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UI Immuno > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 parts of the innate system that help create a barrier in mucosal immunity?

A

Glycocalyx (goblet cells)

intestinal epithelial cell tight junctions

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2
Q

What are the 3 antimicrobial molecules in the innate mucosal immunity?

A

lactoferrin (binds iron)
lysozyme
defensins (disrupt bact cell wall)

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3
Q

What are the 2 types of MALT?

A

Organized (induction sites)

Scattered (effector sites)

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4
Q

What are the 4 unique features of gut associated lymphoid tissue?

A
  1. M cells uptake antigen in peyers patches
  2. unique lympho repertoire
  3. IgA dominated response
  4. minimize injury, develop tolerance
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5
Q

What are M-cells designed to do?

A

interact directly with antigens in the gut - portal of entry into GALT

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6
Q

What is the barrier made out of in the mucosa?

A

glycocalyx = mucus + IgA

and tight jxns

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7
Q

Where are IEC lymphocytes not found?

A

peyers patches

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8
Q

What keeps together the tight junction of the intestinal epithelium?

A

zonula occludens 1 and claudins

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9
Q

What 2 cytokines promote IgA and T-reg cells?

A

TGF-B (switches B cells to produce IgA)

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10
Q

What 4 cells are present in O-malt?

A

M cells, dome cells, B cells, T cells

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11
Q

What is the rolle of paneth cells in the IEC?

A

production of antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)

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12
Q

What 2 cell types produce AMPs?

A

paneth and enterocytes

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13
Q

What cell type produces mucin?

A

goblet

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14
Q

How are peyers patches seperated from the lumen?

A

follicle associated epithelium (microfold, dendritic, T, B, macros)

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15
Q

What is between the FAE and peyers patches?

A

dome - rich in dendritic cells

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16
Q

What molecule mediates transocytosis of dimeric IgA and pentameric IgM into the lumen?

A

Polymeric Ig receptor (pIgR)

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17
Q

What are the 2 functions of the secretory component of IgA?

A

protect from protelysis

glue to the glycocalyx

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18
Q

What are the two mechanisms of oral tolerance to dietary antigens?

A

Treg induction = low dose

Anergy = high dose

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19
Q

What is the mucosal “functional triad”?

A

treg cells, IgA, microbiota

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20
Q

What hypersensitivity rxn is atopic dermatitis?

A

type 1

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21
Q

What are the mechanisms of the two phages of atopic response to allergen?

A

Immediate (histamine)

late (eicosanoids, cytokines (IL-4 and TNF-a))

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22
Q

Where does IgE bind to in type 1 HS?

A

Fc epsilon receptors on masts and basos

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23
Q

What is the role of PAF in type 1 HS?

A

clumping of blood in lung capillaries

activate platelets

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24
Q

What are the 3 ways mast cells can be activated?1

A
  1. anaphylotoxins (C3a, C5a)
  2. IgE
  3. drugs
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25
Q

What are the 4 types of secondary mediators of the type 1 HS rxn?

A

cytokines (IL4,5,13, GM-CSF)
Lipid mediators
PAF
chemotactic factors

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26
Q

What antibodies can produce a type 2 HS?

A

IgG or IgM

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27
Q

What is intravascular hemolysis mediated by?

A

complement and MAC (anaphylotoxins too)

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28
Q

What are the CS of IV hemolysis?

A

fever, polyarthritis, proteinuria

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29
Q

What is IgG best at?

A

opsonization, complement, neutralization

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30
Q

What is IgM best at?

A

complement, neutralization

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31
Q

Is the transfusion worse from an A to a B cat or B to an A cat?

A

A to a B cat (b cat has bad rxn)

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32
Q

What test is the definitive diagnosis for IMHA?

A

Coombs test

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33
Q

What 3 tests used for neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A
  1. blood cross match
  2. direct coombs test
  3. jaundice foal agglutination test
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34
Q

What test is used to differentiate b/w myasthenia gravis and cholinergic chrisis?

A

Tensilon test - edrophonium

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35
Q

What samples are used for indirect coombs test?

A

donor rbc and recipient serum

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36
Q

What samples are used for direct coombs test?

A

donor serum and recipient rbc

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37
Q

What coombs test used for neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

baby rbcs and colostrum = direct coombs test

38
Q

What type 3 hypersensitivity rxn is systemic?

A

serum sickness - vasculitis

39
Q

What type 3 HS rxn is localized?

A

arthus rxn

40
Q

What are examples of type 3 HS?

A

FIP wet, blue eye, porcine circovirus, lupus, RA, dietary HS

41
Q

What are the clinical signs of sulfonamide hypersensitivity in dogs (type 2)?

A

fever, polyarthropathy, skin eruptions, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, hemolytic anemia, uveitis, facial swelling, proteinuria

42
Q

What role do anaphylotoxins have in type 3 HS?

A

cause degranulation and attract neutrophils that cause vascular damage (C3a and C5a)

43
Q

What are the two localized types of type 3 HS?

A

arthus rxn - subq or muscle

pneuomonitis - farmers lung, pigeon fanciers lung

44
Q

What are two factors that contribute to type 3 HS in the circulation?

A

low abundance of Ab
small Ag-Ab complexes that can’t fix complement
mast cells increase intensity

45
Q

What are 4 examples of type 3 HS in the circulation?

A

serum sickness, infectious agent, autoimmune dz, dietary hypersensitivity

46
Q

What type 3 HS is caused by infectious canine heptatitis and canine adenovirus in dogs?

A

immune mediated uveitis

47
Q

What can develop in horses as a result of type 3 HS after S. equi infection?

A

purpura hemorrhagica - immune complexes in vascular basement membranes

48
Q

What form of FIP is characterized by polyserositis?

A

effusive (wet)

dry form is pyogranulmatous lesions

49
Q

What type of immune response leads to acute wet FIP in cats?

A

strong humoral/weak CMI

50
Q

What type of immune response leads to chronic dry FIP in cats?

A

moderate humoral/moderate CMI

type 4 HS

51
Q

What type of immune response against FIP will result in healthy carrier/non carrier?

A

moderate humoral/strong CMI

52
Q

What happens during the sensitization phase of type 4 HS?

A

CD4+ T cells differentiate to TH1 when they encounter antigen

53
Q

What are the cells and cytokines involved in the effector phase of type 4 HS?

A

Chemokines, IFNy, TNFa, LT, IL-3, GM-CSF (monocyte production) –> recruits macrophage and nuetrophils

54
Q

What happens during sensitization phase in contact dermatitis?

A

haptens bind to proteins, processed by langerhans cells

55
Q

What happens during effector phase in contact dermatitis?

A

Th1 memory cells respond to contact sensitizer at site of contact, macrophages recruited

56
Q

What is the difference between tuberculoid leprosy andd lepromatous leprosy in the cytokines they produce?

A

Tuberculoid - TH1

Leprotamous - TH2

57
Q

What cytokines give rise to M1 macrophage?

A

Ifny, TNFa, LPS

58
Q

What cytokines give rise to M2a macrophage?

A

IL4 and IL13

59
Q

What cytokines give rise to M2b/c macrophage?

A

immune complexes, IL10, TGF beta, glucocorticoids, apoptotic cells

60
Q

What are the effector functions of M1 macrophages?

A

pathologic type 1 inflammation

61
Q

What are the effector functions of M2 macrophages?

A

type 1 inflammatory, adaptive immunity, promote and regulate tpe 2 immune responses, angiogenesis

62
Q

What is found in boxers with granulamatous coilitis? What cytokine produces the granulomatous inflammation?

A

adherent invasive e. coli

TNF - alpha

63
Q

What is the approximate time in gestation when fetus is immune competent in horse, cow, pig, dog?

A

Horse - 200 d
Cow - 100-120 d
Pig - 70d
Dog - 45 d

64
Q

What happens in cytopathic BVD if fetus is infected before 120 d? after 120d?

A

before - abortion

after - congenital defects

65
Q

What happens in non cytopathic BVD if fetus is infected before 120d? after 120d?

A

before - tolerance

after - normal

66
Q

What are the placenta types for primates, dogs/cats, ruminants, and pigs/horses?

A

primates - haemochorial
dogs/cats - endotheliichorial
ruminants - syndesmochorial
pigs/horses - epitheliochorial

67
Q

What is the main class of Ab in colostrum of ruminants? non-ruminants?

A

ruminants - IgG

nonruminants - IgA

68
Q

What receptor transports Ab into milk?

A

Neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn) - also acidic to basic environment

69
Q

What are the two biggest problems to development of a vaccine?

A

antigenic variation

must stimulate effector T cells

70
Q

What effect do corticosteroids have on cytokines?

A

increase lipocortin - decrease eicosanoids

inhibit PAF, decrease NO

71
Q

What genes are steroid sensitive?

A

Growth hormone, IL-10, TGF beta

72
Q

What are SE of corticosteroids that I dont know?

A

acute pancreatitis, bladder and skin infections

73
Q

What are the 2 indications for cyclosporin A use?

A

canine atopic dermatitis

perianal fistulas

74
Q

What is the MOA of cyclosporin A?

A

inhibits T cell activation by inhibiting serine/threonine specific phosphatase calcineurin

75
Q

What is the effect of cyclosporin on mast cells and eosinophils?

A

inhibitory

76
Q

What drug prolongs high cAMP levels in mast cells and prevents degranulation?

A

theophylline

77
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms for developing self tolerant T cells in the periphery?

A

anergy,
T reg cells/suppression
clonal deletion

78
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms for developing self tolerant B cells in the bone marrow?

A

receptor editing
induction of anergy
clonal deletion

79
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms for developing self tolerant B cells in the periphery?

A

clonal deletion

anergy

80
Q

What autoimmune diseases have a Type 1 HS?

A

milk allergy

81
Q

What autoimmune dzs have type 2 HS?

A 
IMHA, IMT
pemphigus
autoimmune thyroiditis
myasthenia gravis
systemic lupus erythematosus
82
Q

What autoimmune dzs have type 3 HS?

A

glomerulonephropathy
SLE (lupus)
RA

83
Q

What autoimmune dzs have type 4 HS?

A

multiple sclerosis
lymphocytic thyroiditis
RA

84
Q

What are the two ways HMGB1 is secreted from cells?

A

active secretion by inflammatory cells or passive by necrotic or apoptosis

85
Q

What are the two different inflammatory fxns of HMGB1 by either being reduced or oxidized?

A

reduced form - defintes chemokine activity
disulfide form - induces cytokine activity
fully oxidzed - no immune fxn

86
Q

What are the major SE of SLE?

A

polyarthritis, glomerulornephritis, dermitiis, IMHA, IMT, leukopenia, polymyositis

87
Q

Term for granulamatous material composed of antibody and complement at BM in lupus.

A

lupus band

88
Q

What are LE cells?

A

changed neutrophils is lupus erythramatousus

89
Q

What is rheumatoid factor? how is it detected?

A

IgM specific for IgG

test - agglutination????

90
Q

What lesion is seen in RA?

A

erosive polyarthritis - small distal joints more affected

UI Immuno (4 decks)

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