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Intro to Vet Tech > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

most superficial layer of the skin

A

Epidermis

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2
Q

middle layer that contains blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, and accessory organs of the skin

A

Dermis

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3
Q

deepest layer of the skin that contains connective tissue

A

Subcutaneous layer

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4
Q

rod like fibers made of dead protein cells filled with keratin

A

Hair

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5
Q

pil/i, pil/o, and trich/o

A

hair

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6
Q

thick areas of keratinized epithelium that provide cushioning and protection for the bones of the foot

A

Pads

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7
Q

keratin plates in dogs and cats

A

Nails and claws

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8
Q

onych/o

A

Nails and claws

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9
Q

sensitive tissue of the nail

A

quick

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10
Q

first digit of dogs and cats found on the inner side of the front legs

A

Dewclaws

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11
Q

removal of tissue for examination using a microscope

A

Biopsy

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12
Q

microscopic examination of skin for the presence of mites

A

Skin scrape

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13
Q

localized collection of pus

A

Abscess

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14
Q

skin inflammation caused by plugged sebaceous glands

A

Acne

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15
Q

bacterial skin disease that is worsened by licking and scratching; also called hot spot

A

Acute moist dermatitis

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16
Q

hair loss resulting in hairless patches or complete lack of hair

A

Alopecia

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17
Q

malignant tumor of the skin

A

Carcinoma

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18
Q

inflammation of the skin

A

Dermatitis

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19
Q

autoimmune lesion of eosinophilic ulcer located on the lip of cats

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

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20
Q

inflammation of the skin caused by an allergic reaction to flea saliva

A

Flea allergy dermatitis (FAD)

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21
Q

live on the external surface of tissue

A

Ectoparasite

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22
Q

mite on surface of skin that is highly contagious and causes intense itching

A

Sarcoptic Mange (Scabies)

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23
Q

mite that lives deep in the skin, not contagious

A

Demodectic Mange (Demodex)

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24
Q

infestation by mite larvae that result in severe pruritis

A

Chiggers

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25
Q

: wingless parasitic insect, plural is lice

A

Louse

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26
Q

insect larvae especially found in dead or decaying tissue

A

Maggots

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27
Q

accidental cut into the skin

A

Laceration

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28
Q

benign growth of fat cells; also called fatty tumor

A

Lipoma

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29
Q

change of tissue, used to describe abnormalities

A

Lesion

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30
Q

benign skin growth that is lobed

A

Papilloma

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31
Q

itching

A

Pruritis

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32
Q

small, pus-filled skin elevation

A

Pustule

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33
Q

skin disease containing pus

A

Pyoderma

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34
Q

closed sac of yellow, fatty material

A

Sebaceous cyst

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35
Q

skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum (oil)

A

Seborrhea

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36
Q

small growths that hang from the body by stalks

A

Skin tag

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37
Q

destruction of tissue using electric current, heat, or chemicals

A

Cauterization

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38
Q

removal of tissue and foreign material to aid healing

A

Debridement

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39
Q

ID

A

Intradermal

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40
Q

SQ

A

Subcutaneous

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41
Q

FAD

A

Flea Allergic Dermatitis

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42
Q

composed of ductless glands that secrete chemical messengers called hormones into the bloodstream

A

endocrine system

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43
Q

enter the bloodstream and are carried throughout the body to affect a variety of tissues and organs

A

Hormones

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44
Q

the master gland attached to the base of the brain that has control over other endocrine glands

A

pituitary gland

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45
Q

Regulates metabolism and iodine uptake

A

thyroid

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46
Q

regulates electrolytes, metabolism, sexual functions, and the body’s response to injury

A

adrenal gland

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47
Q

maintains blood glucose levels

A

pancreas

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48
Q

hormone that transports blood glucose into cells or storage

A

Insulin

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49
Q

glands that produce gametes (sex cells)

A

gonads

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50
Q

The ovaries secrete_____________ & ___________

A

estrogen, progesterone

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51
Q

The testes secrete ____________

A

testosterone

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52
Q

disorder caused by deficient adrenal cortex function

A

Addison’s Disease (hypoadrenocorticism)

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53
Q

disorder caused by excessive adrenal cortex production

A

Cushing’s Disease (hyperadrenocorticism)

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54
Q

insufficient antidiuretic hormone production

A

Diabetes insipidus

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55
Q

metabolic disorder of inadequate secretion of insulin resulting in increased drinking, urination, and weight loss

A

Diabetes mellitus

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56
Q

high blood glucose

A

Hyperglycemia

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57
Q

low blood glucose

A

Hypoglycemia

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58
Q

condition of excess thyroid hormone

A

Hyperthyroidism

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59
Q

condition of thyroid hormone deficiency

A

Hypothyroidism

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60
Q

ACTH

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone

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61
Q

ADH

A

Antidiuretic hormone

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62
Q

TSH

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

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63
Q

T3 and T4

A

Thyroid hormones commonly tested

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64
Q

The reproductive organs are called

A

genitals

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65
Q

or scrotal sac is the external pouch that encloses andsupports the testes

A

scrotum

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66
Q

the male sex glands that produce sperm

A

testicles

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67
Q

a singular tube passing through the penis to the outside of the body that serves both reproductive and urinary systems

A

urethra

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68
Q

retractable fold of skin covering the penis

A

Prepuce

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69
Q

_________ have an os penis

A

Dogs

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70
Q

produce estrogen, progesterone, and ova (eggs)

A

ovaries

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71
Q

a thick-walled, hollow organ with muscular walls and a mucous membrane lining

A

uterus

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72
Q

prevents foreign substances from entering the uterus

A

cervix

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73
Q

the external genitalia

A

vulva

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74
Q

milk-producing glands in females

A

mammary glands

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75
Q

cycles repeat at the end of previous cycle

A

Polyestrus

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76
Q

cycles only once with a long break in between

A

Monoestrus

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77
Q

_________ are seasonal polyestrus

A

Cats

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78
Q

_________ are nonseasonal monoestrus

A

Dogs

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79
Q

the female organ of mammals that develops during pregnancy and joins mother and offspring for exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products

A

placenta

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80
Q

the structure that forms where the fetus communicates with the placenta

A

umbilical cord

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81
Q

the period of development of the fetus in the uterus from conception to birth and is the term more commonly used in animals

A

Gestation

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82
Q

The newborn is called a __________

A

neonate

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83
Q

The first stool of a newborn that consists of material collected in the intestine of the fetus

A

meconium

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84
Q

a thick fluid containing nutrients and antibodies needed by the neonate the mammary glands of the mother secrete

A

colostrum

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85
Q

the process of forming and secreting milk

A

Lactation

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86
Q

developmental defect in which one or both testicles fails to descend

A

Cryptorchidism

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87
Q

difficult birth

A

Dystocia

88
Q

inflammation of the mammary gland

A

Mastitis

89
Q

pus in the uterus

A

Pyometra

90
Q

sexually altering of males

A

Neuter

91
Q

an animal that is not neutered

A

Intact

92
Q

surgical removal of the ovaries, uterus, and uterine tubes; also called a spay

A

Ovariohysterectomy (OHE)

93
Q

AI

A

Artificial Insemination

94
Q

OHE

A

Ovariohysterectomy

95
Q

detects and processes internal and external information and formulates appropriate responses

A

nervous system

96
Q

The basic unit of the nervous system

A

neuron

97
Q

protective covering over some nerve cells including parts of the spinal cord

A

Myelin

98
Q

made up of the brain and spinal cord

A

central nervous system

99
Q

carries the tracts that influence the limbs and lower part of the body and is the pathway for impulses going to and from the brain

A

spinal cord

100
Q

housed within vertebrae to protect it from injury

A

spinal cord

101
Q

record of the spinal cord after injection of contrast material

A

Myelogram

102
Q

response of pupil to bright light; used to assess neurological damage

A

Pupillary light reflex (PLR)

103
Q

bright, alert, and responsive

A

BAR

104
Q

deep state of unconsciousness

A

Coma

105
Q

awake, aware

A

Conscious or alert

106
Q

animal appears mentally confused

A

Disorientation

107
Q

drowsiness

A

Lethargy

108
Q

impaired consciousness

A

Stupor

109
Q

without coordination, “stumbling”

A

Ataxia

110
Q

inflammation of the brain

A

Encephalitis

111
Q

instability or abnormal formation of the spinal cord at the base of the neck; causes ataxia

A

Wobbler’s Syndrome

112
Q

neurologic defect in which the animal appears to not know where its limbs are

A

Conscious proprioceptive deficit (CP) deficit

113
Q

collection of signs relating to injury of the nerve to the eye

A

Horner’s syndrome

114
Q

most common type of seizure; animal experiences loss of consciousness and muscle contractions

A

Grand mal

115
Q

period before a seizure

A

Pre-ictal

116
Q

the attack or actual seizure

A

Ictus

117
Q

the period after a seizure

A

Postictal

118
Q

fainting

A

Syncope

119
Q

neurologic disorder characterized by head tilt, circling, and falling

A

Vestibular disease

120
Q

involuntary, rhythmic movement of the eye

A

Nystagmus

121
Q

without pain

A

Analgesia

122
Q

absence of sensation

A

Anesthesia

123
Q

BAR

A

Bright, alert, and responsive

124
Q

CNS

A

Central Nervous System

125
Q

MRI

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

126
Q

outer layer that maintains the shape of the eye

A

sclera

127
Q

The transparent, anterior portion of the eye provides most of the focusing power of the eye

A

cornea

128
Q

inner layer of the eye

A

retina

129
Q

diagnostic test to detect corneal injury by placing dye onto the surface of the cornea

A

Fluorescein stain

130
Q

diagnostic test in which the eye should blink in response to touch

A

Palpebral reflex

131
Q

diagnostic test using graded paper strip to measure tear production

A

Schirmer tear test

132
Q

procedure using an instrument to indirectly measure intraocular pressure

A

Tonometry

133
Q

cloudiness or opacity of the lens

A

Cataract

134
Q

inflammation of the conjunctiva

A

Conjunctivitis

135
Q

mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid

A

Conjunctiva

136
Q

a double row of eyelashes

A

Distichia

137
Q

group of disorders resulting from elevated intraocular pressure

A

Glaucoma

138
Q

prolapse of gland of third eyelid in dogs

A

Cherry eye

139
Q

turning outward of the eyelid

A

Ectropion

140
Q

turning inward of the eyelid

A

Entropion

141
Q

inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva

A

Keratoconjunctivitis “dry eye”

142
Q

drying out of the lens with age

A

Nuclear sclerosis

143
Q

removal of the eyeball

A

Enucleation

144
Q

external portion of ear that catches sound waves and transmits sound waves

A

Pinna

145
Q

“Eardrum”;Tissue that separates the external ear from the middle ear

A

Tympanic membrane

146
Q

part of ear that contains sensory receptors for hearing and balance

A

inner ear

147
Q

procedure used to examine the ear for parasites, irritation, discharge, and the eardrum

A

Otoscopy

148
Q

the instrument used for otoscopy

A

Otoscope

149
Q

collection or mass of blood on the outer ear

A

Aural hematoma

150
Q

inflammation of the ear

A

Otitis

151
Q

inflammation of the outer ear

A

Otitis externa

152
Q

inflammation of the middle ear

A

Otitis media

153
Q

inflammation of the inner ear

A

Otitis interna

154
Q

removal of a part of the ear

A

Ablation

155
Q

AD

A

right ear

156
Q

AS

A

left ear

157
Q

AU

A

both ears

158
Q

OD

A

right eye

159
Q

OS

A

left eye

160
Q

OU

A

both eyes

161
Q

parameters taken from the animal to assess its health

A

Vital signs

162
Q

the medical term for fever

A

Febrile; Pyrexia

163
Q

means without a fever

A

Afebrile

164
Q

instrument used to enlarge the opening of a canal or cavity

A

Speculum

165
Q

instrument used to measure the concentration of serum, urine, and other body fluids

A

Refractometer

166
Q

a machine that spins samples very rapidly to separate elements

A

Centrifuge

167
Q

ratio of diseased animals to well animals in a population

A

Morbidity

168
Q

ratio of diseased animals that die to diseased animals

A

Mortality

169
Q

means prevention

A

Prophylaxis

170
Q

disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans

A

Zoonosis

171
Q

the determined cause of the disease

A

Diagnosis

172
Q

the prediction of the outcome of disease

A

Prognosis

173
Q

a characteristic of disease that can be observed by others

A

Sign

174
Q

characteristic of disease that can be sensed only by the patient

A

Symptom

175
Q

set of signs that occur together

A

Syndrome

176
Q

ongoing presence of disease in a group

A

Endemic

177
Q

the sudden and widespread outbreak of disease in a group

A

Epidemic

178
Q

occurring over a large geographic area

A

Pandemic

179
Q

visual examination of the interior of any cavity of the body by means of an endoscope

A

Endoscopy

180
Q

pairs of pouches that store an oily, foul-smelling fluid secreted by the anal glands

A

Anal sacs

181
Q

secretory tissues that are stored in the anal sacs

A

Anal glands

182
Q

large, shearing cheek tooth

A

Carnassial tooth

183
Q

physical makeup of an animal

A

Constitution

184
Q

ingestion of feces

A

Coprophagia

185
Q

device placed around neck and head of dogs to prevent them from traumatizing an area

A

Elizabethan collar

186
Q

more than the normal amount of digits

A

Polydactyly

187
Q

color of nose (mask), ears, tail, and feet of an animal

A

Points

188
Q

tame and easygoing

A

Docile

189
Q

describes behavior that is more lethargic than normal

A

Dull

190
Q

wild, not domesticated

A

Feral

191
Q

the way an animal moves

A

Gait

192
Q

white paws

A

Gloves

193
Q

shine

A

Luster

194
Q

excessive fat accumulation in the body

A

Obesity

195
Q

isolation of animals to determine whether they have or carry a disease

A

Quarantine

196
Q

Upper respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella bronchiseptica that produces a severe hacking cough; also called kennel cough

A

Bordetella

197
Q

Adenovirus infection in canines that causes signs of upper respiratory disease; abbreviated CAV-2

A

Hepatitis/Canine adenovirus 2

198
Q

Highly contagious paramyxovirus infection in canines that is associated with respiratory, digestive, muscular, and neurologic signs, abbreviated CDV

A

Canine distemper

199
Q

infection in canines that primarily affects newborn puppies and is associated with listlessness, nasal discharge, rash, neurologic signs, and death; abbreviated CHV

A

Canine herpesvirus

200
Q

Paramyxovirus infection of canines that contribute to upper respiratory infections ans causes bronchitis

A

Canine parainfluenza

201
Q

Highly contagious parvoviral infection in canines that is associated with severe diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration

A

Canine parvovirus

202
Q

Infection in felines that is associated with upper respiratory and ocular infections

A

Feline calicivirus

203
Q

Bacterial infection in felines that is associated with upper respiratory infections and ocular infections

A

Feline chlamydia

204
Q

Infection in felines that initially presents with fever that over a long period of time progresses to a wider range of clinical signs such as anemia, lethargy, weight loss, and secondary infections, abbreviated FIV

A

Feline immunodeficiency virus

205
Q

Feline retrovirus that may produce elevated levels of abnormal leukocytes, immune suppression, cancer, and illness associated with immune suppression; abbreviated FeLV

A

Feline leukemia

206
Q

Parvovirus infection of felines that is associated with fever, vomiting, diarrhea, and a decrease in all types of white blood cells; abbreviated FPV; commonly called feline distemper

A

Feline panleukopenia

207
Q

Herpesvirus infection in felines that is associated with upper respiratory and ocular infections

A

Feline rhinotracheitis

208
Q

Bacterial disease; signs include renal failure, jaundice, fever, and abortion

A

Leptospirosis

209
Q

Bacterial disease caused by a tick; associated with fever, anorexia, joint disorders, and occasionally neurologic signs

A

Lyme disease

210
Q

Fatal zoonotic infection of all warm blooded animals that causes neurologic signs; transmitted by a bite or infection of body fluid; abbreviated RV; is required by public health agencies for licensure of dogs

A

Rabies

211
Q

group that regulates what can go on pet food labels

A

AAFCO

212
Q

AAFCO doesn’t regulate___________ or ___________

A

brochures; commercials

213
Q

To say beef, chicken, or lamb food must have ___%

A

95

214
Q

to say dinner, formula, entree, platter, or stew, food must have ___% of ingredient following it

A

25

215
Q

to say with, food must have ___% ingredient after

A

3

216
Q

to say flavor, food must have ___________ of flavor

A

a trace

Intro to Vet Tech (3 decks)

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