Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A&P COM > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the kidney?

A
  • Regulate total water volume
  • Regulating ECF ion concentration’s – extracellular fluid
  • ensuring long term acid-base balance
  • removal of metabolic wastes and toxins
  • Produces hormones
  • activation of vitamin D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which hormones does the kidneys produce

A
  • erythropoietin – red blood cell synthesis

- renin- blood pressure regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Renal artery

A

Carries blood to the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Renal hilum

A

Entry point for the renal artery and renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Renal vein

A

Carries blood away from the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ureter

A

Carries waste products from the kidneys to the urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are the kiddies located

A

Retroperitoneal and held in place from Renal fascia and masses of adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the outermost layer of the kidneys

A

Renal/ fibrous capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the second layer of the kidneys from the outside in?

A

The cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cortex of the kidney

A

Has blood vessels that serve the nephrons and extensions into the renal sinuses called renal columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Renal columns

A

Extensions of the cortex into the renal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Renal medulla

A

Known as the Reno Peerman used to concentrate urine and to collect urine for disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the innermost layer of the kidney

A

The renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Renal pelvis

A

Resides in the renal sinus – a network of tubes connecting Ceperley to the Ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ureter

A

Connects kidneys to the urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Major calyx

A

Branches from the renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Minor calyx

A

Branches from the major calyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Renal papilla

A

The area at the end of the pyramid and beginning of the calyx resembles a funnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the functional part of the kidney

A

The nephron which is located in the renal Pyramid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trace a drop of blood going through the kidneys starting in the abdominal aorta and ending and the inferior vena cava.

A

Abdominal aorta – renal artery – segmental artery – interlobar artery – arcuate artery (base of cortex)– Cortical radiate artery- afferent arterial - glomerulus (filtration)- Efferent arterial- Peritubular capillaries- vasa recta- Peritubular capillaries- cortical radiate vein- arcuate vein- segmental vein- inferior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the renal capsule made out of?

A

Glomerular capsule and glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the parts of the nephron in order from left to right

A
  1. Renal corpuscle
    -glomerular capsule
    -glomerulus
  2. Proximal tubule
    Nephron loop
  3. Descending loop
  4. ascending loop
  5. Distal tubule
  6. Collecting duct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two types of nephrons.

A

Cortical nephron

Juxtamedullary nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cortical nephron

A
  • 80%

- used primarily to remove waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Juxtamedullary nephron

A
  • 20%

- used to reabsorb water concentrates in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Glomerulus

A

Blood capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Glomerular capsule

A

Made up of two layers the visceral layer and the parietal layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Visceral layer of the glomerular capsule

A

Covers the glomerulus with special epithelial cells – podocytes – that act as a filtration barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule

A

Outer layer of the capsule not directly under visceral because there is a large space between the two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus anatomy?

A

-macula densa cells, granular cells, extraglomerular mesangial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Macula densa cells

A

And the ascending loop – they have chemo receptors to detect changes in sodium concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Granular cells

A

In the a Farrant arterial

  • Baroreceptors – to detect changes in blood pressure
  • secretory granules- to release renin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Extraglomerular mesangial cells

A
  • Transfer signals between macula densa and granular cells

- activated when there is a decrease in sodium in blood pressure – which activates the Renin-angiotensin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the three processes needed for urine formation

A
  • glomerular filtration
  • tubular reabsorption
  • tubular secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Glomerular filtration

A

Filters Water and other small dissolved molecules and ions out of the glomerular capillaries plasma and into the glomerular capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of capillaries are in the glomerulus

A

Fenestrated to allow filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Glomerularnephritis

A

Homeostasis Imbalance
-inflammation caused by type three hypersensitivity where immature complex formed with in streptococcus prevents glomerular filtration

  • can happen within a month of having strep throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the contents of glomerular filtrate

A

Water, glucose, amino acids, urea, uric acid, creating, creatinine, sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, bicarbonate, phosphate,Sulfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What other fluid in the body is glomerular filtrate similar to?

A

Blood cells and plasma proteins are only in tissue fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the main force that moves substances by Phil Traciann through the glomerular capillaries?

A

Hydrostatic pressure of the blood inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is glomerular filtration pressure created

A

From outward pressure from the glomerulus and counteracting forces creating N-word pressure

  • colloid osmotic pressure from plasma proteins
  • hydrostatic pressure from glomerular capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the three factors in glomerular filtration

A
  1. hydrostatic pressure – glomerulus
  2. Inward pressure created by osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule
  3. And would pressure created by hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Outward hydrostatic pressure

A

Created by moving blood into the glomerulus from the afferent arterial and increased by the narrowed efferent arterial as compared to the afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Osmotic pressure control

A

Inward pressure from glomerular capsule – created by blood cells and plasma protein (albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hydrostatic pressure from the glomerular capsule

A
  • inWord pressure

- created from a large volume of fluid moving into the glomerular capsule from the glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the average filtration rate and 24 hours

A

180L/ 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does the average filtration rate compare to the average urine output

A

Average filter ration is 180 L where as urine output is .6–2.5 L/ 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What other factors can affect the glomerular filtration rate

A
  1. Vasomotor center
  2. Obstruction in urinary nephron
  3. Renin – angiotensin system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Vasomotor center

A

Of them medulla oblongata using sympathetic nervous system. constricts blood vessels (afferent and efferent) which will increase glomerular filtration rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Obstruction in urinary nephron

A

Well increase inward pressure so that the glomerular filtration rate will become zero if obstruction is big enough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Renin- angiotensin system

A

Used to increase blood pressure which will increase glomerular filtration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the rent and angiotensin system activated by

A
  1. Sympathetic nervous system
  2. Baroreceptors
  3. Chemoreceptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is the renin-angiotensin system activated by sympathetic nervous system

A

Sending signals to granular cells to secrete renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is the renin- angiotensin system activated by baroreceptors

A

When the baroreceptor in the granular cells detect low blood pressure and thus makes the cell secrete renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is the rain and angiotensin system activated by chemoreceptors

A

Activated chemoreceptors when macula densa cells detect low sodium thus activating the extra glomerular messangeal cells to activate the glomerular cells to secrete renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Of the items filtrated by glomerular filtration what is not reabsorbed?

A

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tubular reabsorption

A

The process by which substances are transported out of the tubular fluid through the epithelium of the renal tubule and into the interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What percentage of ribs or chicken happens in the proximal tubule

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What factors affect tubular reabsorption

A

Perry tubular capillaries and epithelium of the proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do peritubular capillaries affect tubular rehab sorption

A

Hi colloid osmotic pressure due to the presence of cells and protein

  • Low hydrostatic pressure equals slow movement
  • cell membrane is Fenestrated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How does epithelium of the proximal tubule affect tubular reabsorption

A

High hydrostatic pressure from glomerular filtrate

  • increased surface area from convution in the tubule
  • has carrier proteins for active transport of electrolytes, glucose and amino acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do you keep blood glucose at a normal level

A

There are a limited numbers of glucose transports so that normal blood glucose will be reabsorbed. Any extra glucose will be passed in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the present of glucose in urine indicate

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is water brought from the personal tubular to the peritubular capillaries

A

Sodium is actively passed from the. Proximal tubule to the peritubular capillaries and water is passably transported from the proximal tubule to Peritubular capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where is the juxtaglomerular apparatus located and what does it consist of?

A

Between afferent and you efferent arterials

  • macula densa cells – in the ascending loop – have chemo receptors to detect changes in sodium
  • granular cells – in the afferent arterial, baroreceptors to detect changes in blood pressure and signals to release renin
  • extraglomerular mesangial cells- transfer sales between macula densa and granular cells-activated when there is a decrease in sodium and blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the second step in urine information

A

Tubular reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Tubular reabsorption

A

The process by which substances are transported out of the tubular fluid through the epithelium of the renal tubule into the interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the process of sodium and water reabsorption

A
  1. sodium ions are reabsorbed by active transport
  2. Negatively charged ions are attracted to positively charged ions – create salt
  3. As concentration of ions increases and plasma, osmotic pressure increases
  4. Water moves from proximal tubule to capillary by osmosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How much is remaining after tubular rehab sorption and where is it absorbed

A

15% and it occurs in the distal tubule and nephron loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What two factors helps to absorb the remaining 15%

A

Antidiuretic hormone, countercurrent mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the role of antidiuretic hormone

A
  1. Stimulus – blood volume decreases
  2. Receptor – osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
  3. Control center – posterior pituitary gland will release antidiuretic hormone
  4. Effector – distal tubule of the nephron to increase water absorption using Aquaporins.
  5. Response – water will move into the peritubular capillaries and urine becomes concentrated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Aquaporins

A

Channel proteins to passively transport water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Countercurrent mechanism

A

The countercurrent mechanism ensures that the medullary interstitial fluid becomes hypertonic. This occurs in the nephron loop of the Juxtamedullary nephrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the factors that contribute to the countercurrent mechanism

A
  1. countercurrent multiplier

2. countercurrent exchanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Countercurrent multiplier

A

Interaction of filtrate flow and ascending/descending limb of the nephron loop of Juxtamedullary nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Countercurrent exchanger

A

Blood flow in the a sending/descending lambs of the vast director – peritubular capillaries surrounding the nephron loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What three properties of the nephron loop are dependent on to establish the osmotic gradient

A
  1. Fluid flows in the opposite direction – countercurrent – through 2 adjacent parallel sections of the nephron loop
  2. The descending limb is permeable to water but not to salt.
  3. The ascending limb is in permeable to water and pumps out salt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the result of the countercurrent multiplier

A

Establishes a positive feedback cycle that increases salt in the medulla to enhance osmosis of water into medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is special about the ascending limb of the nephron loop?

A

Makes the medulla hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the steps of the countercurrent exchanger – vasa recta

A
  1. Blood flows down into the descending vasa recta.
  2. NaCl moves into vasa recta by diffusion from the medulla
  3. In a sending vasa recta NaCl diffuses into medulla
  4. This preserves gradient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Why is there no osmosis along with NaCl diffusion?

A

Because water is attracted to the high colloid osmotic pressure in the vasa recta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Why is the water attracted to the Vasa recta

A

Because of the plasma protein and cells that attract it there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is step three in urine formation

A

Tubular secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Tubular secretion

A
  • Disposes of substances down to plasma proteins – drugs
  • eliminates undesirable substances passively reabsorbed – urea and uric acid
  • read the body of access potassium – aldosterone affect
  • Controls blood pH by altering amounts of hydrogen or HCO3 in urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What type of process is tubular secretion

A

An active process and requires ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Diuretics

A

These drugs counteract tubular reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What with diuretics be used to treat

A

Hypertension to lower blood volume to prevent tubular reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What chemicals enhance urinary output

A
  • ADH inhibitors-alcohol
  • Na reabsorption inhibitors-caffeine, drugs for hypertension or Edema
  • Loop diuretics – inhibit medullary gradient formation. Disrupts countercurrent multiplier
  • Osmotic diuretics – seven cents not ribs award so water remains in urine high glucose of diabetic patients – glucose is attracted to water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the common components in urine?

A
  • 95% water

- The rest is urea, uric acid, amino acids, and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How would you and production indicate kidney failure

A

If lower than normal
Normal is 56 mL per hour, 30 mL per hour indicates can you failure

1/3 cup equals kidney failure, 1/2 cup equals normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What items are not usually found in urine

A

Glucose, proteins, pus, red blood cells, hemoglobin, bile pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What would glucose in your urine indicate

A

Glycosuria-diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What would proteins in your urine indicate

A

Proteinurea-pregnancy, hypertension, glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What would pus in your urine indicate

A

Pyuria- urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What would red blood cells in your urine indicate

A

Hematuria- trauma, infection, kidney stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What would hemoglobin in your urine indicate

A

Hemoglobinuria- transfusion reaction, Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What would bile pigments in your urine indicate

A

Bilirubinuria-liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of urinary disease?

A
  • dysuria
  • nocturia
  • oliguria
  • anuria
  • frequency
  • urgency
  • uremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Dysuria

A

Difficulty or painful urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Nocturia

A

Increased urination at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Oliguria

A

Decreased urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Anuria

A

No urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Frequency

A

Urinating frequently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Urgency

A

Need to urinate immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Uremia

A

Hi levels of urea in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Renal clearance

A

The rate at which a particular chemical is removed from the plasma and indicates kidney efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What tests are real parents to type with Marial or damage or monitor possession of renal disease

A
  1. Insulin clearance test
  2. Creatinine clearance text
  3. Para-aminohippuric acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What other organs are in the urinary system?

A

Ureters
Urinary Bladder
Urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Ureters

A
  • 25 cm long
  • extend the rain I’ll tell this down where the bladder where is connected on the posterior side area
  • functions and moving urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder using Peristalsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Three layers of the uterus

A

1- innermost layer- Thick layer of transitional epithelium
2- middle layer- muscular coat- smooth muscle fibers in circular and longitudinal bundles
3- fibrous coat – outer coat – connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How is backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureter prevented?

A

And mucus flap/valve separates the ureter from the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Insulin Clarence test

A
  • insulin is a polysaccharide from plant roots. Goes in blood but once in urine stains in urine
  • filtered by glomerular filtrate ocean but not reabsorbed into peritubular capillaries
  • this measures glomerular filtration rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Creatinine clearance test

A

Creatinine is produced during muscle metabolism, and as a byproduct of the breakdown of Creatine and phosphate.

  • creatinine is filtered through Camaros and not reabsorbed
  • creatinine level should be consistent and blood, therefore the amount present indicates glomerular filtration rate
  • creatine increased in the blood means that the GFR is affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Para-aminohippuric acid

A

BA H is an acid that is filtered by glomerular filtrate Chin, but is reabsorbed into Perry tubular capillaries and secreted into the distal tubule
-we can use this test to determine total blood flow versus glomerular filtration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Homeostasis in balance of the ureter

A

Renal calculi- kidney stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Kidney stones

A

Will form an obstruction

  • cause severe radiating pain in the abdomen and lower limbs
  • 60% of the time there pass spontaneously
  • 40% of the time they will require ESWL or surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is a kidney stone made of

A

Calcium, phosphate, uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

ESWL

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

-shockwave sent through a waterbath into the body to fragment the stones for passage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Urinary bladder

A
  • behind peritoneum, lower pelvis
  • muscular sac for temporary storage of urine
  • Male – prostate inferior to bladder neck
  • female – anterior to vagina and uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the difference between male and female urinary systems

A

Female – 4 cm long, one part, one passage of urine to the outside of body, UTI is more common due to the short length the of urethra and the urethra is closer to the anus

Mel – 19.5 cm, three parts/prosthetic urethra and prostate, membranes us urethra, Penal urethra, there are two functions one is the passage of urine and two is the transport of semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Urinary bladder

A

Three layers of bladder wall

  1. Mucosa – transitional epithelium mucosa
  2. Thick detrusor- three layers of smooth muscle
  3. Trigone- smooth triangular area outline but openings for uterus and urethra infections 10 to persist in this region – commonplace for UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are the three layers of the urethra

A

Mucosa – actively secretes mucus
Muscular layer – smooth longitudinal muscles for Peristalsis
Fibrous coat – for protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the eight steps to micturition

A
  1. urinary bladder decisions as it fills with urine, urinary bladder can hold up to 600 mL.
  2. stretcher scepters in the bladder wall are stimulated and I signal to the micturition center in the brain and spinal cord.
  3. Parasympathetic nerve impulses travel to the detrusor muscle (in bladder) from the spinal cord, which response by contracting rhythmically as long as sympathetic nerve impulses are not activated by the spinal cord.
  4. The need to urinate is urgent – this signal can start as early as 150 mL and sensation get stronger as filling continues.
  5. Voluntary contraction of the external urethral sphincter and inhibition of the maturation reflex by impulses from the pontine maturation Center and the cerebral cortex prevent urination-no bathroom
  6. Following the decision to urinate the external urethral sphincter is relaxed by inhibiting somatic nerve activity and impulses from the pontine micturition and the cerebral cortex facilitate the micturition reflex.
  7. The detrusor muscle contracts and the internal urethral sphincter relaxes and the urine is expelled/released through the urethra
  8. The micturition reflex subsides, the detrusor muscle relaxes and the internal urethral sphincter contracts and the bladder begins to fill with urine again
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is an electrolyte? Where do they come from?

A

And I Amber has disassociated in water and is capable of conducting electricity

-from salts acids and bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the role of water in electrolyte formation?

A

What uses hydrogen bonding to dissociate sources of ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the relationship between water and electrolytes

A

Water loves salt or sources of electrolytes and follows them using osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Who has more water men or women?

A

Males have 63% wait by water where women have 52% weight by water because women have more fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the two major compartments in which water in the body with its dissolved electrolytes distributed into?

A

intracellular fluid- Two thirds of water resides inside the cells
Interstitial fluid – one third of water reside outside of the cells.
- also found in the eyes, joints, central spinal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How much of an infants weight is made up by water

A

73%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the most abundant electrolyte an intracellular fluid

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the most abundant electrolyte in extracellular fluid?

A

Biocarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the two major factors regulating the movement of water and electrolytes from one fluid compartment to another?

A

Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

Fluid moving fluid through vessels that decrease in diameter for passive transportation through filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

Created by movement of water from a high concentration to low concentration and presence of an in permeable solut- water love salt, Na is impermeable solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Hypotonic

A

lower solute concentration on the outside of the cell that on the inside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Hypertonic

A

Higher salute concentration on the outside of the cell than that on the inside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Isotonic

A

A solution that has the same salt concentration on the inside of the cell as on the outside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Crenation

A

Cell shrinks – hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Hydrolysis

A

Swelling of a cell – hypotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Water balance

A

Regulates intake by creating thirst sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the major sources of water intake

A

Metabolism, foods, beverages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are the major sources of water output

A

Feces, sweat, insensible losses be a skin and lungs, urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the most modified water output

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Where is the thirst center located?

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the process of regulation of water intake/creation of thirst sensation

A
  1. Osmotic pressure and extracellular fluid increases volume of water decreases and salute concentration increases.
    • stimulates Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
    • triggered when total body water is decreased by 1%.
  2. If blood plasma decreases 5 to 10% blood pressure will decrease which will detect and granular cells of the kidney to start the renin-angiotensin system.
    • activation of their sitter will cause mouth to become dry and encourage drinking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

When does thirst stop

A

When fluid does sends the stomach and plasma volume and extracellular fluid pressure returns to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How is water output regulated during dehydration

A

By concentrating urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How is the output of urine regulated during dehydration

A

Stimulated by increase in extracellular fluid osmotic pressure, an increase of Na in extracellular fluid and a decrease in plasma volume

-I smell receptors and hypothalamus will stimulate the posterior pituitary gland to release ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Where is ADH released from

A

Posterior pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Dehydration

A

Extracellular fluid water loss due to hemorrhage, severe burns, prolonged vomiting or diarrhea, perfuse sweating, water deprivation, diuretic abuse, endocrine disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are signs and symptoms of water dehydration

A

Cottony mouth, thirst, dry flush skin, oliguria

-May lead to weight loss, fever, mental computing, hypovolemic shock, and lots of electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the consequences of dehydration

A

Cell crenation – excess loss of H2O from extracellular fluid – extracellular fluid osmotic pressure rises – cell loses H2O to extracellular fluid by osmosis and the cell shrinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Water intoxication

A

Cellular overhydration – occurs with renal insufficiency he or rapid access water ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is water intoxication treated with

A

Hypertonic saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are the consequences of hypotonic hydration

A

Hydrolysis of the cell – excess water enters the extracellular fluid – extracellular fluid asthmatic pressure falls Dash water moves into the cell by osmosis and the cell swells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Edema

A

And abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid and the extracellular spaces – and her schedule fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the four causes of edema

A
  • Low plasma protein-liver or kidney disease
  • obstruction of lymph vessels-surgery or infection
  • increased venous pressure -Venous obstruction
  • inflammation-tissue damage, mosquito bites or wounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Electrolyte regulation

A

And electrolyte balance exist with the quantities of electrolytes that the body gain equal those that is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What do you think are important electrolytes and the body based on the previous lecture

A

Calcium, sodium, potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are the major sources of intake for electrolyte balance

A

Food, fluids, metabolic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are the major sources of output for electrolyte balance

A

Respiration, feces, urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What electrolyzer pound of innercellular fluid

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What electrolytes are found in the extracellular fluid

A

Sodium, chloride, calcium, bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Sodium

A

Important for impulse conduction along an axon and membrane permeability

  • nerve cells
  • needed for contraction of the skeletal and cardiac muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Potassium

A

Important for maintaining resting potential of nerve and cardiac muscle cells – repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Calcium

A

Important for neurotransmitter release in neurons and important for all muscle contractions
- important for both cardiac and skeletal muscle

Skeletal muscle – inhibits contraction
cardiac muscle – stimulates contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Regulation of sodium

A

Sodium regulation -low sodium is controlled by the hormone aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Hypernatremia

A

High sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Low-sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is hypernatremia caused by

A

-dehydration, fever, Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

Over active adrenal cortex, absorbing a lot of sodium causes bloating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the effects of hypernatremia

A

Adema, thirst, lethargic, agitation, increase blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How is hypernatremia regulated

A

There are no receptors to detect high sodium – the use of Osmo receptors because of high sodium correlates with high osmotic pressure in the extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is hyponatremia caused by

A

Prolonged water electrolyte loss by perspiration

  • water intoxication – extreme exercise or renal failure
  • excessive diarrhea and vomiting
  • addison’s disease – adrenal cortex isn’t working means we are not producing aldosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the effects of hyponatremia

A

Fatigue due to muscle weakness, confusion, seizure, cramping and nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

How is hyponatremia regulated

A

Detected by chemo receptors in the macula densa cells in the ascending loop of the nephron as part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus

sends a signal to the extraglomerular mesingeal cells

  • which send the signal to the granular cells in the afferent arterial to release renin to start the renin-angiotensin system
  • so that the adrenal gland releases aldosterone to reabsorb sodium in the distal tubule of the nephron in the kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What does aldosterone do

A

Regulate sodium and potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Where is aldosterone released from

A

Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What triggers the release of aldosterone

A

The start of the renin – angiotensin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Regulation of potassium

A

Is controlled by the hormone aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Hypokalemia

A

Low potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

High potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

How is sodium and potassium related

A

When sodium decreases potassium increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is hypokalemia caused by

A

Diuretic drugs and kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What does hypokalemia effect on the body

A

Causes paralysis – muscles are contracted also known as tetany

Respiratory difficulty – severe cardiac dysrhythmia – speeds up the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

How is hypokalemia regulated

A

No not receptors for potassium and low levels – no regulation by body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is hyperkalemia caused by

A

Renal disease, certain drugs, Addison’s disease because aldosterone is not produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What affects on the body does hyperkalemia cause

A

Paralysis, fatigue, nausea, cardiac dysrhythmia, slows the heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How is hyper kalemia regulated by the body

A

-increase in potassium concentration and extracellular fluid equals decreased sodium content which triggers renin release increasing angiotensin two

  • stimulates the adrenal cortex
  • adrenal cortex releases aldosterone
  • aldosterone targets the kidney tubules
  • The kidney tubules increase sodium bring absorption and increase potassium secretion
  • which restores homeostatic plasma levels of sodium and potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is the difference between Addison’s disease and Cushing’s disease

A

Cushing’s disease has an overactive adrenal cortex which causes absorbency of a loan sodium where as Addison’s disease the adrenal cortex is not working which means you’re not producing aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Regulation of calcium

A

Controlled by the hormone parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Where in the body does most of the calcium reside

A

99% of calcium is in the bones the other 1% is in the extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is calcium and extracellular fluid important for

A

Blood clotting, cell membrane permeability, sensory activities, neuromuscular excitability – most important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

Less than enough calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is hypocalcemia caused by

A

Reduce parathyroid function, low absorption of vitamin D, gastrointestinal diseases, kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What effect does hypocalcemia have on the body

A

Tetany – calcium and Hibbetts skeletal muscle contraction

Tingling sensation, mental confusion, weak heart

197
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

Very rare, excess calcium

198
Q

What is hypercalcemia caused by

A

Over active parathyroid – hyperparathyroidism

  • increased PTH
  • cancer
199
Q

What effects on the body does hypercalcemia have

A

Can you stones, promote strong cardiac contractions (dysrhythmia), muscles weakened

200
Q

How is hypercalcemia regulated in the body

A

Rare condition in which the body does not require regulation

201
Q

What is the role of parathyroid hormone

A

It regulates increased osteoclast activity in the bone, increases calcium reabsorption in the kidney, and increases activation of vitamin D by the kidney

202
Q

Where is parathyroid hormone released from

A

From the parathyroid gland

203
Q

What triggers the release of parathyroid hormone

A

Hypocalcemia

204
Q

Acids release what electrolyte?

A

H+ - hydrogen

205
Q

Bases really is what electrolyte

A

OH - hydroxide

206
Q

Why is it important to regulate hydrogen ions in the body

A

Because high hydrogen ion concentration correlates with low pH which in Hibbetts enzyme function

207
Q

What is the normal pH of blood

A

7.4

208
Q

What are some sources of hydrogen in the body

A

Aerobic respiration of glucose, anaerobic respiration of glucose, incomplete accident Acacian of fatty acids, oxidation of sulfur – containing amino acid, hydrolysis of possible proteins and nucleic acid

209
Q

Give a reaction that would explain the production of CO2 when H is in excess of the body

A

Biocarbonate buffer system

210
Q

What are the name of two additional chemical buffer systems in the body

A

Phosphate buffer system, protein buffer system

211
Q

List 2 physiological buffer systems

A

Respiratory and renal system

212
Q

What do respiratory and renal systems do?

A

Regulate amount of acid or base and body, act more slowly than chemical buffer systems, have more capacity than the chemical buffer system

213
Q

What is respiratory acidosis

A

CO2 accumulates in the blood and the pH drops

214
Q

What is respiratory acidosis caused by

A

I’m not properly exhaling CO2 this happens if you have COPD

215
Q

What is metabolic acidosis

A

Low blood pH do to accumulation of one or more of the following acids

  • acetic acid/ ketones
  • acetic acid
216
Q

What factors led to metabolic acidosis

A

Acetic acid/Keytones-starvation

Acetic acid- alcohol consumption in excess

217
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis

A

CO2 is 11 AM from the body faster than it is produced and blood pH rises

218
Q

What factors lead to respiratory alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation

219
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis

A

Blood pH rises along with bicarbonate

220
Q

What factors lead to metabolic alkalosis

A

Caused by over taking antacids

221
Q

What is normal blood pH

A

7.4

222
Q

Gametes in males

A

Produce sperm cells

223
Q

Gametes and females

A

Produce oocytes

224
Q

How many chromosomes are in human cells

A

46

225
Q

Explain crossing over

A

As a result of crossing over any offspring that you produce will have 70 trillion genetically unique possibilities

226
Q

Explain mitosis

A

Mitosis is a cell division where the starting Cell has 46 chromosomes as does the duplicate cell

227
Q

Explain meiosis

A

Pairing of Homologas chromosomes – 23 pairs

228
Q

What functions are the male reproductive system specialized to do

A

To produce and maintain sperm cells, transferred the cells for the purpose of reproduction, secrete male sex hormones

229
Q

Testes

A

The organs in which the sperm cells are produced and where the male sex hormones are produced and secreted

230
Q

What hormone is produced in the testes

A

Testosterone

231
Q

Tunica vaginalis

A

Outer layer of the testes

232
Q

Tunica albuginea

A

Inner shade of dense connective tissue that divides the testes into 250 lobules per testie

233
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A

In each lobule one seminiferous tubule is present and is the location of spermatogenesis

234
Q

Rate testis

A

The convergence point of all 250 seminiferous tubules

235
Q

Epididymis

A

Receives immature sperm (non-motile) spermatid – produced in the seminiferous tubule and becomes more mature- (motile) spermatozoans

236
Q

Vas (ductus) deferens

A

Extension of the epididymis where motile spermatozoans travel to the ejaculatory duct

237
Q

Spermatic cord

A

Contains the vas deferens and blood vessels from the testes to the of Domino cavity

238
Q

When does the descent of the testes occur

A

The test is in the fetus usually just send from an area near the developing kidney to the scrotum up to two months before birth

239
Q

Why do the testes descend

A

The temperature in the body is too high and it will kill the sperm so they must be outside the body

240
Q

Gubernaculum

A

Fibromuscular cord that aids in the movement of the testes during dissent and through the inguinal canal

241
Q

Inguinal canal

A

Opening through abdomen above pubis symphysis

242
Q

Spermatic cord

A

Act as a tether connecting testy to body

243
Q

Crytorchisism

A

When testes failed to descend – require surgery and if occurs male will be sterile

244
Q

Why will a male be sterile if he suffers from crytorchidism?

A

Sperm production requires 95°F there for testes have to be outside the body and if they do not drop the sperm cells will die at birth

245
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

Permission of sperm cells – occurs continually and Mel starting at puberty

246
Q

What are the steps of spermatogenesis

A
  1. Spermatogonia cells are produced before puberty and the Seminiferous tubules in large numbers.
  2. At puberty each spermatogonium divides into two cells.
    - One cell stays a spermatogonium
    - another sub comes a primary spermatocyte
  3. Primary spermatocyte goes through meiosis one
  4. Resulting secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis two and gives rise to four haploid spermatocytes.
  5. Spermatic teds moved to epididymis temperature into functional gametes. Spermatozoan
247
Q

Head of the sperm

A

Contains the nucleus and the acrosome

248
Q

Nucleus of the sperm

A

Contains 23 chromatids

249
Q

Acrosome

A

Small portion of the end of the head that contains hyaluronidase an enzyme needed to penetrate oocytes during fertilization

250
Q

The mid piece of the sperm

A

Central filamentous core filled with mitochondria – powerhouse making ATP – cellular respiration

251
Q

Tell of sperm

A

For propulsion

252
Q

Male internal reproductive organs

A

These organs are important in making secretions needed to maintain sperm during the process of ejaculator shin and sexual intercourse

253
Q

Bulbourethral glands

A

Located inferior to prostate gland and within the urogenital diaphragm

  • secretions are formed before the ejaculation of other semen components
  • lubrication mucus
254
Q

Seminal vesicle

A

Gland that attaches to the vas deferens near the base of the urinary bladder.

  • 70% of semen by secreting an alkaline fluid that regulates the pH of tubular content while and Male and also female makes fructose to be used for cellular respiration
255
Q

Prostate gland

A

Doughnut shaped gland that surrounds the urethra – makes a milky white secretion to neutralize the waste products of sperm as a result this will enhance sperm mobility

256
Q

Scrotum

A

Patch of skin that surrounds and supports the testes

257
Q

What are the two muscles of the scrotum

A

Cremaster muscle

Dartos muscle

258
Q

Cremaster muscle

A

Found in the spermatic cord upon contraction brings testes closer to the body happens under college conditions and when in danger

259
Q

Dartos muscle

A

Actually in the scrotum – when contracted the service area of the skin is reduced happens in the cold

260
Q

Serous membrane in the scrotum

A

To ensure testes and epididymis move smoothly with in the scrotum

261
Q

Penis

A

Cylinder Oregon that conveys urine and semen through the urethra to outside

262
Q

What are the three layers of the penis

A

Tunica albuginea, corpora cavernosa, corpus spongopsum

263
Q

Tunica albuginea

A

Dense connective tissue and outer layer for protection

264
Q

Corpora cavernosa

A

Two columns of erectile tissue that surrounds the two arteries

265
Q

Corpus spongiosum

A

Glans penis – head – one column of tissue that surrounds the urethra extends to form the glans penis covered by the foreskin that may be removed at circumcision

266
Q

Explain the process of an erection

A
  1. Sexual stimulation in the glans penis
  2. Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide, causing dilation of small arteries to the penis
    • veins are compressed reducing blood flow away from penis
  3. Blood accumulates in the vascular spaces within the erectile tissue of the penis
  4. Penis welcome to come erect
267
Q

Emission

A

The release of seminal fluid and sperm into the urethra

268
Q

Ejaculation

A

Semen is forcefully expelled from the urethra

269
Q

Orgasm

A

Call nation of sexual stimulation the results and a feeling of physiological release. And Mills is accompanied by emission and ejaculation

270
Q

What are the primary sex organs

A

Ovary and testy

271
Q

What are the functions of the female reproductive system

A

To produce and maintain the female sex cells, transport the sounds to site of fertilization, provide a favorable environment for a developing offspring, move offspring to the outside, and produce female sex hormones

272
Q

What hormones are produced in the female reproductive system

A

Estrogen and progesterone and they are produced in the ovary

273
Q

Loge exits

A

Meiosis one begins during the fetal period But is arrested. Oogonia cells increase in number at the time of birth, 1 million of the cells remain. This is the total number of that woman will ever have produced in her lifetime

Oogonia cells arrest during prophase one of meiosis and are wrapped and flattened epithelial cells to form memorial follicles they remain dormant until puberty which then become primary oocytes.

274
Q

How does the number of eggs a woman has compared to the number of sperm men have

A

And men spermatozoids are continually produced and there are 120 million sperm per milliliter of semen where as a woman will never produce more than what she has at birth

275
Q

How many sperm cells are found in semen normally

A

120 million sperm per milliliter of semen

276
Q

How much sperm is found and one ejaculation

A

One ejaculation equals 5 mL of semen which equals 600 million sperm

277
Q

Explain ooGenesis at puberty

A
  • primary oocyte becomes his primary follicle
  • meiosis this one is completed producing a secondary oocyte and a polar body
  • secondary oh site and larges to form a graafian follicle
  • during ovulation, secondary oocyte is released from the follicle. The follicle becomes the corpus luteum.
  • meiosis 2 can only occur if fertilization takes place in which case the ovum will be produced with a second polar body
  • when a sperm nucleus combines with the ovum nucleus, a Zygote created
278
Q

What does a spermatozoen fertilize

A

A secondary oocyte

279
Q

Why are polar bodies necessary

A

To make large cells to promote and accommodate fertilization – to make room

280
Q

Which female organ corresponds to the scrotum and the male body

A

The labia majora

281
Q

What female organ corresponds to the male penis

A

The clitorus

282
Q

What female organ corresponds with the bulbourethral gland

A

Vestibule

283
Q

Uterine tube

A

Connected to the uterus, covers but does not connect to the overly

284
Q

Infundibulum

A

Funnel shaped extension of the uterine tube – has been breaks tensions

285
Q

What are the functions of the uterine tube

A

Receives secondary oocyte, fertilization of secondary oocyte, uses peristalsis and ciliary action to transport zygote into uterus

286
Q

Uterus

A

Hollow muscular organ shaped like a pair, lower one third of uterus is called cervix

287
Q

What are the three layers of the uterus and their function

A
  • endometrium – innermost layer
  • Myometrium – muscle layer
  • perimetrium-outer serosal layer
288
Q

What is the function of the uterus

A

Receive embryo and sustains development

289
Q

Vagina

A

Extends from the uterus to the outside, vaginal to that surrounds the cervix of the uterus is called the Fornices and use for pelvic examination

290
Q

Hymien

A

Then membrane of connective tissue that covers the opening of the vagina partially can be separated and moved from vagional wall

291
Q

What are the functions of the vagina

A

Convey uterine secretions, serves as a Burlington now, receives erecting penis during sexual intercourse

292
Q

Vulva anatomy

A
  • labia majora
  • labia minora
  • vestibule
293
Q

Labia majora

A

Outer covering made of skin, creates the peritoneum on the posterior side and the Mons pubis on the anterior side

294
Q

Labia minora

A

Flattened longitudinal folds of tissue that contains many blood vessels so that the tissues appear pink/red

  • creates the clitoris on the anterior side – clitoris has erectile tissue made of corpora cavernosa
295
Q

Vestibule

A

Space that is enclosed by the labia menorah, has the opening of the vagina, a pair of the Stabile her glands lie on either side of the vagina that secrete mucus

296
Q

What are the steps and an erection for a female

A
  1. Sexual stimulation of clitoris
  2. Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide, causing dilation of small arteries and erectile tissue
  3. Arteries in the erectile tissue dilate vagina expand and elongates
    - engorged and swollen vagina increases function from movement of the penis
  4. sexual salvation intensifies so that vestibular glance to create mucus for lubrication facilitating insertion of the penis
  5. Orgasm – uterine walls, uterine tubes contract to move sperm through reproductive organs
297
Q

What does estrogen do

A

Brings on secondary sex characteristics

298
Q

What does breast development require

A

Progesterone

299
Q

What does FSH stimulate

A

Maturation of folic you’ll and secretion of estrogen

300
Q

What does LH stimulate

A

Ovaries to produce estrogen precursor molecules

301
Q

What is LH responsible for

A

Ovulation

302
Q

Mammary glands

A

Are sensory organs of the female reproductive system specialist to secrete milk following pregnancy

303
Q

Where are mammary glands located

A

And the sub continuous tissue of the anterior thorax called the breast. The breast over a lot of the pectoralis major muscles

304
Q

Nipple

A

Is present on the breast and provides an opening for the mammory glands

305
Q

Areola

A

A pigmented circular area surrounding the nipple

306
Q

Prolactin

A

Needed for milk production produced in the anterior pituitary gland

307
Q

Female reproductive cycle

A

Maturation of the Oocyte, ovulation, ministration

308
Q

First reproductive

A

Menarche, 10 to 13 years

309
Q

Day one through five

A
  • GNRH stimulates the release of FSH and LH to act on the ovaries
    1. release estrogen and progesterone to support the development of oocytes
310
Q

Day six through 14

A
  1. FSH stimulates the maturation of a fall like you to become the Graafian follicle
  2. Endometrium will become thicker responding to increased production of progesterone and estrogen.
  3. The formation of graafian follicle kill well inhibit the pituitary gland from releasing LH
311
Q

Day 14

A
  1. GNRH causes a huge release of LH from the pituitary gland cousin ovulation – release of secondary oocyte into the uterine tube
  2. The remaining graafian follicle to come the corpus luteum and produce estrogen and progesterone to thicken the uterus
  3. If fertilization occurs high levels of estrogen and pedestrian produced corpus luteum to sustain the pregnancy
312
Q

Day 24

A
  1. If no fertilization the corpus luteum degenerates and becomes absorbed by the ovaries
313
Q

Day 25 through five

A
  1. Blood from damage capillaries in the endometrium will carry the lining through the vagina as a ministry flow- menses
    - this can extend into day one through five of the cycle
314
Q

Menopause

A

The period in a woman’s life when the reproductive cycle stops usually around age 50

315
Q

What are the nine glands of the endocrine system

A
  1. anterior pituitary gland
  2. Posterior pituitary gland
  3. Thyroid gland
  4. Parathyroid gland
  5. Adrenal gland
  6. Testes/ovaries
  7. Thymus gland
  8. Penial gland
316
Q

Anterior pituitary gland

A

Tropic

  • thyroid stimulating hormone
  • Adrenocortotropic hormone
  • follicle-stimulating hormone
  • Luteinizing hormone

Non tropic

  • growth hormone
  • prolactin
317
Q

Thyroid stimulating hormone

A

Stimulates the thyroid

318
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone

A

Stimulate sperm production and men and stimulates the development of ovarian follicles and women

319
Q

Adrenocortotropic hormone

A

Signals the adrenal gland

320
Q

Luteinizing hormone

A

Stimulate ovulation – the release of the female egg – ministration

Stimulates testosterone production in the testes

321
Q

Growth hormone

A

Stimulates growth in bones and muscle

322
Q

Prolactin

A

Stimulates milk production in mammory glands

323
Q

What is non-tropic mean

A

Hormones that stimulate body functions as opposed to tropic which means they control other endocrine glands

324
Q

Posterior pituitary gland produces what hormones

A
  • Antidiuretic hormone

- Oxytocin

325
Q

Antidiuretic hormone

A

Regulates water balance by increasing water reabsorption

326
Q

Oxytocin

A

Stimulates uterine contraction of smooth muscles and enhances labor contractions

327
Q

The thyroid gland produces what hormones

A

Thyroid hormone

328
Q

Thyroid hormone

A

Regulate your metabolism, regulates growth of tissues and in some part regulates blood pressure

329
Q

The parathyroid gland produces what hormones

A

Parathyroid hormone

330
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A
  • stimulates osteoclasts to digest bone matrix and release Ca2+ to blood
  • enhances rehabilitation of Ca2 + and secretion of phosphate by kidneys
  • promotes activation of vitamin D by the kidneys and increases absorption of Ca2 + by intestinal mucosa
331
Q

Adrenal gland

A

Adrenal medulla
-epinephrine/norepinephrine

adrenal cortex

  • aldosterone
  • cortisol
  • androgens
332
Q

Epinephrine/norepinephrine

A

Stimulates the heart, respiration, and increase of glucose and blood

Vasodilation and blood vessels

In response to sympathetic nervous system

333
Q

Aldosterone

A

Induces the reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys to help reabsorb water

334
Q

Cortisol

A

Stimulates the process of glucogenesis making glucose from alternative sources

  • maintains blood pressure
  • suppresses the immune system
335
Q

Androgens

A

Male sex hormones produced by both sexes
-promotes onset of puberty and development of secondary sex characteristics

  • female sex drive
336
Q

Penial gland

A
  • melatonin

- serotonin

337
Q

Serotonin

A

Neurotransmitter

338
Q

Melatonin

A

Involved in regulating day/night cycle, regulates physiological process of sleeping, body temperature, appetite and produces antioxidants to fight cancer

339
Q

Ovaries

A

Estrogen and progesterone

340
Q

Estrogen

A

Maturation of reproductive organs

  • appearance of secondary sex characteristics-breast enlargement, wider hips, higher pitched voice, minestrone cycle
  • production of eggs
341
Q

Progesterone

A

Breast development and cycle changes in uterine Macosa

342
Q

Testes

A

Produce testosterone

343
Q

Testosterone

A
  • initiates maturation of male reproductive organs
  • causes the parents of male secondary sex Characteristics such as facial hair chest hair voice deepening big muscles and broad shoulders
  • sex drive
  • necessary for normal sperm production
344
Q

Thymus gland

A

Produces Thymosin

345
Q

Thymosin

A

Needed for the production and maturation of certain white blood cells – T lymphocytes

346
Q

Pancreas

A

Produces insulin and glucagon

347
Q

Insulin

A
  • Produced by beta cells in the pancreas
  • signal delivered to convert glucose into go to gun for storage which can cause blood glucose levels to decrease
  • signals body cells to uptake glucose
348
Q

Glucagon

A
  • produced by alpha cells in the pancreas

- signals liver to convert glycogen to glucose which causes blood levels to increase

349
Q

Plasma

A

Clear liquid part of blood

-92% water+ proteins + gases + nutrients + electrolytes + urea +uric acid

350
Q

Buffy coat

A

White blood cells and platelets

351
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells

352
Q

Why is blood a type of connective tissue

A

Because it has sale surrounding by extracellular matrix

353
Q

How present is blood in the body

A

Blood volume is typically 8% of the bodyweight and an adult has 5 L of blood

354
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Needed for formed elements occurs and red bone matrix

-blood cell formation and red bone marrow

355
Q

Leukocyte

A

White blood cell – destroys pathogenic microorganisms and parasites and removes worn cells

356
Q

What are the different types of leukocytes

A

Neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, eosinophil, basophil

357
Q

Neutrophil

A
  • granular
    -most abundant
    First to arrive at the site of infection and carries out phagocytosis
358
Q

Lymphocyte

A
  • Agranular
  • provides immunity
  • Second most abundant
359
Q

Monocyte

A

-Agranular
-Phagocytosis
Third most abundant

360
Q

Esosinophil

A

-granular
-kills parasitic worms and has a role in allergic reactions and inflammation
Fourth most abundant

361
Q

Basophil

A
  • granular
  • release histamine and heparin
  • least abundant
362
Q

Albumin

A

Helps maintain colloid osmotic pressure to control blood pressure

363
Q

Globulin

A

Alpha and beta – transport lipids and that soluble nutrients and hormones

Gamma – antibodies used in immunity

364
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Blood coagulation

365
Q

Platelets

A
  • thrombocytes

- made from broken fragments of megakaryocytes

366
Q

Hemostasis

A

First series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding

– requires clotting factors and substances released by platelets and injured tissues

367
Q

What are the three steps in hemostasis

A
  1. vascular spasm
  2. Platelet plug formation
  3. Coagulation
368
Q

Vascular spasm

A

A cut and a small blood vessel
– stimulates vascular spasm
– reflexes excited by pain receptors in the injured tissue

369
Q

What is the result of vascular spasm

A

-Blood loss lessons almost immediately
– the ends of severed vessels may close completely
– they affect last 30 minutes
– and small blood vessel this is enough time to close the ends

370
Q

Platelet plug formation

A

Damaged endothelium exposes collagen fibers
– platelet stick to collagen fibers via plasma protein von Willebrand factor
– Swell become spiky and sticky and release chemical messengers

371
Q

What happens as a result of the platelet plug formation

A

– ADP causes more playlist to stick and release their contents
– positive feedback to the original stimulus
– continue and enhance original stimulus

372
Q

Blood coagulation

A

There are two coagulation methods
– extrinsic clotting mechanism
– intrinsic clotting mechanism

373
Q

Extrinsic clotting mechanism

A

Triggered by damage from the outside

374
Q

Intrinsic clotting mechanism

A

Triggered by damaging the blood vessel from the inside

375
Q

What does blood coagulation depend on

A

-presence of clotting factors vitamin K – necessary for clotting factors to work
– activation of procoagulants – precursors to putting factors

376
Q

What are three different types of abnormal blood clots

A

-thrombosis
– embolism
– infarction

377
Q

Thrombosis

A

Clotting and I’m broken vessels result of intrinsic clotting caused by damage to the lining

378
Q

Plaque

A

Build up of cholesterol in a vessel

379
Q

Thrombus

A

Blood clot blocking the flow of the vessel – formation is associated with ischemia which is reduced blood flow equaling decreased O2 to surrounding tissues

380
Q

Embolism

A

Clotting result from a previous dislodged blood clot blocking a new blood vessel

381
Q

Infarction

A

Clotting that causes surrounding tissue to be killed

necrosis – dead tissue as a result of complete blockage

382
Q

What is ischemia

A

Reduce blood flow which causes decreased oxygen to surrounding tissues

383
Q

What are the four possible blood typesand what antigens and antibodies are found at each blood type

A

Type a – A antigens. B antibodies

Type B – B antigens. A antibodies

Type AB- both a and B antigens. No antibodies

Type O- neither a or B antigens. A and B antibodies

384
Q

Agglutination

A

The result of an antibody antigen interaction where sells clump together

385
Q

What blood type is the universal receiver

A

A B

386
Q

What blood type is a universal donor

A

Type O

387
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalsis

A

Condition where mother is negative and has a D antibodies and baby is positive camper vent by using RhoGAM drug made from antibodies against antigen D

388
Q

Species resistance

A

Affects other species not your own because their cells do not have receptors for the pathogen or or provide a suitable environment for the pathogen

A type of an eight – nonspecific defense system

389
Q

Innate defense

A

Nonspecific – first and second line of defense

390
Q

First line of defense

A

Surface barriers
– skin
– mucous membranes

391
Q

Second line of defense

A 
–Phagocytes
 – information
 – antimicrobial proteins
 – natural killer cells
 – fever
392
Q

Adaptive defense

A

Specific defense system – third line of defense

Humoral immunity-B cells – antibodies kill specific micro organisms

Cellular immunity – T cells

393
Q

What is specific – adaptive immunity

A

Third line of defense, immunity is resistance to specific pathogen’s or two there toxins are metabolic by Products

394
Q

Cellularb immunity

A

T cells – direct response to the pathogen

395
Q

Humoral immunity

A

B cells – and direct response to the pathogen through the use of antibodies that bind to antigens on the stage for repair of pathogen

396
Q

Active immunity

A

Actively making antibodies – B lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to antigen from the pathogen

397
Q

Natural active immunity

A

Exposure to infection – primary response

398
Q

Artificial active

A

Vaccine – body is exposed to dead pathogen

399
Q

Passive immunity

A

The body obtains antibodies from another source –

400
Q

Natural passive immunity

A

Maternal antibodies to the fetus from mothers breastmilk

401
Q

Artificial passive immunity

A

Gamma globulin surround created in a lab against antigens

402
Q

What is HIV

A

Immunodeficiency disease where HIV destroys your helper T cells virus can generate 1000 copies of itself a day viral reproduction wears out post helper T cells and the cells die

403
Q

What does HIV cause

A

A weekend immune system which causes AIDS

404
Q

Aids

A

Patients susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers

405
Q

What are the four chambers in the heart

A
  • Right and left atrium

- right and left ventricles

406
Q

What are the major valves of the heart

A

Tricuspid valve, bicuspid valve,hey Arctic valve, pulmonary valve

407
Q

Trace a drop of blood through the heart

A

-superior/inferior vena cava
-right atrium
-through the tricuspid valve
– right ventricle
– through the pulmonary valve
– pulmonary trunk
– pulmonary arteries
– long capillaries
– pulmonary veins
– left atrium
– through the mitral valve/bicuspid valve
– left ventricle
– through the aortic valve
– Aorta
– body capillaries
– body veins
– vena cava

408
Q

Trace the blood flow to and from the heart wall

A

Aorta
– right and left coronary artery
– anterior marginal artery, posterior side of the anterior mesentery artery, posterior circumflex, and anterior interventricular artery
– Capillaries to serve the mitochondrion
-used up blood goes to the coronary veins
– coronary sinus
– right atrium

409
Q

Angina pectoris

A

Chest pain associated with ischemia (Reduced blood flow) is temporary

410
Q

Myocardial infarction

A

Heart attack – result of from boatswain in the coronary artery’s went to Shiba comes necrotic

Symptoms include long-lasting chest pain pain radiating down the left arm and neck

411
Q

What is the major events in one cardiac conduction cycle

A
  1. The SA node generates an impulse
  2. atrial syncytium spread the impulse through the atria
  3. Junctional fibers transmit impulses slowly to the AV node
  4. The impulse is received by atrioventricular node
  5. The atrioventricular node bundle conducts impulses through the interventricular septum
  6. Purkinje fibers depolarize the contractile cells of both ventricles
  7. Ventricular syncytium transmits impulses to cardiac muscle cells
412
Q

Systole

A

Contraction of the heart

413
Q

Diastol

A

Relaxation of the heart

414
Q

What does the love sound correspond with

A

The sound of the atrioventricular valve closing

415
Q

What does the dub sound correlate to

A

The closing of the semi lunar valves

416
Q

Regulation of the cardiac cycle

A

The control center for cardiac cycle regulation is in the Medela oblongata using – cardioinhibitory center
– cardioacceleratory center

417
Q

Parasympathetic regulation

A

Uses Vegas nerves that receives signals from the medulla oblongata
–SA and AV node to respond to acetylcholine
– increase and parasympathetic impulses slow the heart rate
– decrease and parasympathetic impulse increase the heart rate

418
Q

Sympathetic regulation

A

Uses Exceller Tori nerves of the sympathetic nervous system
– SA and AV node’s as well as other areas of mitochondria respond to norepinephrine
– increase in sympathetic impulses increase the heart rate and force the myocardial contractions
-One way only

419
Q

What is the cardiac control center

A

Medulla oblongata

420
Q

Barorecptors

A

Detect changes in the blood pressure located in the aorta and in the carotid artery’s – used to detect high and low blood pressure and signal to the Medela oblongata

421
Q

What does blood pressure represent

A

Systol/diastole

422
Q

Where is blood pressure usually measured

A

And the brachial artery

423
Q

Capillaries

A

Microscopic and one cell layer thick
– made of Tunica endothelium
–stabilized by supporting cells called pericytes
– only one red blood cell capacitor time

424
Q

Veins

A

– Formed from converging venues
– have all three layers
Tunica intima, Tunica media, tunica externa
– blood pressure is lower
– contain valves sinuses and large diameters

425
Q

Arteries

A

-Carry oxygenated blood
– larger in diameter
– smaller opening

426
Q

What is hypotension and what are different types

A

Any condition in which blood vessels and adequately filled, and blood vessels cannot circulate normally – result in an adequate blood flow to meet tissue needs

427
Q

What is Hypertension and the different types

A

Primary and secondary hypertension high blood pressure

428
Q

Primary hypertension

A

No known cause

429
Q

Secondary hypertension

A

Resulting from complication of known disease

– usually heart, vascular or kidney disease

430
Q

What is the treatment for hypertension

A

Step care approache

  1. Change lifestyle – exercise, diet reduce salt, lose weight, stop smoking
  2. Diuretics
  3. drugs – beta blocker to increase vessel diameter
  4. Drugs – Alpha blockers – decreased cardiac output
431
Q

If hypertension is prolonged what can happen

A

Stroke and sometimes death

432
Q

Types of circulatory shock

A
  • hypovolemic shock-results from a large scale blood loss
  • vascular shock – results from extreme vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance
  • Cardiogenic shock – results when an insufficient heart cannot sustain adequate circulation
433
Q

What is normal blood pressure

A

115/75

434
Q

Stroke volume

A

The amount of blood that enters the arteries from the ventricle equals 70 mL

435
Q

Cardiac output

A

Is produced by the cardiac conduction system the average heart rate is 72 bpm 60 to 100 is normal

436
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output

A

CO= SV*HR

437
Q

How do you maintain normal blood pressure

A

By maintaining cardiac output and peripheral resistance

438
Q

What is the pathway the air takes to go from the nasal cavity to the alveoli

A 
-nasal cavity
 – middle nasal conch
 – pharynx
 – lyrics
 – trachea
 – primary bronchi
 – secondary bronchi
 – tertiary  bronchi
 – interlobular bronchioles
 – terminal bronchioles
– Respiratory bronchioles
 – alveolar ducts
 – alveoli
439
Q

What are of you like and what do they secrete

A

Location of primary gas exchange

– they secrete surfactant

440
Q

How is surface tension involved with surfactant

A

It reduces surface tension of Avila fluid and discourages of you all are collapse

441
Q

What condition results from collapse alveoli

A

Infant respiratory distress syndrome

442
Q

External respiration

A

Exchange of gases between air and the alveoli/long and the blood

443
Q

Internal respiration

A

Exchange of gases between the blood and body cells

444
Q

Cellular respiration

A

Need to gases and produces gases – produces energy used by body cells from glucose and oxygen and create CO2 as a waste product

445
Q

Inspiration

A

Gas is flow into the lungs

446
Q

Expiration

A

Gas is flowing out of the lungs

447
Q

Steps and inspiration

A

1.inspiratory muscles contract – diaphragm descends and the rib cage rises

  1. Thoracic cavity volume increases
  2. Lungs are stretched, enter pulmonary volume increases
  3. Intrapulmonary pressure drops
  4. Air flows into the Longs down his pressure gradient until equilibrates with atmospheric pressure
448
Q

Steps in expiration

A
  1. Inspiratory muscles relax – diaphragm rises rib cage descendants
  2. Thoracic cavity volume decreases
  3. elastic Longs recoil passably, intrapulmonary volume decreases
  4. intrapulmonary pressure rises
  5. Air flows out of the lungs down it’s pressure gradient until it reaches equilibrium with the atmosphere
449
Q

Title volume

A

Normal ventilation

450
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled in addition to title volume

451
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled in addition to title volume

452
Q

Residual volume

A

Volume of air that remains in the Longs at all times

453
Q

Vital capacity

A

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest breath possible

VC = IRV + TV + ERV

454
Q

Total lung capacity

A

Total volume of air that the Longs can hold

TLC= VC+RV

455
Q

Control of respiration

A

Involves higher brain centers – Medela oblongata

456
Q

What is the respiratory centers

A

Control centers – ventral respiratory group and dorsal respiratory group

457
Q

Dorsal respiratory group

A

Tells VRG to either increase or decrease breathing rate based on information sent from the chemo receptors and peripheral stretch receptors

458
Q

Ventral respiratory group

A

Dictates breathing rate is the rhythm generation center 12 to 15 bpm

459
Q

Pontine respiratory group

A

Modify his breathing during speech, exercise, sleep

460
Q

What are some factors that affect breathing

A

-increase partial pressure of carbon dioxide – decrease partial pressure of oxygen
- information reflects
– decreased peripheral resistance of carbon dioxide

461
Q

O2 transportation

A

98.5% of diffused 02 is bound with Effy of hemoglobin with weak bonds known as oxyhemoglobin

rate of unloading/loading of O2 is influenced by
-amount of hemoglobin and oxygen
– temperature, pH, PCO2
–cellular respiration

462
Q

The Bohr effect

A

Weekend of HB – 02 in the system and it capillaries as a result of increased temperature

– decrease pH will also release 02 from the HB – 02 bond

– increase in PCO2 makes carbonate acid which decreases the pH

463
Q

Rhinitis

A

Common cold

464
Q

Emphysema

A

Form of COPD where there is a breakdown in Alveolidecreasing service area which decreases external respiration

465
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapse long from the adhesion of every alveoli
– because of increase surface tension
– caused by complication of surgery
– also may develop cystic fibrosis or asthma

466
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Collapse long by punctured to the thoracic cavity and pleura pressure increases in cavity which will cause long to decrease in volume

467
Q

What organs are considered a sensory organs of the digestive system

A

Salivary gland’s, liver, gallbladder, pancreas

468
Q

List the organs and the alimentary canal in order

A

-mouth – pharynx – esophagus – stomach – small intestine – large intestine – rectum – anus

469
Q

What enzymes are involved in chemical digestion and where does it take place

A

Amylase – in the mouth, breaks down starch to sugar

Lipase – in the small intestine – breaks down lipids to fatty acids

HCl and pepsin – in the stomach, breaks down protein two amino acids

470
Q

What are the four layers of the alimentary canal

A
  1. mucosa – innermost layer – protection, secretion, absorption
  2. Submucosa – location of receptors – nourishes surrounding tissues, transports absorb materials
  3. Muscle layer – location of receptors – movements of the tube and its contents
  4. Serosa – outermost layer – for protection and lubrication
471
Q

Where are the Mechanoreceptors receptors located in the alimentary canal

A

In the muscle layer

472
Q

Where are the chemoreceptors located in the alimentary canal

A

In the submucosa

473
Q

Where are the control centers of movement

A
  1. The gut brain

2. The central nervous system

474
Q

The gut brain

A

Enteric Plexes of nerves that serves as a control center for short reflexes

475
Q

Myenteric plexus

A

Located in the muscle layer of the alimentary canal promotes peristalsis and segmentation

476
Q

Sub mucosal plexus

A

Located in the submucosa promotes secretion by enzymes

477
Q

Central nervous system control

A

Connects to the alimentary canal via the Vegas nerve – parasympathetic to control long reflexes

-Vegas nerve send acetylcholine to promote movement

– Sympathetic nervous system uses epinephrine to inhibit movement

478
Q

What is Peristalsis

A

Rhythmic wave of smooth muscle contraction of longitude no muscles in the wall the alimentary canal to propel food forward

479
Q

What is segmentation

A

Created by alternating contraction and relaxation of circular muscles of the alimentary canal to mix intestinal contents

480
Q

How is gastric secretion regulated

A

Vagus nerve simulation equals secretion increased

Sympathetic stimulation equal secretion decreased

481
Q

What are the components of gastric juice

A
  1. hCl – secreted by the parietal cells in the gastric glands
  2. Pepsinogen secreted by chief cells
    3.pepsin the Cubs activated when Pepcid agent is mixed with HCl – breaks down proteins
  3. Mucus – alkaline substance secreted from mucous cells to protect stomach lining from
    HCL
  4. Hormones – stomatostatin – inhibits secretion of juice and gastrin – activate secretion of juice
  5. Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells and is needed for B 12 absorption
482
Q

What are the major functions of the liver

A
  • carbohydrate metabolism
  • lipid metabolism
  • Protein metabolism
  • Storage
  • blood filtering
  • detoxification
  • secretion
483
Q

What are the three functions of the pancreas

A

Endocrine functions – secrete insulin and glucagon

Exocrine functions – secrete pancreatic juice, secrete bio carbonate ions

484
Q

What is in pancreatic juice

A

Enzymes – amylase, lipase, protease and bicarbonate

485
Q

What are the three sections of the small intestines and order

A

Deuodenum, jejunum, ilium

486
Q

What are the function of the small intestines

A

Chemical digestion and the duodenum, chemical digestion throughout small intestine, absorption, transportation

487
Q

What are some adaptations found in the small intestine that aid in the absorption by increasing surface area

A

Villa and Plicae

488
Q

What are the parts of the large intestines and order

A

cecum, appendix, ascending colon,transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum,anal canal

489
Q

What are the functions of the large intestine

A
  1. Secretes mucus – protection against abrasive material
  2. houses microbiota
  3. Absorption of water, electrolytes, vitamins
  4. Transportation of feces to anus
  5. Defecation

A&P COM (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions