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329 - MRI imaging production & procedures > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: coverage for the axial slices of the head includes the foramen magnum to the superior surface of the brain

A

true

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2
Q

sagittal slices through the head are prescribed from

A

left to right

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3
Q

setting up the sagittal slices of the head is best and often easiest to be achieved using the ______ series of images in the 3 plane localizer

A

coronal

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4
Q

which of the following best describes the appearance of acute stroke on an axial DWI

A

bright

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5
Q

which structures of the brain are M/S plaques NOT common to be seen

A

basal nuclei

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6
Q

when positioning a patient for a head MRI exam, their _____ should be parallel to the couch/table

A

IPL

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7
Q

which of the following sequences provides temporal resolution of enhancing lesions and indicates brain activity

A

perfusion

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8
Q

a patient who has had a stroke will have blood that appears _______ on a T2 weighted image

A

bright

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9
Q

contrast is used to assess which of the following

A
  • metastases
  • active MS plaques
  • the age of an infarct
  • tumors such as meningiomas or neuromas
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10
Q

the DWI is usually performed with _____ aligned slices

A

axial

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11
Q

post contrast will enhance ______ seen in the brain

A

MS plaques

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12
Q

axial slices through the brain are typically aligned with what anatomical structures

A

parallel to the genu & splenium of the corpus callosum

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13
Q

alignment for the axial images of the brain are usually set up on the ______ series of images

A

sagittal

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14
Q

axial slices through the head & brain are prescribed from

A

inferior to superior

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15
Q

which sequence is used to visualize blood flow & detection of tumors

A

perfusion

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16
Q

for imaging of the brain, the patient is usually laying ____ on the table/couch

A

supine

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17
Q

which landmark is used for positioning centering / localizing with the red laser light in the brain imaging

A

glabella/nasion

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18
Q

propellers, blade, multivane, & jet sequences are performed to

A

reduce motion artifacts

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19
Q

the b value determines the

A

amount of diffusion weighting on an image

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20
Q

a DWI is most often acquired using a _______ sequence

A

T2 EPI

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21
Q

a T1 weighted image will have a _______ TR & _______ TE

A

short & short

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22
Q

metastatic lesions in the spinal cord can be seen after contrast enhancement on T1 weighted images because

A

lesions enhance while the spinal cord does not

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23
Q

flow from the CSF in the thoracic spine can be minimized by utilizing

A

saturation pulses

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24
Q

the conus and cauda equina is NOT demonstrated on

A

sagittal cervical spine

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25
Q

when the X,Y, & Z axis have been set to zero it is said to be at the

A

isocenter

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26
Q

in T2 imaging , fluid is

A

bright

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27
Q

what causes cross-talk artifact in the lumbar spine sequences

A

adjusting angulation where the slices end up overlapping

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28
Q

how many blocks/sets of slices are typically set up when doing the axial slices for the thoracic spine imaging

A

two

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29
Q

during patient positioning, centering for the thoracic spine should be on vertebral level

A

T4

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30
Q

on T1 weighted images, the vertebral bodies appear bright because

A

bone marrow contains fat

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31
Q

where can you place the SAT bands for the lumbar images

A

anterior to the spine

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32
Q

for optimal imaging of the cervical spine, patient positioning and local coil placement are

A

supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7

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33
Q

what may appear bright on T2 images

A
  • synovial fluid
  • infection
  • CSF
  • inflammation
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34
Q

on a T1 weighted image, the CSF will appear

A

hypointense (dark) to the spinal cord

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35
Q

most spine imaging uses

A

a surface / local coil

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36
Q

how many cranial nerves are there ?

A

12

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37
Q

to check for hydrocephalus, a provider may order a _____ study

A

CSF

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38
Q

if performing an axial sequence in a CSF study, the slice should be prescribed to be

A

perpendicular to the aqueduct of sylvius

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39
Q

someone with unilateral hearing loss may be sent to have an ______ scan performed

A

IAC’s

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40
Q

cranial nerve I

A

olfactory

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41
Q

cranial nerve II

A

optic

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42
Q

cranial nerve III

A

oculomotor

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43
Q

cranial nerve IV

A

trochlear

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44
Q

cranial nerve V

A

trigeminal

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45
Q

cranial nerve VI

A

abducens

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46
Q

fMRI uses ______ sequence

A

BOLD

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47
Q

which nerve is best visualized on the orbits exam

A

CN II

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48
Q

which study requires peripheral getting to be used

A

CSF

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49
Q

on the coronal IAC sequence, the posterior slices should begin at which structures edge?

A

cerebellum

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50
Q

what do you angle your axial slices with (to make parallel with) on the axial orbits sequence

A

optic nerve

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51
Q

the coronal orbit slices should extend from the front of the orbit globe through the _____

A

chiasm

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52
Q

3D TOF uses ____ slices, so it has ______ spatial resolution

A
  • thin
  • better/greater
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53
Q

the circle of willis is the main structure being imaged in

A

MRA

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54
Q

what portions of the brain are examined when performing fMRI?

A
  • motor function
  • language function
  • passive cognitive thinking
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55
Q

exam done for the trigeminal nerve

A

facial / cranial nerve study

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56
Q

exam done for aneurysm

A

MRA study

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57
Q

exam done for ringing in the ears

A

IAC’s study

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58
Q

which portion of the blood flow process is blood pumped into the brain & CSF is pumped into the aqueduct of sylvius

A

systolic

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59
Q

positioning for an abdominal MRI would include centering the horizontal alignment light on the patients

A

lower costal margin (L3)

60
Q

prior to an MRCP examination, patients should be NPO for ___ hours

A

4

61
Q

patients fast prior to an MRCP to which of the following

A
  • promote gallbladder distention
  • decrease bowel peristalsis
  • decrease fluid secretions in the stomach & duodenum
62
Q

the accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

A

ascites

63
Q

enlargement of the left lobe of the liver is most likely a sign of which disease

A

cirrhosis

64
Q

which organ lies transversely and bit obliquely and across the lumber spine in the abdominal cavity

A

pancreas

65
Q

an MRCP utilizes ____ TEs

A

long

66
Q

this sequence helps distinguish the difference between fatty tissues and maybe a metastatic lesion

A

in & out phase

67
Q

which kidney typically extends further distally / inferiorly

A

right

68
Q

what additional device, placed on the patient before the scan begins, helps monitor patient breathing during the abdomen exam

A

bellows

69
Q

what are some possible artifacts when performing abdominal imaging

A
  • peristalsis
  • breathing motion
  • inconsistent breathing
70
Q

TR range of 400-800

A

T1 FSE

71
Q

TR range of 3000-6000

A

T2 FSE

72
Q

TR range of 1800-3000

A

PD SE

73
Q

TR range of 8000- 10000

A

T2 FLAIR

74
Q

arterial flow goes _____ the leg

A

down

75
Q

the femur of interest should be

A

as close to isocenter as possible

76
Q

increasing your NEX/NSA will _______ your scan time

A

increase

77
Q

T/F: due to the foot anatomy, the slice sequences are usually set up with some oblique quality to them

A

true

78
Q

what is a good general range for a short TR on a 1.5 magnet ?

A

400-700 ms

79
Q

which weighting is best used for anatomy identification

A

T1

80
Q

if a patient has a hip prosthesis, the technologist should use ______ to help reduce the magnetic susceptibility of the device

A

SE or FSE sequences with large bandwidths

81
Q

STIR images are typically ____ weighted

A

T1

82
Q

which is the main magnetic field?

A

B0

83
Q

a proton dense image uses _____ TR & _____ TE

A

long & short

84
Q

MRI uses which atoms of the body

A

hydrogen

85
Q

which slices should be aligned with the superior aspect of the femoral heads when setting them up in a hip image

A

axial

86
Q

traditionally, the axial slices of the foot should be

A

perpendicular to the long axis of the foot

87
Q

axial slices of the long bone femur image should be planned

A

superior to inferior

88
Q

TE controls

A

T2

89
Q

T/F: increasing your NEX/NSA will increase your SNR as well

A

true

90
Q

TR controls

A

T1

91
Q

the most optimal plane to use when evaluating patients for cruciate ligament (posterior or anterior) tears of the knee is the

A

sagittal

92
Q

what structure at minimum needs to be included in the lateral aspect of the body in a sagittal hip sequence

A

greater trochanters

93
Q

coronal slices of the elbow are set up

A

aligned/ parallel with the humeral epicondyles

94
Q

to tighten the tendons of the rotator cuff, positioning for the shoulder may require

A

slight external rotation

95
Q

a ______ tear occurs where the biceps tendon anchors to the labrum

A

SLAP

96
Q

the coil usually preferred to image the shoulder for the maximization of SNR is the

A

surface/ local coil

97
Q

the imaging sequence best used to visualize bruises or contusions within the bone is

A

STIR

98
Q

the axial slices in the humerus imaging series should be prescribed

A

superior to inferior

99
Q

which type of sequence is best to visualize contrast in the joints

A

T1 FS

100
Q

coronal oblique images of the shoulder are angled parallel with which anatomy

A

supraspinatus muscle

101
Q

the _____ slices in the elbow are aligned with humeral epicondyles

A

coronal

102
Q

the muscles that make up the rotator cuff

A
  • teres minor muscle & tendon
  • infraspinatus muscle & tendon
  • supraspinatus muscle & tendon
  • subscapularis muscle & tendon
103
Q

adhesive capsulitis is also known as

A

frozen shoulder

104
Q

when positioning the patient into the bore, where would you landmark for the humerus images

A

midshaft of the humerus

105
Q

what structure superiorly needs to be included in the prostate scanning in axial/ oblique slices

A

seminal vesicles

106
Q

the prostate gland is located ______ & ______ to the bladder in the male pelvis

A

inferior & posterior

107
Q

when scanning a routine female pelvis exam, axials would be angled in which manner

A

perpendicular to the uterus

108
Q

prostate scanning is typically done because

A

elevated PSA levels in blood work

109
Q

to best demonstrate the uterine anatomy the ____ plane should be selected

A

sagittal

110
Q

_____ slice sequence best demonstrates anatomy that is lateral such as lymph nodes

A

axial

111
Q

which slices sequence would best demonstrate the ovaries in the female pelvis scan

A

axial

112
Q

positioning for a female pelvis MR exam would include centering the horizontal alignment light to pass

A

through a point midway between the symphysis pubis & the iliac crest (ASIS)

113
Q

ways to limit metal artifacts

A
  • use MARS
  • small FOV
  • run STIRS instead of T2 FS
114
Q

how can you reduce scan time, to help reduce motion artifacts?

A
  • lower NEX/NSA
  • lower TR
115
Q

for the magic angle artifact

A

a tendon/ ligament is oriented at 55 degrees to B0

116
Q

the artifact that is caused by
- pixels not being square
- high tissue contrast interfaces
- on FSE/TSE sequences
- by partial echo acquisitions

A

Gibb’s also known as ringing & truncation

117
Q

the main way to eliminate the moire’ effect is

A

keep the TR short

118
Q

T/F: if you swap your phase & frequency, the chemical shift artifact is still there but just in a different direction

A

true

119
Q

gradient wrap or distortion is seen on images with a

A

large FOV

120
Q

one way to eliminate cross talk, where you the tech, tells the scanner to skip every other slice, then fill in the missing ones is called

A

interleave

121
Q

chemical shift of the first kind is controlled by

A

B/W

122
Q

the time between successive excitations is termed

A

TR

123
Q

which image sequence is best for pathology conditions

A

T2 weighted

124
Q

tissues with short T1 relaxation times appear _______ as compared to normal structures on T1 weighted images

A

hyperintense / brighter than

125
Q

STIR images typically have

A

low fat signal with high fluid signal

126
Q

the plane to best evaluate patients with a seizure history would be

A

coronal

127
Q

the number of echos acquired following a single initial excitation is termed

A

ETL

128
Q

as the TR increases the amount of T1 weighted contrast _____

A

decreases

129
Q

a T1 weighted image has an echo time (TE) in the range of

A

10-30 ms

130
Q

inversion recovery pulse sequence

A

180 degree RF followed by 90 degree RF

131
Q

spin echo pulse sequence

A

90 degree RF followed by 180 degree RF

132
Q

fast spin echo pulse sequence

A

90 RF followed by train of 180 RF pulses

133
Q

the magnetic field that extends beyond the scanner is called

A

the fringe field

134
Q

what can induce neurological signals

A

transient magnetic field

135
Q

what is the cryogen used in modern MRI scanner

A

helium

136
Q

where does the maximum spatial gradient /magnetic field occur in the typical closed bore MRI magnet

A

at the opening of the magnet

137
Q

what material should an oxygen cylinder for use in MRI be made of

A

aluminum

138
Q

earplugs are given to reduce the noise & can reduce it by

A

10-20 dB

139
Q

metal materials cause what type of artifact

A

signal void

140
Q

on an image that is proton dense and fat suppressed, the fracture would/should appear

A

white

141
Q

best views for evaluation of the ACL include

A

sagittal & oblique

142
Q

increasing NEX will increase

A

SNR

143
Q

water containing areas on a T1 image should be

A

dark

144
Q

the fat in a fat suppressed image should be

A

darker / blacker

145
Q

the 3D GRE is good at identifying

A

cartilage pathology & intraarticular spaces for loose bodies

146
Q

the blacker the structures the _____ sensitive the scan you are looking at

A

more

329 - MRI imaging production & procedures (10 decks)

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