Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Intro to Vet Tech > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is vet tech?

A

the science and art of providing professional support service to professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AVMA accredited programs that educate vet techs are usually called _________

A

vet tech programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when did vets hire and train employees?

A

1900’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in what decade did colleges develop academic programs for vet techs?

A

1960’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when and where was the first vet tech program?

A

Delhi, NY- 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

vet techs are either ___,____, or ________ depending on the state.

A

certified, registered, or licensed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ohio, vet techs are registered with the _____

A

OVMLB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

vet techs must renew registration every _____

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

graduates must take the ______ to be licensed in the state of Ohio

A

VTNE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a doctor of veterinary medicine ; a graduate of a 4-year, AVMA Accredited program

A

vet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A graduate of an AVMA accredited program in veterinary technology; Must pass VTNE

A

vet technician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A graduate of a 4- year AVMA accredited program who holds a baccalaureate degree from veterinary technician study

A

vet technologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

person with training, knowledge, skills at the level of a clinical aide, but less than that required for a veterinary technician

A

vet aide/assistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

technicians responsibilities

A

anesthesia, clinical lab/pathology,dental care, hospitalized patients, surgery, radiology,patient services, office and hospital management, bio-medical research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

vet techs cannot:

A

diagnose conditions, prescribe medication, perform surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Law in each state prescribing which persons may practice veterinary medicine and surgery in the state, and under which conditions

A

Veterinary Practice Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Defines the practice of veterinary medicine, makes it illegal to practice without a license, states conditions under which a license can be revoked and penalties for violating the act

A

Veterinary Practice Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_________ must be on the premises or reachable by telephone communication during and for a reasonable time after any veterinary procedure

A

a vet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Federal Agency; Existed only since the mid-1980’s; Concerned with hazards in the workplace

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

diseases that are transmissible from animals to people

A

Zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fatal viral disease that can affect any warm blooded animal, including people; Spread by contact with an infected animal’s saliva via bite wound or residue

A

rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Exposure to Pasteurella, E.coli, and Pseudomona; Commonly transferred by direct contact with the animal or its excretions; especially if you have cuts or open sores

A

Bacterial Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ringworm; Superficial skin infection caused by the fungus Microsporum canis; Easily transmitted from animals to humans

A

Fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Roundworms and Hookworms can infect humans; Hookworms cause cutaneous larva migrans; affects children who play in areas where pets defecate.

A

Parasitism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vials containing vaccines and bacterins, usually not hazardous unless agent can infect humans

A

Biologics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

________ has been linked to genetic, skin, glandular and other disorders

A

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Long-term exposure to __________ is linked to congenital abnormalities in children, spontaneous abortion, liver and kidney damage

A

waste anesthetic gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Detailed information about each chemical product

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Every chemical bottle is identified with a label containing:

A

Directions on use, Warnings, Ingredients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

word part found at the beginning of a word

A

prefix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

word part that gives the essential meaning of the word

A

root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

word part found at the end of a word

A

suffix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

a single vowel, usually an “o,” that is added to the end of a root to make the word easier to pronounce

A

Combining vowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the combination of the root and the combining vowel

A

Combining form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

nas/o

A

nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

rhin/o

A

nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ren/o

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

nephr/o

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

oste/o

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a-,an-

A

without or no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ab-

A

away from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ad-

A

toward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

anti-

A

against

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

dys-

A

difficult, painful, bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ecto-

A

outside of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

endo-

A

within, inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

epi-

A

upper, above, upon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

eu-

A

good, easy, normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ex-, exo-

A

out of, outside, or away from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

extra-

A

outside of or beyond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

hyper-

A

excessive, above, beyond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

hypo-

A

deficient, decreased, below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

infra-

A

below, beneath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

inter-

A

between

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

intra-

A

within

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

meta-

A

change, after, beyond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

oligo-

A

scant or little

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

pan-

A

all, entire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

per-

A

throughout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

peri-

A

around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

poly-

A

many, excessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

post-

A

after, behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pre-

A

before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

sub-

A

below, under

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

super-, supra-

A

above, beyond, excessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

trans-

A

across, through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ultra-

A

beyond, excess, above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

-ac

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

-al

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

-an

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

-ar

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

-eal

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

-ic

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

-ine

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

-ous

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

-tic

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

-algia

A

pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

-centesis

A

surgical puncture to remove fluid or gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

-dynia

A

pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

-ectomy

A

surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

-emia

A

blood condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

-gram

A

record of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

-graph

A

instrument that records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

-graphy

A

procedure that records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

-itis

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

-lysis

A

seperation or breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

-malacia

A

abnormal softening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

-megaly

A

enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

-pathy

A

disease or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

-penia

A

deficiency or lack of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

-pexy

A

suture to stabilize; fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

-plasty

A

surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

-rrhage

A

bursting forth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

-rrhaphy

A

to suture in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

-rrhea

A

flow, discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

-rrhexis

A

rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

-scope

A

instrument to examine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

-scopy

A

Procedure to visually examine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

-therapy

A

treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

-tomy

A

cutting into

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

-um

A

part of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

toward midline

A

medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

away from midline

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

toward the head

A

cranial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

toward the tail

A

caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

toward theabdomen

A

ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

toward the back

A

dorsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

within the head and toward the muzzle

A

rostral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

pertaining to the head

A

cephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

nearest the midline or closer to the body

A

proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

farthest from midline or from the body

A

distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

caudal surface of front paw

A

palmar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

caudal surface of rear paw

A

plantar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

front of the body

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

rear of the body

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

above, toward the head

A

superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

below, or toward the tail

A

inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

near the surface

A

duperficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

below the surface

A

deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

divides the body into equal right and left halves

A

Midsagittal (Medial) plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

divides the body into right and left unequal parts

A

Sagittal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

divides the body into dorsal (back) and ventral (belly) parts

A

Dorsal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

divides the body into cranial and caudal parts

A

Transverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

study of body structure

A

anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

study of body function

A

physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

study of the nature, causes, and development of abnormal conditions

A

pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

study of disease

A

etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

the arrangement of teeth

A

dental arcade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

faces the tongue

A

Lingual surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

faces the cheek

A

Buccal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

facing the lips

A

Labial surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

contains the brain in the skull

A

Cranial cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

contains the spinal cord within the spinal column

A

Spinal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

contains the heart and lungs

A

Thoracic cavity/chest cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

contains the reproductive and some excretory organs

A

Pelvic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

contains the major organs of digestion ; also known as the “peritoneal cavity”

A

Abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

lying on the back

A

Dorsal recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

lying on the abdomen

A

Ventral recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

lying on the left side

A

Left lateral recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

lying on the right side

A

Right lateral recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

the basic structural units of the body

A

cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

the study of cells

A

Cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

any disease or condition caused by defective genes

A

Genetic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

denotes something that is present at birth

A

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

a deviation from what is regarded as normal

A

Anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

a group of specialized cells that join together to perform a certain function

A

tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

the study of tissues

A

Histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

covers internal and external body surfaces

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

holds organs in place and binds body parts together

A

connective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

ability to contract and relax

A

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

react to stimuli and conduct electrical impulses

A

Nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

-plasia

A

describes formation, development, and growth of tissue and cell numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

-trophy

A

describes formation, development, and increased size of tissue and cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

aplasia

A

no development of an organ, tissue, or cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Hypoplasia

A

less than normal development of an organ , tissue, or cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Hyperplasia

A

increase in the number of normal cells

158
Q

Dysplasia

A

abnormal growth or development of an organ, tissue, or cell

159
Q

Anaplasia

A

change in the structure of cells

160
Q

Neoplasia

A

any abnormal growth of tissue in which multiplication of cells is uncontrolled, more rapid than normal, and progressive

161
Q

a distinct mass of tissue

A

tumor

162
Q

Benign

A

not recurring

163
Q

Malignant

A

tending to spread and become life-threatening

164
Q

-oma

A

means tumor

165
Q

groups of specialized cells that secrete material used elsewhere in the body

A

glands

166
Q

aden/o

A

means gland

167
Q

glands that secrete material into ducts

A

Exocrine glands

168
Q

exo-

A

means out

169
Q

-crine

A

means secrete

170
Q

glands that secrete chemicals into the bloodstream for transportation to organs and other structures throughout the body

A

Endocrine glands

171
Q

endo-

A

means within

172
Q

a part of the body that performs a special function or functions

A

organ

173
Q

the science of preventing disease in animals

A

Veterinary preventative medicine

174
Q

Room temp. at ________ degrees for small animals

A

65-84

175
Q

Light sufficient for _________ is adequate for most animals

A

humans

176
Q

All species do better when there is a definite difference between _____________.

A

day and night

177
Q

Animals should never be kept in ____________ without access to shade.

A

direct sunlight

178
Q

Inadequate_______________ in an enclosure increases urine odors, ammonia levels, and airborne bacteria and viruses

A

air exchange

179
Q

an enclosure should be minimum of times the body size of the animal

A

10

180
Q

Do not buy feed that shows large amounts of ________ by the bag or box

A

oil uptake

181
Q

consists of two systems that work together to support the body and allow for movement of the animal

A

musculoskeletal system

182
Q

branch of surgery dealing with preservation and restoration of bones

A

Orthopedic

183
Q
  • form the framework that supports and protects -the body
  • aid in body movement
  • function to form blood cells
  • store and release minerals like calcium
A

bones

184
Q

protects the ends of bones where they contact each other; connective tissue that is more elastic than bone

A

Cartilage

185
Q

______ is one of the hardest tissues in the body.

A

bone

186
Q

The formation of bone from fibrous tissue

A

ossification

187
Q

a type of cartilage that covers the joint surfaces of bone

A

Articular cartilage

188
Q

a curved fibrous cartilage found in some joints

A

meniscus

189
Q

chondr/o

A

means cartilage

190
Q

connections between bones; aid in movement of the body

A

joints

191
Q

are also known as articulations

A

joints

192
Q

arthr/o

A

means joints

193
Q

bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect one bone to another

A

Ligaments

194
Q

ligament/o

A

means Ligaments

195
Q

destabilizes the stifle joint causing destruction to the cartilage

A

Anterior cruciate ligament rupture (ACL)

196
Q

bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect muscle to bone

A

Tendons

197
Q

ten/o, tend/o, and tendin/o

A

means tendon

198
Q

oste/o, oss/e, and oss/i

A

mean bone

199
Q

protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems

A

axial skeleton

200
Q

the framework that consists of the extremities, shoulder, and pelvic girdle

A

appendicular skeleton

201
Q

The skeleton is divided into two parts:

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

202
Q

supports the head and body and provides protection for the spinal cord

A

vertebral column

203
Q

The vertebral column is comprised of individual bones called

A

vertebra

204
Q

spondyl/o and vertebr/o

A

mean vertebra

205
Q

skull has air or fluid filled spaces called

A

sinuses

206
Q

dogs with short, wide heads

A

Brachycephalic

207
Q

dogs that have long, narrow heads

A

Doliocephalic

208
Q

Digits are extremities made up of _________.

A

phalanges

209
Q

Digit 1 of dogs is commonly called _________.

A

dewclaw

210
Q

mammal with hooves

A

Ungulate

211
Q

one bone of the digit

A

Phalanx

212
Q

onych/o

A

means claw or nail

213
Q

In cats a surgical procedure to remove the claws is commonly called _________.

A

declaw

214
Q

the medical term for declaw

A

onychectomy

215
Q

the surgical puncture of a joint to remove fluid for analysis

A

Arthrocentesis

216
Q

visual exam of the joint using a fiber optic scope

A

Arthroscopy

217
Q

study of internal structures used to detect fractures and diseases of bones

A

Radiology

218
Q

abnormal development of the pelvis causing improper alignment; most commonly seen in large breed dogs

A

Hip dysplasia

219
Q

rupture or protrusion of cushioning disc found between vertebrae that results in pressure on the spinal cord

A

Intervertebral Disc Disease; IVDD

220
Q

dislocation or displacement of a bone from its joint

A

Luxation

221
Q

degenerative joint disease commonly associated with aging or wear and tear on the joints

A

Osteoarthritis

222
Q

disorder of cartilage maturation creating a flap on the surface of the cartilage

A

Osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)

223
Q

inflammation/infection of the bone or bone marrow

A

Osteomyelitis

224
Q

abnormal loss of bone density

A

Osteoporosis

225
Q

malignant bone cancer in dogs and cats

A

Osteosarcoma

226
Q

inflammation of every part of a bone in young, large breed dogs

A

Panosteitis

227
Q

inflammation of the spinal column vertebrae

A

Spondylosis

228
Q

broken bone

A

Fracture

229
Q

crackling sensation that is felt and heard when broken bones move together

A

Crepitation

230
Q

attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or dislocation

A

Manipulation/reduction

231
Q

the act of holding, suturing, or fastening a bone in a fixed position, usually with a bandage or cast

A

Immobilization

232
Q

deposit around the area of bone fracture that may eventually become bone

A

Callus

233
Q

broken bone in which there is no open wound in the skin

A

Closed fracture

234
Q

also known as a simple fracture

A

Closed fracture

235
Q

broken bone in which there is an open wound in the skin

A

Open fracture

236
Q

also known as: compound fracture

A

Open fracture

237
Q

broken bone is splintered or crushed into multiple pieces

A

Comminuted fracture

238
Q

bone that is broken only on one side and the other side is bent

A

Greenstick fracture

239
Q

also called: incomplete fracture

A

Greenstick fracture

240
Q

the removal of all or part of a body part

A

Amputation

241
Q

surgical procedure where the head of the femur is removed.

A

Femoral Head Ostectomy (FHO)

242
Q

organs that contract to produce movement

A

Muscles

243
Q

made up of long, slender cells called muscle fibers

A

Muscles

244
Q

my/o

A

means muscle

245
Q

fibr/o and fibros/o

A

means fibrous tissue

246
Q

is a sheet of fibrous connective tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles

A

fascia

247
Q

fasci/o and fasc/i

A

means fascia

248
Q

fibrous connective tissues that connect muscle to bone

A

tendons

249
Q

tend/o, tendin/o, and ten/o

A

means tedon

250
Q

band of fibers that hold structures together in an abnormal fashion

A

Adhesion

251
Q

inability to voluntarily control muscle movement

A

Ataxia

252
Q

tumor made of connective tissue

A

Fibroma

253
Q

protrusion of a body part through tissues that normally contain it

A

hernia

254
Q

looseness

A

Laxity

255
Q

abnormal condition or disease of muscle

A

Myopathy

256
Q

inflammation of the tendons

A

Tendonitis

257
Q

muscle spasms or twitching

A

Tetany

258
Q

surgical removal of muscle or part of a muscle

A

Myectomy

259
Q

surgical incision into a muscle

A

Myotomy

260
Q

The digestive system is referred to as the

A

digestive system (or tract), alimentary system, and GI system (or tract)

261
Q

a long, muscular tube that begins at the mouth and ends at the anus

A

digestive system

262
Q

Functions of the digestive system:

A

intake and digestion of food and water, absorption of nutrients, and elimination of solid wastes

263
Q

Contains the lips, cheeks, palates (hard and soft), salivary glands, tongue, and teeth

A

mouth or oral cavity

264
Q

Boundaries of the mouth are the ________ and________.

A

maxilla and mandible

265
Q

forms the roof of the mouth

A

palate

266
Q

palat/o

A

means palate

267
Q

a movable muscular organ

A

Tongue

268
Q

gloss/o and lingu/o

A

means tongue

269
Q

front, cutting tooth

A

Incisor

270
Q

long, pointed bonelike tooth for grasping and tearing

A

Canine

271
Q

cheek tooth that grinds food

A

Premolar

272
Q

caudal cheek tooth that grinds food

A

Molar

273
Q

abnormal mineralized deposit that forms on teeth

A

Dental Calculus

274
Q

Also called Tartar

A

Dental Calculus

275
Q

inflammation of the tissue surrounding and supporting the teeth

A

Periodontitis or Periodontal disease

276
Q

surgical removal of a tooth

A

Extraction

277
Q

mucous membrane that surrounds the teeth

A

Gingiva

278
Q

inflammation of the gums

A

Gingivitis

279
Q

are groups of cells that secrete saliva

A

Salivary glands

280
Q

sialaden/o and sial/o

A

means Salivary glands

281
Q

the cavity in the caudal oral cavity that joins the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems

A

pharynx

282
Q

Also known as the throat

A

pharynx

283
Q

a collapsible, muscular tube that leads from the oral cavity to the stomach

A

esophagus

284
Q

Also known as the gullet

A

esophagus

285
Q

esophag/o

A

means esophagus

286
Q

abnormally large esophagus

A

Megaesophagus

287
Q

Also known as the peritoneal or abdominal cavity

A

abdomen

288
Q

the membrane lining that covers the abdominal and pelvic cavity and some of the organs in this area

A

peritoneum

289
Q

a saclike organ that aides in digestion of food

A

stomach

290
Q

gastr/o

A

means stomach

291
Q

inflammation of the stomach

A

Gastritis

292
Q

nflammation of the stomach and the small intestine

A

Gastroenteritis

293
Q

animals have one true, glandular stomach

A

Monogastric

294
Q

have one true, glandular stomach plus three forestomachs

A

Ruminants

295
Q

largest part that serves as a fermentation vat

A

Rumen

296
Q

most cranial portion

A

Reticulum

297
Q

third part that squeezes fluid out of the food bolus

A

Omasum

298
Q

fourth part that is the true glandular stomach

A

Abomasum

299
Q

Small intestine extends from the _____ to the _______

A

pylorus, large intestine

300
Q

Enter/o

A

means small intestine

301
Q

inflammation of the small intestine

A

Enteritis

302
Q

proximal part of small intestine

A

duodenum

303
Q

middle part of small intestine

A

jejunum

304
Q

distal part of small intestine

A

ileum

305
Q

Four segments of the large intestine are:

A

Cecum, Colon, Rectum, Anus

306
Q

inflammation of the colon

A

Colitis

307
Q

abnormally large colon

A

Megacolon

308
Q

located caudal to the diaphragm

A

Liver

309
Q

hepat/o

A

means liver

310
Q

degenerative disease that affects the structure and function of the liver

A

Cirrhosis

311
Q

Inflammation of the liver

A

Hepatitis

312
Q

located on the undersurface of the liver; stores bile

A

Gallbladder

313
Q

nflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

314
Q

organ that secretes digestive enzymes and hormones

A

Pancreas

315
Q

metabolic disease in which the pancreas does not secrete adequate amounts of digestive enzymes

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)

316
Q

inflammation of the pancreas

A

Pancreatitis

317
Q

is the process of breaking down foods into nutrients that the body can use

A

Digestion

318
Q

is the processes involved in the body’s use of nutrients

A

Metabolism

319
Q

the process of taking digested nutrients into the circulatory system

A

Absorption

320
Q

also called assimilation

A

Absorption

321
Q

contrast material used for radiographic studies

A

Barium

322
Q

introduction of fluid into the rectum

A

Enema

323
Q

removal of tissue to examine

A

Biopsy

324
Q

can be used to detect some diseases of the GI tract

A

Blood tests

325
Q

visual examination of the interior of any cavity of the body

A

Endoscopy

326
Q

can be used to detect parasitic diseases of animals

A

Fecal examinations

327
Q

imaging of internal body structures by recording echoes of sound waves

A

Ultrasound

328
Q

lack or loss of appetite

A

Anorexia

329
Q

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen

A

Ascites

330
Q

severe abdominal pain

A

Colic

331
Q

condition of prolonged GI transit time, making the stool hard, dry, and difficult to pass

A

Constipation

332
Q

ingestion of fecal material

A

Coprophagia

333
Q

condition of excessive loss of body water or fluid

A

Dehydration

334
Q

abnormal frequency and liquidity of fecal material

A

Diarrhea

335
Q

disease of ruminants in which the 4th stomach becomes trapped under the rumen

A

Displaced abomasum (DA)

336
Q

marked wasting or excessive lameness

A

Emaciation

337
Q

forcible vomiting

A

Emesis

338
Q

condition usually seen in deep chested dogs in which the stomach fills with air and expands

A

Gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV)

339
Q

elevated blood glucose

A

Hyperglycemia

340
Q

low blood glucose

A

Hypoglycemia

341
Q

stoppage of intestinal movement

A

Ileus

342
Q

obstruction of an area, usually when the feed is too dry

A

Impaction

343
Q

protrusion of bowel through the inguinal canal; protrusion seen in the groin

A

Inguinal hernia

344
Q

telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part

A

Intussusception

345
Q

yellow discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated bilirubin levels

A

Jaundice

346
Q

Also called icterus

A

Jaundice

347
Q

condition of drowsiness

A

Lethargy

348
Q

impaired uptake of nutrients from the intestine

A

Malabsorption

349
Q

black tarry stools containing digested blood

A

Melena

350
Q

stomach upset or sensation of the urge to vomit

A

Nausea

351
Q

complete stoppage or impairment to passage

A

Intestinal Obstruction

352
Q

small growth on the mucous membrane

A

Polyp

353
Q

protrusion of viscera (organ)

A

Prolapse

354
Q

inflammation of the mouth

A

Stomatitis

355
Q

erosion of tissue

A

Ulcer

356
Q

surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen

A

Abdominocentesis

357
Q

substance that prevents frequent and liquid stool

A

Antidiarrheal

358
Q

rounded mass of food or large pharmaceutical preparation or to give something rapidly

A

Bolus

359
Q

producing vomiting

A

Emetic

360
Q

prevents vomiting

A

Antiemetic

361
Q

abnormal passage from an internal organ to the body surface or between two internal organs

A

Fistula

362
Q

surgical incision into the abdomen

A

Laparotomy

363
Q

placement of a tube through the nose into the stomach

A

Nasogastric intubation

364
Q

passage of a tube from the mouth to the stomach

A

Orogastric intubation

365
Q

____________ nutrients have a hydrocarbon structure that produces energy through digestion, metabolism, or transformation

A

Energy-producing

366
Q

Dietary protein is used _______________

A

to build body tissues

367
Q

Composed of fatty acids; Contain more energy per unit of weight than any other nutrient

A

fats

368
Q

2 kinds of carbohydrates

A

soluble or insoluble

369
Q

Non-energy producing nutrients play an important role throughout the body system often called ______________

A

the “gatekeepers of metabolism”

370
Q

______ balance affects the ability to excrete waste into the urine by the kidneys

A

water

371
Q

Organic molecules required only in minute amounts

A

vitamins

372
Q

Usually distributed in ionized form as a cation or anion electrolyte; Involved with acid/base balance, clotting factors, nerve conditioning, muscle contractions

A

minerals

373
Q

Feeding methods

A

Portion control, Free choice, and Time control

374
Q

Feeding geriatric dogs

A

Dietary protein should be of high value, Dietary fats must be sufficiently digestible, Phosphorus should be limited

375
Q

Kittens that are orphaned or born to queens unable to nurse must be _______________

A

hand fed

376
Q

Adult cats typically eat _________ meals

A

several small

377
Q

Feeding cats with lower urinary tract disease

A

more often in obese, sedentary cats; Dietary management help prevent future episodes; manipulation of dietary mineral, fiber, and water intake; Special diets are available

378
Q

Feeding geriatric cats

A

It may be necessary to enhance the aroma and taste of foods to improve their palatability

379
Q

Feeding the gestating and lactating cat

A

Allow the queen free access to food during the last 30 days of gestation; Assess weight gain and body condition; Free food should be available

380
Q

The patient is a candidate for nutritional support if:

A
  • The patient loses more than 10% of body weight
  • The patient has a decreased appetite or anorexia
  • The patient loses body condition from vomiting, diarrhea, trauma, or wounds
  • The patient has increased needs due to fever, sepsis, wounds, surgery, organ dysfunction, or chronic disease
381
Q

Pet rodents can be fed ____________________

A

commercial rodent chow or pellets (90% of diet)

382
Q

Guinea pigs require a dietary source of _________

A

vitamin C

383
Q

Rabbits should be fed mainly free-choice ________

A

hay

384
Q

Ferrets can be fed ______________________

A

specially formulated ferret diets, or commercial kitten or cat food

385
Q

Iguanas are _________

A

herbivores

386
Q

Most species of snakes are ________ and eat _________

A

carnivores, whole prey

387
Q

ox turtles eat a large amount of __________ and _________

A

plant material, animal proteins

388
Q

Forages are made up of most or all of the ________

A

plant

389
Q

concentrates are _____ in fiber, and ______ in energy and/or protein

A

Low, high

390
Q

Residues of the feed processing industry, including sugar beet pulp, bakery waste, blood, meat, fish, and bone meal, brewer’s grains, tallow, and whey

A

By-product

391
Q

Buffers, hormones, binders, and medications; Used to stimulate animal performance, improve feed efficiency, and improve animal health or metabolic status

A

Non-nutritive Additives

Intro to Vet Tech (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions