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Intro to Vet Tech > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

0
Q

bitch-

A

intact female dog

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1
Q

dog/stud-

A

intact male dog

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2
Q

whelp-

A

pup; young dog

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3
Q

whelping-

A

giving birth to whelps

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4
Q

pack-

A

group of dogs

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5
Q

litter-

A

multiple off spring born during same labor

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6
Q

feline-

A

cats

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7
Q

tom-

A

intact male cat/turkey

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8
Q

queen-

A

intact female cat

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9
Q

kitten-

A

young cat

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10
Q

queening-

A

giving birth to kittens

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11
Q

lagomorph-

A

rabbits

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12
Q

buck-

A

intact male rabbit

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13
Q

doe-

A

intact female rabbit

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14
Q

kit-

A

young rabbit/ferret

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15
Q

hob-

A

intact male ferret

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16
Q

jill-

A

intact female ferret

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17
Q

gib-

A

neutered male ferret

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18
Q

sprite-

A

spayed female ferret

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19
Q

psittacine-

A

parrots

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20
Q

cock-

A

intact male parrot

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21
Q

hen-

A

intact female parrot

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22
Q

chick-

A

young parrot/chicken

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23
Q

murine-

A

mice and rats

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24
Q

pup-

A

young mouse or rat

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25
Q

clutch-

A

group of eggs

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26
Q

rooster-

A

sexually mature male chicken (AKA: cock)

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27
Q

hen-

A

intact female chicken

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28
Q

pullet-

A

immature female chicken

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29
Q

poult-

A

young turkey/chicken

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30
Q

anserine-

A

geese/ducks

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31
Q

gander-

A

intact male goose

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32
Q

goose-

A

intact female goose

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33
Q

gosling-

A

young goose

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34
Q

drake-

A

intact male duck

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35
Q

duck-

A

intact female duck

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36
Q

duckling-

A

young duck

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37
Q

porcine-

A

pigs/swine

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38
Q

boar-

A

intact male pig

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39
Q

sow-

A

intact female pig

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40
Q

barrow-

A

male pig castrated when young

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41
Q

farrowing-

A

giving birth to pigs

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42
Q

equine-

A

horse/ponies/donkeys/mules

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43
Q

stalion-

A

intact male equine (4 y.o.)

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44
Q

colt-

A

intact male equine (4 y.o.)

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45
Q

filly-

A

intact female equine (4 y.o.)

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46
Q

gelding-

A

castrated male equine

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47
Q

mare-

A

intact female equine (4 y.o.)

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48
Q

foal-

A

young equine (male/female)

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49
Q

weanling-

A

young equine (1 y.o.)

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50
Q

yearling-

A

young equine between 1 and 2 y.o.

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51
Q

foaling-

A

giving birth to equine

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52
Q

pony-

A

equine between 8.2 ad 14.2 hands when mature (not young)

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53
Q

burro-

A

donkey

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54
Q

jack-

A

intact male donkey

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55
Q

jenny-

A

intact female donkey

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56
Q

ovine-

A

sheep

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57
Q

ram-

A

intact male doney

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58
Q

ewe-

A

intact female sheep

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59
Q

wether-

A

castrated male sheep

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60
Q

lamb-

A

young sheep

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61
Q

caprine-

A

goats

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62
Q

buck-

A

intact male goat

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63
Q

doe-

A

intact female goat

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64
Q

kid-

A

young goat

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65
Q

kidding-

A

giving birth to goats

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66
Q

camelid-

A

llamas/alpacas/guanocos

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67
Q

cria-

A

young llama

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68
Q

cavy-

A

guinea pigs

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69
Q

boar-

A

intact male guinea pig

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70
Q

sow-

A

intact female guinea pig

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71
Q

bovine-

A

cattle

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72
Q

bull-

A

intact male bovine

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73
Q

cow-

A

intact female bovine that has given birth

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74
Q

steer-

A

male bovine castrated when young

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75
Q

heifer-

A

young female bovine that has not given birth

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76
Q

calf-

A

young bovine

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77
Q

calving-

A

giving birth to cattle

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78
Q

freshening-

A

giving birth to dairy animals

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79
Q

springing heifer-

A

young female pregnant with first calf

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80
Q

definition of human-animal bond

A

a mutually beneficial and dynamic relationship between people and other animals that is influenced by behaviors that are essential to the well being of both

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81
Q

The Veterinary Professional’s Role in euthanasia

A
  • Preparing the Client
  • Preparation can begin early in the pet’s life
  • Personal beliefs
  • The difficult task of timing
  • Explain the procedure
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82
Q

__________ is critical to a smooth euthanasia when the owners are present

A

Communication

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83
Q

Definition of Euthanasia

A

provide the animal with a quick and painless death, with minimal stress and anxiety

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84
Q

Death in Euthanasia is produced by

A
  • Hypoxia

- Disruption of brain activity

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85
Q

Inhalation Euthanasia

A
  • Completed with an enclosed chamber or induction mask used to deliver Inhalation anesthetics
  • induces a state of unconsciousness and a second method is used to cause death
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86
Q

Intravenous injection Euthanasia

A

Most rapid and reliable, and a very desirable method for performing euthanasia; takes 3-5 minutes for death to occur

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87
Q

Intracardiac Injection Euthanasia

A
  • Over dose of an anesthetic agent injected into the thoracic cavity
  • Most painful method if not administered correctly
  • Takes 3-5 seconds for death to occur
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88
Q

Captive Bolt, Gunshot Euthanasia

A
  • Placement is between the eyes

- Used on large animals

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89
Q

Electrocution/Stunning Euthanasia

A
  • Use of electricity to render the animal unconscious

- Used on large animals

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90
Q

Exsanguination Euthanasia

A
  • Release of blood from the entire body, caused by cutting the jugular vein
  • Used on large animals
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91
Q

Cervical dislocation Euthanasia

A
  • Separation of the axis and atlas
  • Animal is usually rendered unconscious by inhalation before separation
  • Used on small birds, immature rats and rabbits, and mice
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92
Q

Pithing Euthanasia

A
  • Injection of a sharp object into the brain stem
  • Not commonly used
  • Used on frogs
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93
Q

Decapitation Euthanasia

A
  • Removal of the head with a guillotine

- Used for tissue on immature rats, mice, and rabbits

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94
Q

Verification of death methods:

A
  • Check for eye reflex
  • Vitals:Pulse,Respiration
  • Cardiac stand still
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95
Q

Disposal of Euthanized

A

cremation, burial

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96
Q

Stages of Grief:

A
  • Denial
  • Bargaining
  • Anger
  • Guilt
  • Sorrow
  • Resolution
  • Loneliness
  • Replacement
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97
Q

Behavioral Problems seen in Dogs

A
  • Jumping
  • Obsessive behavior
  • Aggression
  • Separation anxiety
  • Fear, nervousness
  • Excessive barking
  • Excitability
  • House soiling, marking
  • Spinning/tail chasing
  • Fear of thunder
  • Chewing
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98
Q

Behavioral Problems seen in Cats

A
  • Fear
  • Aggression
  • Repetitive behavior
  • Spraying/elimination problems
  • Destructive behavior
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99
Q

Behavioral problems seen in birds

A
  • Screaming
  • Aggression
  • Feather plucking
  • Self-mutilation
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100
Q

What is behavior and where does it come from

A
  • For any behavior to occur there must be a stimulus, some external or internal change that exceeds a threshold, causing stimulation of the nervous and/or endocrine systems
  • This stimulation requires chemical messengers in the animal’s body
  • Some problem behaviors are due to increased or decreased amounts of chemicals
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101
Q

Animal behaviors result from a combination of _______ _________ and what the animal learns as it develops

A

genetic inheritance

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102
Q

Diseases also play a role in animal behavior problems, such as ____________ in dogs, __________ in cats, and _____________ ______________ in older animals

A

hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, cognitive dysfunction

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103
Q

Basic Learning Theory

A
  • Positive reinforcement
  • Rewarding stimulus immediately following a “good behavior”
  • Must occur within 3-5 seconds
  • Clicker Training
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104
Q

Negative reinforcement

A
  • Often confused with punishment

- Traditional dog training method: Pulling up on a leash, Sitting

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105
Q

Punishment

A
  • Most overused and misused behavior modification
  • Punishment “after the fact” is not effective
  • Can only teach an animal what not to do; cannot teach appropriate behavior
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106
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

-Process of exposing animal to a stimuli
that causes a problem
-Provokes: Anxiety/fear, Dominance aggression

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107
Q

_________ is the most common problem for which owners seek guidance

A

Aggression

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108
Q

Separation anxiety

A

animal becomes anxious and distressed when separated from owner

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109
Q

D.A.P. (Dog Appeasing Pheromone)

A

Electric diffuser helps calm and reassure your dog. Stops or prevents fear and stress in puppies and adult dogs

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110
Q

Obsessive Compulsive Disorders (OCD)

A

Normal behavior for the species, that is repetitive or constant, even to the point of being damaging to the animal

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111
Q

examples of OCD

A

Lick Granuloma, Flank or Tail Sucking, Tail Chasing, Shadow Chasing, Fly Snapping

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112
Q

Cognitive Dysfunction

A

A clinical state seen in older pets where their cognitive function declines

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113
Q

Causes of House soiling:

A

Territorial marking, Not house broken

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114
Q

_______ is the most important and first behaviors that young pets are expected to learn

A

Housetraining

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115
Q

____________ requires that the dog be taken out frequently, especially when it wakes up, after it eats, and whenever it appears to be sniffing around the house

A

Housebreaking

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116
Q

The puppy or dog’s confinement must not exceed the time the animal can control…

A

its bladder and bowels

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117
Q

Cats can be readily trained to use a _______

A

litter box

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118
Q

The litter box should offer some ______

A

privacy

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119
Q

Cats may avoid litter that is consistently _____, _____. or ______.

A

dirty, too deep, or scented

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120
Q

Common behavior problems in the Cat

A

House soiling, Spraying, Aggression

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121
Q

Aggression is behavior that is

A

intended to harm another individual

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122
Q

1 public health concern in children

A

Aggression

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123
Q

_____ ________ animals are typically fearful of people or may attach strongly to one or two individuals but are unable to generalize this acceptance to unfamiliar individuals

A

Poorly socialized

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124
Q

The digestive system is referred to as the:

A
  • digestive system (or tract)
  • alimentary system
  • GI system (or tract)
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125
Q

The digestive system is basically a long, muscular tube that begins at the _____ and ends at the ______

A

mouth, anus

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126
Q

Functions of the digestive system: (3)

A
  • intake and digestion of food and water
  • absorption of nutrients
  • elimination of solid wastes
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127
Q

Boundaries of the mouth are the ____ and _____

A

maxilla, mandible

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128
Q

forms the roof of the mouth

A

palate

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129
Q

movable muscular organ

A

Tongue

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130
Q

gloss/o and lingu/o

A

Tongue

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131
Q

front, cutting tooth

A

Incisor

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132
Q

long, pointed bonelike tooth for grasping and tearing

A

Canine

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133
Q

cheek tooth that grinds food

A

Premolar

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134
Q

caudal cheek tooth that grinds food

A

Molar

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135
Q

abnormal mineralized deposit that forms on teeth; AKA: tartar

A

Dental Calculus

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136
Q

inflammation of the tissue surrounding and supporting the teeth

A

Periodontitis or Periodontal disease

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137
Q

surgical removal of a tooth

A

Extraction

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138
Q

the mucous membrane that surrounds the teeth

A

Gingiva

139
Q

inflammation of the gums

A

Gingivitis

140
Q

groups of cells that secrete saliva

A

Salivary glands

141
Q

sialaden/o and sial/o

A

Salivary glands

142
Q

the cavity in the caudal oral cavity that joins the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems; AKA: throat

A

pharynx

143
Q

a collapsible, muscular tube that leads from the oral cavity to the stomach; AKA: gullet

A

esophagus

144
Q

abnormally large esophagus

A

Megaesophagus

145
Q

Also known as the peritoneal or abdominal cavity

A

abdomen

146
Q

the membrane lining that covers the abdominal and pelvic cavity and some of the organs in this area

A

peritoneum

147
Q

a saclike organ that aides in digestion of food

A

stomach

148
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach

149
Q

inflammation of the stomach

A

Gastritis

150
Q

inflammation of the stomach and the small intestine

A

Gastroenteritis

151
Q

animals have one true, glandular stomach

A

Monogastric

152
Q

have one true, glandular stomach plus three forestomachs

A

Ruminants

153
Q

largest part of ruminant stomach that serves as a fermentation vat

A

Rumen

154
Q

most cranial portion of the ruminant stomach

A

Reticulum

155
Q

third part of the ruminant stomach that squeezes fluid out of the food bolus

A

Omasum

156
Q

fourth part of the ruminant stomach that is the true glandular stomach

A

Abomasum

157
Q

Small intestine extends from the ________ to the _______________ _______________

A

pylorus, large intestine

158
Q

Enter/o

A

small intestine

159
Q

inflammation of the small intestine

A

Enteritis

160
Q

proximal part of the small intestine

A

duodenum

161
Q

middle part of the small intestine

A

jejunum

162
Q

distal part of the small intestine

A

ileum

163
Q

Four segments of the large intestine:

A

Cecum, Colon, Rectum, Anus

164
Q

inflammation of the colon

A

Colitis

165
Q

abnormally large colon

A

Megacolon

166
Q

located caudal to the diaphragm

A

Liver

167
Q

hepat/o

A

Liver

168
Q

degenerative disease that affects the structure and function of the liver

A

Cirrhosis

169
Q

Inflammation of the liver

A

Hepatitis

170
Q

located on the undersurface of the liver; stores bile

A

Gallbladder

171
Q

inflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

172
Q

organ that secretes digestive enzymes and hormones

A

Pancreas

173
Q

metabolic disease in which the pancreas does not secrete adequate amounts of digestive enzymes

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)

174
Q

inflammation of the pancreas

A

Pancreatitis

175
Q

the process of breaking down foods into nutrients that the body can use

A

Digestion

176
Q

the processes involved in the body’s use of nutrients

A

Metabolism

177
Q

the process of taking digested nutrients into the circulatory system; AKA: assimilation

A

Absorption

178
Q

Absorption occurs in the ________ ________

A

small intestine

179
Q

contrast material used for radiographic studies

A

Barium

180
Q

introduction of fluid into the rectum

A

Enema

181
Q

removal of tissue to examine

A

Biopsy

182
Q

_______ ________ can be used to detect some diseases of the GI tract

A

Blood tests

183
Q

visual examination of the interior of any cavity of the body

A

Endoscopy

184
Q

can be used to detect parasitic diseases of animals

A

Fecal examinations

185
Q

imaging of internal body structures by recording echoes of sound waves

A

Ultrasound

186
Q

lack or loss of appetite

A

Anorexia

187
Q

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen

A

Ascites

188
Q

severe abdominal pain

A

Colic

189
Q

condition of prolonged GI transit time, making the stool hard, dry, and difficult to pass

A

Constipation

190
Q

ingestion of fecal material

A

Coprophagia

191
Q

condition of excessive loss of body water or fluid

A

Dehydration

192
Q

abnormal frequency and liquidity of fecal material

A

Diarrhea

193
Q

disease of ruminants in which the 4th stomach becomes trapped under the rumen

A

Displaced abomasum (DA)

194
Q

marked wasting or excessive lameness

A

Emaciation

195
Q

forcible vomiting

A

Emesis

196
Q

condition usually seen in deep chested dogs in which the stomach fills with air and expands

A

Gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV)

197
Q

elevated blood glucose

A

Hyperglycemia

198
Q

low blood glucose

A

Hypoglycemia

199
Q

stoppage of intestinal movement

A

Ileus

200
Q

obstruction of an area, usually when the feed is too dry

A

Impaction

201
Q

protrusion of bowel through the inguinal canal; protrusion seen in the groin

A

Inguinal hernia

202
Q

telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part

A

Intussusception

203
Q

yellow discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated bilirubin levels; AKA: icterus

A

Jaundice

204
Q

condition of drowsiness

A

Lethargy

205
Q

impaired uptake of nutrients from the intestine

A

Malabsorption

206
Q

black tarry stools containing digested blood

A

Melena

207
Q

stomach upset or sensation of the urge to vomit

A

Nausea

208
Q

complete stoppage or impairment to passage

A

Intestinal Obstruction

209
Q

small growth on the mucous membrane

A

Polyp

210
Q

protrusion of viscera (organ)

A

Prolapse

211
Q

inflammation of the mouth

A

Stomatitis

212
Q

erosion of tissue

A

Ulcer

213
Q

surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen

A

Abdominocentesis

214
Q

substance that prevents frequent and liquid stool

A

Antidiarrheal

215
Q

rounded mass of food or large pharmaceutical preparation or to give something rapidly

A

Bolus

216
Q

produces vomiting

A

Emetic

217
Q

prevents vomiting

A

Antiemetic

218
Q

abnormal passage from an internal organ to the body surface or between two internal organs

A

Fistula

219
Q

surgical incision into the abdomen

A

Laparotomy

220
Q

placement of a tube through the nose into the stomach

A

Nasogastric intubation

221
Q

passage of a tube from the mouth to the stomach

A

Orogastric intubation

222
Q

_________ system removes wastes from the body

A

urinary

223
Q

system that maintains homeostasis or a constant internal environment within the body

A

urinary

224
Q

waste product filtered by the kidney

A

Urea

225
Q

Urin/o and ur/o

A

urinary system

226
Q

Urine is formed in the ______

A

kidneys

227
Q

inflammation of the kidneys

A

Nephritis

228
Q

a pair of narrow tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder

A

Ureters

229
Q

Ureter/o

A

ureter

230
Q

a singular hollow muscular organ that holds urine

A

urinary bladder

231
Q

Cyst/o

A

urinary bladder

232
Q

a tube extending from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body

A

urethra

233
Q

Urethr/o

A

urethra

234
Q

The process of urine production

A

uropoiesis

235
Q

-poiesis

A

formation

236
Q

means cloudy

A

Turbid

237
Q

the surgical puncture of the urinary bladder, usually to collect urine. A cystocentesis is performed with a needle and syringe

A

Cystocentesis

238
Q

examination of urine components; abbreviated UA

A

Urinalysis

239
Q

insertion of a tube through the urethra and into the urinary bladder.

A

Urinary catheterization

240
Q

the hollow tube that is inserted into a body cavity to inject or remove fluid.

A

catheter

241
Q

abnormal mineral deposit

A

Calculus

242
Q

fibrous or protein materials found in the urine with renal disease or other abnormalities

A

Casts

243
Q

naturally produced angular solid of definitive form

A

Crystals

244
Q

inflammation of the urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

245
Q

most common cause of cystitis in cats

A

Feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)

246
Q

eliminating urine at the wrong time or in the wrong place

A

Inappropriate urination

247
Q

inability to control urine.

A

Incontinence

248
Q

inability of the kidneys to function

A

Renal failure

249
Q

is the sudden onset of the inability of the kidneys to function

A

Acute

250
Q

the progressive onset of the inability of the kidneys to function

A

Chronic

251
Q

increased urine production

A

Polyuria

252
Q

increased thirst

A

Polydipsia

253
Q

elevated excretion of urine

A

Diuresis

254
Q

drugs that increase urine production

A

Diuretics

255
Q

waste products in the blood. Uremia is seen with many types of kidney disease

A

Uremia

256
Q

inability to completely empty the urinary bladder

A

Urinary retention

257
Q

invasion of microorganisms into the urinary system; abbreviated UTI

A

Urinary tract infection

258
Q

urinary bladder stone

A

Urolith

259
Q

surgical incision into the urinary bladder

A

Cystotomy

260
Q

surgical removal of a kidney

A

Nephrectomy

261
Q

the surgical creation of a permanent opening between the urethra and the skin between the anus and scrotum

A

Perineal urethrostomy (PU)

262
Q

pertaining to the heart and blood vessels

A

Cardiovascular

263
Q

The heart is located inside the ________ or _______ _________

A

thoracic, chest cavity

264
Q

a double-walled membrane that surrounds the heart

A

pericardium

265
Q

Peri-

A

around

266
Q

The upper chambers of the heart are known as _______

A

atria

267
Q

The lower chambers of the heart are known as ________

A

ventricles

268
Q

a membranous fold in the heart

A

valve

269
Q

valv/o and valvul/o

A

valve

270
Q

The rate and regularity of the heart rhythm

A

heartbeat

271
Q

volume of blood pumped by the heart per unit time

A

Cardiac output

272
Q

abnormal heart rhythm (also known as dysrhythmia)

A

Arrhythmia

273
Q

abnormally slow heartbeat

A

Bradycardia

274
Q

abnormally fast heartbeat

A

Tachycardia

275
Q

(ECG or EKG) is the record of the electrical activity of the myocardium

A

Electrocardiogram

276
Q

is listening to body sounds with a stethoscope

A

Auscultation

277
Q

abnormal sound associated with turbulent blood flow

A

murmur

278
Q

are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart

A

Arteries

279
Q

angi/o and vas/o

A

vessel

280
Q

single-cell thick vessels that connect the arterial and venous systems

A

Capillaries

281
Q

blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart

A

Veins

282
Q

drawing blood from a vein using a needle and syringe

A

Venipuncture

283
Q

the tension exerted by blood on the arterial walls

A

Blood pressure

284
Q

the rhythmic expansion and contraction of an artery produced by pressure

A

pulse

285
Q

evaluating heart structures using sound waves

A

Echocardiography

286
Q

constricting band applied to a limb to control bleeding or to assist in drawing blood.

A

Tourniquet

287
Q

heart enlargement

A

Cardiomegaly

288
Q

disease of heart muscle

A

Cardiomyopathy

289
Q

insufficient cardiac output to meet the body’s needs; abbreviated CHF

A

Congestive heart failure

290
Q

accumulation of fluid in heart

A

Congestion

291
Q

accumulation of fluid in intercellular spaces in heart

A

Edema

292
Q

substances that increase urine excretion

A

Diuretics

293
Q

heartworm infection found in dogs, cats, and ferrets

A

Dirofilariasis

294
Q

larvae

A

Microfilariae

295
Q

obstruction of blood flow caused by heavy heartworm infestation

A

Caval syndrome

296
Q

prevention

A

Prophylaxis

297
Q

inflammation of the heart

A

Endocarditis

298
Q

below-normal levels of oxygen

A

Hypoxia

299
Q

inadequate tissue perfusion that can occur after cardiac arrest or cessation of heartbeat.

A

Shock

300
Q

treatment of shock, which may include fluid administration, cardiac massage, and artificial respiration

A

Resuscitation

301
Q

use of electrical shock to restore the normal heart rhythm

A

Defibrillation

302
Q

introduction of whole blood or blood components into the bloodstream of the recipient

A

Transfusion

303
Q

blood flow through tissues

A

Perfusion

304
Q

the body system that brings oxygen from the air into the body for delivery via the blood to the cells

A

respiratory system

305
Q

the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the atmosphere and the body cells

A

Respiration

306
Q

Air enters and exits the body through the _____

A

nose

307
Q

nas/o and rhin/o

A

nose

308
Q

the area from the back of the nasal cavity and mouth to the larynx; AKA: throat

A

pharynx

309
Q

the area between the pharynx and the trachea; AKA: voice box

A

larynx

310
Q

extends from the neck to the chest and passes air from the larynx to the thoracic cavity

A

trachea

311
Q

The trachea divides into two branches to form ___________

A

bronchi

312
Q

main organ of respiration

A

lung

313
Q

the inhalation and exhalation of air

A

Breathing

314
Q

the drawing in of a breath

A

Inspiration

315
Q

the release of a breath

A

Expiration

316
Q

absence of breathing

A

Apnea

317
Q

difficult or labored breathing

A

Dyspnea

318
Q

respirations near death or extreme suffering

A

Agonal breathing

319
Q

inadequate supply of oxygen to tissue

A

Hypoxia

320
Q

act of listening

A

Auscultation

321
Q

number of respirations per minute

A

Respiratory rate

322
Q

instrument used to visually examine the voice box

A

Laryngoscope

323
Q

thick mucous

A

Phlegm

324
Q

puncture of chest with a needle to obtain fluid

A

Thoracocentesis

325
Q

sterile collection of fluid from the trachea via a catheter

A

Transtracheal wash

326
Q

inhalation of a foreign substance into the upper respiratory system

A

Aspiration

327
Q

chronic allergic disorder

A

Asthma

328
Q

inflammation of the bronchi; can be acute or chronic

A

Bronchitis

329
Q

abnormal condition of blue discoloration

A

Cyanosis

330
Q

localized protective response to destroy, dilute, or wall off injury

A

Inflammation

331
Q

inflammation of the voice box

A

Laryngitis

332
Q

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

A

Pleural effusion

333
Q

abnormal condition of the lung that usually involves inflammation and congestion

A

Pneumonia

334
Q

abnormal accumulation of air or gas in the chest cavity

A

Pneumothorax

335
Q

accumulation of fluid in the lung tissue

A

Pulmonary edema

336
Q

inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes

A

Rhinitis

337
Q

inflammation of a sinus

A

Sinusitis

338
Q

common term for upper respiratory disease of rabbits

A

Snuffles

339
Q

inflammation of the wind pipe or trachea

A

Tracheitis

340
Q

invasion of nose, mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, larynx, or trachea by pathogenic organisms

A

Upper respiratory infection (URI)

341
Q

a sudden noisy expulsion of air from the lungs

A

Cough

342
Q

hollow device inserted into the thoracic cavity to remove fluid or gas

A

Chest Tube

343
Q

passage of a tube through the oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx into the trachea; provides patent airway for anesthetics, oxygen

A

Endotracheal intubation

344
Q

surgical incision into the windpipe

A

Tracheostomy

Intro to Vet Tech (3 decks)

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