readily.
E) the allele causes increased survival.

A

c

64
Q

A template DNA strand has the sequence 3’-ATGCTG-5’. The corresponding RNA will have the sequence:

A) 5’-TACGAC-3’
B) 5’-CAGCAT-3’
C) 5’-UACGAC-3’
D) 5’-CAGCAU-3’

A

c

65
Q

In a population of plants, which of the following individuals is the MOST fit, based only on the information presented?
A) The individual that can survive with 10% less water than the others in its population.
B) The individual that is the most resistant to disease in the population.
C) The individual that produces 3% more surviving offspring each year than others in its population.
D) The individual that produces 5% more distasteful chemicals, making it 2% less likely to be attacked by herbivores than others in its population.
E) All of these individuals are equally fit based on the information presented.

A

c

66
Q

You notice that some of the squirrels on campus are very tiny, and you read in the news that the tiny squirrels are able to sneak into buildings to steal food. Apparently, micro-squirrels have become more common over the last few generations, because they are able to support and raise more offspring than an ordinary squirrel. Given this information, what is most likely true:

A) Genetic drift has caused tiny squirrels to become more common.
B) The tiny squirrels arrived in town due to migration.
C) The lowered frequency of larger squirrels over generations is occurring by chance.
D) These squirrels are tiny due to a bottleneck event.
E) Being tiny is currently adaptive in this population of squirrels.

A

e

67
Q

Which of the following is a reason why phospholipids are a useful component of cell membranes?

A) they assemble themselves into a bilayer with their hydrophobic tails on the inside and
their hydrophilic heads facing out
B) they can be used to transport molecules into the cell against their concentration gradient C) they provide rigid structural support to the cell
D) all of the above

A

a

SI BIO 100 (4 decks)

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