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Human Anatomy and Phys Sp23 > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q

primary reproductive organs

A

ovaries

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2
Q

accessory reproductive organs

A

uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, external genitalia, mammary glands

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3
Q

gametes are made using

A

mitotic division

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4
Q

what is the site of oocyte production

A

ovarian follicles

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5
Q

what is the site of sex hormone release

A

ovarian follicles (estrogen and progesterone)

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6
Q

mature follicle forms from

A

secondary follicle

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7
Q

mature follicle components

A
  • secondary oocyte surrounded by zona pellucida
  • then corona radiata
  • antrum
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8
Q

when ovulation occurs corona radiata goes

A

with the egg as it goes into uterine tube so in order to fertilize the egg it has to make it through both of these layers (corona radiata, zona pellucida) to reach the egg

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9
Q

what cells are sources of estrogen?

A

granulosa cells

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10
Q

what part of the mature follicle gets bigger during follicular development

A

fluid-filled antrum

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11
Q

how often is a mature follicle formed

A

one per month

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12
Q

division of mature follicle

A

divides mitoticly and divides into secondary oocyte with 23 chromosomes, it begins but stops in metaphase

doesn’t occur unless oocyte is fertilized

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13
Q

corpus luteum formation

A

remanants of follicle
after mature follicle ruptures and oocyte expelled

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14
Q

corpus luteum secretes

A

sex hormones progesterone and estrogen to stimulate buildup of uterine lining (endometrium) and prepare uterus for possible implantation of fertilized oocyte

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15
Q

what structure releases GnRH

A

hypothalamus

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16
Q

GnRH release stimulates release of

A

FSH and LH

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17
Q

FSH and LH play a major role in

A

events in ovarian cycle

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18
Q

phases of ovarian cycle

A
  • follicular phase (days 1-13)
  • ovulation (day 14)
  • luteal phase (days 15-38)
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19
Q

ovulation

A
  • release of secondary oocyte from mature follicle
  • occurs on day 14 of 28 day cycle
  • antrum increases in size and swells with increased fluid
  • expands until ovarian surface thins, eventually rupturing and expelling secondary oocyte
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20
Q

ovulation is induced with increased

A

LH secretion

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21
Q

order of oocyte release on ovaries

A
  • infundibulum (has to catch oocyte, contains fimbriae)
  • ampulla (where fertilization occurs)
  • isthmus
  • uterine part
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22
Q

uterine wall is mostly

A

smooth muscle
contains
- endometrium
- myometrium
- perimetrium (thin connective tissue covering on outside)
from deep to superficial

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23
Q

uterine cycle

A

changes in endometrial lining

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24
Q

uterine cycle is influenced by

A

estrogen and progesterone - secreted by follicle and then corpus luteum

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25
Q

uterine cycle phases

A

menstrual phase (1-5)
proliferative phase (6-14)
secretory phase (15-28)

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26
Q

menstrual phase

A

1-5
sloughing off of functional layer
lasts through period of menstrual bleeding

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27
Q

proliferative phase

A

days 6-14
development of new functional layer of endometrium
overlaps time of follicle growth and ovarian estrogen secretion

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28
Q

secretory phase

A

days 15-28
increased progesterone secretion from corpus luteum
results in increased vascularization and uterine gland development

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29
Q

estrogen secretion happens in

A

proliferative phase of uterine cycle

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30
Q

progesterone secretion happens in

A

secretory phase of uterine cycle

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31
Q

if fertilization doesn’t occur in secretory phase

A
  • corpus luteum degenerates
  • drop in levels of progesterone (causing functional layer to slough off)
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32
Q

levels of hormones during follicular phase of ovarian cycle

A

high FSH and estrogen levels
low LH and progesterone

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33
Q

mammary glands

A

exocrine glands
divided into lobes and then into lobules composed of alveoli

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34
Q

lactiferous ducts

A

bring materials to the nipple

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35
Q

breast milk release

A
  • occurs in response to internal and external stimuli
  • starts to produce after giving birth
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36
Q

prolactin

A

produced in anterior pituitary gland
stimulates milk production, with increase mammary gland forms more and larger alveoli

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37
Q

oxytocin

A

produced by hypothalamus and released from posterior pituitary gland
responsible for milk ejection

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38
Q

primary male reproductive organs

A

testes

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39
Q

accessory reproductive organs of male reproductive system

A

ducts and tubules lead from testes to penis
male accessory glands
penis

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40
Q

epididymis

A

responsible for storage of sperm

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41
Q

where are gametes produced in MRS

A

inside seminiferous tubules

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42
Q

internal components of testes are organized into

A

lobules divided by septum

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43
Q

components of seminiferous tubules

A

within tubule lumen of seminiferous tubules sperm or germ cells are found

seminiferous tubules are making haploid gametes so meiosis is going to start dividing toward lumen

sperm within lumen
spermatids line the lumen
spermatagonia on outside border of seminiferous tubule

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44
Q

sustentacular cells

A

provide strength to germ cells, support them, provide nutritional support, and influence rate of sperm cell production

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45
Q

maturation of sperm cells

A

spermatogonia (2n) - primary spermatocyte - secondary spermatocyte - spermatids - spermatogonia (sperm) (n)

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46
Q

hormone regulation on spermatogenesis and androgen production

A
  1. GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH
  2. LH stimulates interstitial cells to secrete testosterone, FSH stimulates sustentacular cells to secrete androgen-binding protein (ABP)
  3. Testosterone stimulates spermatogenesis but inhibits GnRH secretion and reduces the anterior pituitary glands sensitivity to GnRH
  4. Rising sperm count levels causes sustentacular cells to secrete inhibin, further inhibiting FSH secretion
  5. testosterone stimulates libido and development of secondary sex characteristics
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47
Q

androgen binding protein keeps

A

testosterone levels high in testes

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48
Q

seminal fluid

A
  • alkaline secretion need to neutralize vaginal acidity
  • gives nutrients to sperm traveling in female reproductive tract
  • produced by accessory glands
    a) seminal vesicles
    b) prostate gland
    c) bulbourethral glands
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49
Q

semen

A
  • formed from seminal fluid and sperm
  • called ejaculate when released during intercourse
  • contain 200-500 million spermatozoa
  • transit time from seminiferous tubules to ejaculate is about 2 weeks
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50
Q

puberty

A
  • period in adolescence where reproductive organs become fully functional
  • external sex characteristics become more prominent
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51
Q

timing of puberty affected by

A

genetics, health, environmental factors

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52
Q

puberty initiation

A
  1. hypothalamus secretes GnRH
  2. stimulates anterior pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH
  3. sex hormone levels increase starting the process of gamete and sexual maturation
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53
Q

menarche

A

about 2 years after first signs of puberty
first period

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54
Q

gender differences of puberty

A

girls 2 years prior to boys
8-12 for girls
9-14 for boys

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55
Q

racial differences of puberty

A

african american girls about 1 year earlier than caucasions
onset of puberty has decreased with better nutrition and health care

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56
Q

precocious puberty

A
  • signs of puberty developing much earlier than normal
  • may be without known cause
  • may be due to pituitary or gonad tumor
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57
Q

perimenopause

A

time near menopause
irregular or skipped periods

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58
Q

menopause

A

women stop monthly menstrual cycles for a year
45-55

  • atrophy of reproductive organs and breasts with reduced hormones
  • decrease vaginal wall thickness
  • hot flashes
  • thinning hair
  • increased risk of osteoporosis and heart disease
  • sometimes treated with hormone replacement therapy
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59
Q

fertilization

A
  • 2 gametes fuse to form diploid cell (containing genetic material from both parents)
  • restores diploid number of chromosomes
  • determines sex of organism
  • initiates cleavage
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60
Q

oocyte viable for how long after ovulation

A

24 hrs

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61
Q

sperm remains viable for

A

3-4 days

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62
Q

corona radiata penetration

A

1st phase of fertilization of mature oocyte

when sperm reaches secondary oocyte, it is initially prevented by corona radiata and zona pellucida

sperm can push through these layers

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63
Q

zona pellucide penetration

A

Acrosome reaction:
- release of digestive enzymes from acrosomes
- allows sperm to penetrate zona pellucida

After penetration of secondary oocyte:
- immediate hardening of zona pellucida
- prevents other sperm from entering this layer
- ensures only one sperm fertilizes the oocyte

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64
Q

labor

A

physical expulsion of fetus and placenta from uterus
usually 38 weeks

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65
Q

increased levels of estrogen during labor

A
  • increases myometrium sensitivity
  • stimulate production of oxytocin receptors on uterine myometrium
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66
Q

contractions become more intense and more frequent with increasing

A

estrogen and oxytocin

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67
Q

premature labor

A

prior to 38 wks
undesirable because infant body systems are not fully develop (especially lungs, insufficient surfactant)

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68
Q

initiation of true labor (uterine contractions)

A
  1. mothers hypothalamus secretes increasing levels of oxytocin
  2. fetus’s hypothalamus also secreting oxytocin
    - combined maternal and fetal oxytocin initiates true labor
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69
Q

both fetal and maternal release of oxytocin stimulate placenta to secrete

A

prostaglandins
- help stimulate uterine muscle contraction and soften and dilate the cervix

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70
Q

true labor is a

A

positive feedback mechanism

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71
Q

positive feedback mechanism of true labor

A
  1. oxytocin is released from mother and fetus hypothalamus
  2. stimulates uterus to contract and placenta to make prostaglandins
  3. prostaglandings stimulate more frequent and intense contractions of uterus
  4. uterine contractions cause fetal head to push against cervix, causing it to stretch and dilate
  5. dilating cervix initiates nerve signals to hypothalamus which causes more oxytocin release from mother and fetus
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72
Q

blood

A
  • regenerated CT
  • moves gases nutrients, wastes, and hormones
  • transported through CV system
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73
Q

arteries

A

transport blood away from heart

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74
Q

veins

A

transport blood toward heart

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75
Q

capillaries

A

allow exchange between blood and body tissues

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76
Q

components of blood

A

formed elements and plasma

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77
Q

formed elements of blood

A

erythrocytes (RBCs)
leuokocytes (white blood cells)
platelets (thrombocytes)

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78
Q

erythrocytes function in blood

A

transports respiratory gases in the blood

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79
Q

leukocytes function in the blood

A

defend against pathogens

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80
Q

platelets function in the blood

A

form clots to prevent blood loss

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81
Q

plasma of blood

A

fluid portion of blood
contains plasma proteins and dissolved solutes

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82
Q

functions of blood

A
  • transportation
  • protection
  • regulation of body conditions (maintaining homeostasis)
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83
Q

blood helps transport…

A

formed elements, dissolved molecules, and ions
- carries oxygen to and from carbon dioxide to the lungs
- transports nutrients, hormones, heat, and waste products

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84
Q

leukocytes, plasma proteins, and other molecules (of immune system) protect against

A

pathogens

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85
Q

platelets and plasma proteins within blood protect against

A

blood loss

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86
Q

blood and body temperature

A

blood absorbs heat from body cells (especially muscle)
heat is released at skin blood vessels

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87
Q

blood and pH

A

blood absorbs acid and base from body cells
blood contains chemical buffers (e.g., bicarbonate, proteins)

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88
Q

blood and fluid balance

A

water is added to blood from GI tract
water is lost through urine, skin, and respiration
fluid is constantly being exchanged between blood and interstitial fluid
- blood contains proteins and ions helping maintain osmotic balance

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89
Q

oxygen-rich blood is

A

bright red

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90
Q

oxygen poor blood is

A

dark red

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91
Q

volume of blood in body

A

about 5 L
males have slightly more than females

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92
Q

viscosity of blood

A

blood is thicker than water (4-5x)
depends on amount of dissolved and suspended substances

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93
Q

viscosity increases if

A

erythrocyte number increases
amount of fluid decreases

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94
Q

plasma concentration of solutes (e.g., proteins, ions) within blood

A

typically .09%
determines direction of osmosis across capillary walls

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95
Q

temperature of blood

A

1 degree high than measured body temperature

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96
Q

pH of blood

A

between 7.35 and 7.45
crucial for normal plasma protein shape

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97
Q

percentages of blood

A

Plasma:
- 55% of whole blood
- contains water, proteins, and other solutes

Buffy Coat:
- <1% of whole blood
- contains platelets and leukocytes

Erythrocytes:
- 44% of whole blood
- contains erythrocytes

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98
Q

what type of fluid is plasma

A

extracellular fluid
has higher protein concentration to interstitial fluid

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99
Q

blood is a

A

colloid mixture
contains dispersed proteins

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100
Q

plasma proteins examples

A

albumin
globulins
fibrinogen
other clotting proteins, enzymes, and some hormones

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101
Q

most plasma proteins are produced in

A

the liver
some may be produced by leukocytes or other organs

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102
Q

colloid osmotic pressure

A

prevents loss of fluid from blood as it moves through capillaries
- helps maintain blood volume and blood pressure

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103
Q

colloid osmotic pressure can be

A

decreased with certain diseases resulting in fluid loss from blood and tissue swelling

  • liver disease
  • kidney diseases
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104
Q

albumins

A

most abundant
exert greatest colloid osmotic pressure
act as transport proteins for some lipids, hormones, and ions

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105
Q

globulins

A
  • second largest group
  • smaller alpha-globulins and larger beta-globulins that transport water insoluble molecules, hormones, metals, ions
  • gamma-globulins (immunoglobulins or antibodies) - body defense
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106
Q

fibrinogen

A
  • 4% of plasma proteins
  • blood clot formation
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107
Q

serum

A

plasma with clotting proteins removed

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108
Q

hemopoiesis

A

production of formed elements

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109
Q

where does hemopoiesis occur

A

red bone marrow of certain bones

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110
Q

hemocytoblasts

A

stem cells/pluriopotent - can differentiate into many types of cells
produces myeloid and lymphoid line

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111
Q

myeloid line

A

forms erythrocytes, all leukocytes except lymphocytes, and megakaryocytes (platelet producing cells)

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112
Q

lymphoid line

A

only produce lymphocytes

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113
Q

erythrocytes are formed by

A

erythropoiesis

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114
Q

platelets are formed by

A

thrombopoiesis

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115
Q

leukocytes are formed by

A

leukopoesis

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116
Q

platelet formation

A

megakaryocytes line blood vessels where appendages on megakaryocytes fall into called proplatelets
as blood pushes through proplaets break off forming platelets within blood

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117
Q

erythrocytes

A
  • contain hemoglobin
  • biconcave disc structure
  • contain spectrin for support and flexibility
  • can stack and line up in single file (roleau)
  • transport oxygen and CO2 between tissues and lungs
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118
Q

hemoglobin

A

red pigmented protein
- oxygenated when maximally loaded with oxygen
- termed deoxygenated when some oxygen is lost
- composed of 4 globin proteins with 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains each containing a heme group with iron in its center

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119
Q

makeup of hemoglobin

A

oxygen binds to iron in center of hemoglobin, so each hemoglobin can bind to 4 oxygen molecule

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120
Q

oxygen binds to iron

A

binding is weak
rapid attachment in lungs and rapid detachment in body tissues

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121
Q

carbon dioxide binds to globin protein

A

binding is weak
attachment in body tissue and detachment in lungs

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122
Q

EPO regulation of erythrocyte production

A
  1. decreased blood oxygen levels
  2. kidney detects decreased blood O2
  3. kidney cells release EPO into blood
  4. EPO stimulates red bone marrow to increase the rate of production of erythrocytes
  5. increased numbers of erythrocytes enter the circulation, during which time the lungs oxygenate erythrocytes and blood O2 levels increase
  6. increased O2 levels are detected by kidney, stopping EPO release (negative feedback)
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123
Q

erythrocyte recycling

A
  1. eryhtrocytes form in red bone marrow
  2. they circulate in blood for about 120 days
  3. aged erythrocytes are phagocytized by macrophages in the liver and spleen. the three components of hemoglobin are separated (globin, heme, iron)
  4. each of separated coponents of hemoglobin have different fate
    - globin proteins: broken down into amino acids and enter the blood (potential use to make new erythrocytes)
    - iron: small amounts of iron are lost in sweat, urine, and feces daily; also lost during injury or mestruation
    - heme: converted to biliverdin then bilirubin which is transported to liver by albumin and released as bile into small intestine. then bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen in small intestine (some urobilinogen absorbed back into blood and converted into urobilin and excreted in urine, most continues in large intense and is converted into stercobilin and expelled in feces)
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124
Q

type A

A

surface antigen A
anti B antibodies

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125
Q

type B

A

surface antigen B
anti A antibodies

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126
Q

type AB

A

surface antigens A and B
no anti A or anti B

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127
Q

type O

A

no surface antigens
anti A and anti B

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128
Q

Rh blood type

A

presence or absence of Rh factor (antigen D) deterines if blood is + or -
antibodies to Rh are not usually there (only appear after Rh exposure to Rh+ blood)

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129
Q

agglutination in transfusion reaction

A

if patient is type B and is given type A blood…
- anti A antibodies in plasma will attach to type A erythrocytes and cause a clumping of erythrocytes creating a blockage in small vessels

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130
Q

leukocytes

A

defend against pathogen
motile and flexible - most not in blood but in tissues

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131
Q

leukocytes have ability to perform

A

diapedesis and chemotaxis

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132
Q

diapedesis

A

process of squeezing through blood vessel wall

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133
Q

chemotaxis

A

attraction of leukocytes to chemical at an infection site

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134
Q

neutrophils

A

phagocytize pathogens
most abundant leukocyte

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135
Q

eospinophils

A

phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and allergens
present in cases of parasitic infection

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136
Q

basophils

A

release histamines (vasodilator increasing capillary permeability) and heparin (anticoagulant)

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137
Q

granulocytes

A

neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils

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138
Q

agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes
monocytes

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139
Q

lymphocytes

A

coordinate immune cell acitivty
attack pathogens and abnormal infected cells
produce antibodies

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140
Q

monocytes

A

exit blood vessels and become macrophages
phagocytize pathogens

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141
Q

Most abundant to least abundant leukocytes

A

neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils

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142
Q

platelets are stored in

A

spleen

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143
Q

circulation of platelets

A

circulate for 8-10 days and then broken down and recycled

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144
Q

platelets play a major role in

A

blood clotting

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145
Q

hemostasis

A

stoppage of bleeding

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146
Q

phases of hemostasis

A

vascular spasm
platelet plug formation
coagulation phase

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147
Q

hemostasis steps

A
  1. Vascular spasm
    - blood vessel constricts to limit blood escaping
  2. Platelet plug formation
    - platelets arrive at site of injury and stick to exposed collagen fibers
  3. Coagulation
    - coagulation cascade converts inactive proteins to active forms, leading to production of fibrin strands of a blood clot
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148
Q

vascular spasm

A
  • 1st phase
  • lasts from few to many minutes
  • greater vasoconstriction with greater vessel damage
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149
Q

platelet plug formation

A

when blood vessel is damaged collagen fibers are exposed causing platelets to stick to collagen with help of von Willebrand factor where they develop long processes allowing for better adhesion where platelets continue to aggregate there

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150
Q

when blood vessel is uninjured platelet activation is

A

inhibited as a result of prostacyclin which repels platelets and causes endothelial cells and platelets to make cAMP which inhibits platelet activation

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151
Q

platelet activation

A

platelets cytosol degranulates and releases chemicals causing
- prolonged vascular spasms
- attraction of other platelets
- coagulation stimulation
- reparation of blood vessels

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152
Q

platelet plug is formed typically within

A

1 minute
prevented from getting to large by prostacyclin

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153
Q

serotonin and thromboxane A2 causes

A

prolonged vascular spasms in platelet activation

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154
Q

adenosine triphosphate (ADP) and thromboxane causes

A

attraction of other platelets and facilitate their degranulation (positive feedback)

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155
Q

procoagulants stimulate

A

coagulation

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156
Q

mitosis stimulating substances trigger

A

repair of blood vessel

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157
Q

coagulation

A

blood clotting
network of fibrin (insoluble protein that comes from fibrinogen) forms a mesh that traps erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, and plasma proteins to form a clot

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158
Q

subsances involved in coagulation

A
  • calcium, clotting factors, vitamin K
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159
Q

clotting factors

A

most inactive enzymes
most produced in liver within hepatocytes

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160
Q

vitamin K

A

fat soluble coenzyme required for synthesiss of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X

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161
Q

intrinsic coagulation pathway

A

initiated by damage to inside of blood vessel

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162
Q

extrinsic coagulation pathway

A

initiated by damage to tissue outside of vessel

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163
Q

clot elimination includes

A

clot retraction and fibrinolysis

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164
Q

clot retraction

A

actinomyosin (protein with platelets) contracts and squeezes serum out of developing clot making it smaller

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165
Q

fibrinolysis

A

degradation of fibrin strands by plasmin
begins within 2 days after clot formation
occurs slowly over a number of days

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166
Q

four chambers of the heart

A

left atrium and right atrium
left ventricles and right ventricles

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167
Q

left atrium and right atrium are superior chambers that

A

receive blood and send it to ventricles

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168
Q

left ventricle and right ventricles are inferior chambers that pump blood

A

away

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169
Q

left side of the heart has

A

oxygenated blood

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170
Q

right side of the heart has

A

deoxygenated blood

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171
Q

right side

A

receives deoxygenated blood from body and pumps it to the lungs

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172
Q

left side

A

receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it into the body

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173
Q

atrioventricular valves are between

A

atria and ventricles

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174
Q

semilunar valves are between

A

ventricle and an arteriole trunk
pulmonary semilunar valve and aortic semilunar valve

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175
Q

right AV is sometimes called

A

tricuspid

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176
Q

left AV valve sometimes called

A

bicuspid
mitral

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177
Q

flow of blood through heart and lungs

A
  1. deoxygenated blood enters the atrium through IVC and SVC
  2. blood within right atrium enters right ventricle through right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid)
  3. blood enters ventricle is pumped through pulmonary semilunar valve into the lungs
  4. deoxygenated blood enters lungs where it flows through capillaries and becomes oxygenated and enters back into the heart in the left atrium
  5. blood within left atrium is pumped into ventricles via left atrioventricular valve (mitral, bicuspid)
  6. blood within ventricles is then pumped out via the aortic semilunar valve throughout the body where further gas exchange occurs as blood is delievered to body systems and deoxygenated blood is then brought back to the heart
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178
Q

pericardium

A

refers to 3 layers of the heart

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179
Q

outer layer of heart

A

fibrous periardium

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180
Q

serous pericardium

A

contains visceral and parietal layer containing with pericardial cavity with serous fluid

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181
Q

layers of the heart wall (from deep to superficial

A

epicardium
myocardium
endocardium

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182
Q

ventricles have thicker walls than

A

atria

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183
Q

left ventricle has thicker wall than

A

right ventricle
left ventricle must generate higher pressure to force blood through systemic circulation; right just pumps to nearby lungs

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184
Q

cardiac muscle contains

A

striated muscle due to arrangement of contractile proteins and overlapping nature of thin and thick filaments

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185
Q

sarcolemma

A

plasma membrane containing openings called T-tubules which are infolds of plasma membrane

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186
Q

cardiac muscle contains intercellular junctions that include

A

desmosomes
gap junctions

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187
Q

desmosomes

A

proteins that serve to connect two adjacent cells
become embedded in cell membrane

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188
Q

gap junctions

A

proteins with opening in center that functionally pass ions through

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189
Q

gap junctions are important in

A

contraction and activation of muscle
stimulate electrical current needed for contraction

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190
Q

storage site for Ca2+

A

sarcoplasmic T tubules

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191
Q

cardiac muscle contains

A

intercalated discs

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192
Q

metabolism of cardiac muscle

A

high demand for energy
- extensive blood supply
- numerous mitochondria
- myoglobin and creatine kinase

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193
Q

creatine + ATP —->

A

CK – creatine phosphate + ADP

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194
Q

cardiac muscle is able to use

A

different kinds of fuel molecules like:
fatty acids, glucose, lactic acid, amino acids, and ketone bodies

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195
Q

cardiac muscle metabolism relies mostly on

A

aerobic metabolism which makes it susceptible to failure when oxygen is low

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196
Q

fibrous skeleton is made up of

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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197
Q

fibrous skeleton provides

A

structural support at boundary of atria and ventricles that froms fibrous rings to anchor valves

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198
Q

the fibrous skeleton acts as an

A

electrical insulator preventing ventricles from contracting at same time as atria

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199
Q

coronary circulation delivers blood to

A

heart wall
- coronary arteries transport oxygenated blood to heart wall
- coronary veins transport deoxygenated blood away from heart wall toward right atrium

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200
Q

conduction system

A

initiations and conducts electrical events to ensure proper timing of contractions

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201
Q

conduction system contains specialized cardiac

A

muscle cells that have action potentials but do not contract

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202
Q

conduction system activity is influenced by

A

autonomic nervous system

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203
Q

components of conduction system

A

SA node
AV node
AV bundle (bundle of His)
R and L bundle branches
Purkinje fibers

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204
Q

SA node

A

pacemaker
tissue in posterior wall of atrium that starts generating action potential

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205
Q

what part of the brain contains the cardiac center

A

medulla oblongata

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206
Q

the cardiac center of the medulla contains

A
  1. cardioacceleratory
  2. cardioinhibitory centers
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207
Q

the cardiac center of medulla receives signals from

A

baroreceptors and chemoreceptors in CV system

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208
Q

the cardiac center sends signals via

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways

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209
Q

the cardiac center ______ cardiac activity

A

modifies
- influences rate and force of hearts contractions

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210
Q

what influences the rate and force of heart contractions

A

cardiac center

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211
Q

what kind of nerve innervation decreases heart rate

A

parasympathetic

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212
Q

what kind of nerve innervation increases heart rate and force of contraction

A

sympathetic

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213
Q

steps of heart contraction

A

Conduction system
1. initiation - SA node generates action potential
2. spread of action potential - action potential is propagated throughout the atria and the conduction system

Cardiac Muscle Cell
1. action potential - action potential is propagated across the sarcolemma of cardiac muscle cells
2. thin filaments slide past thick filaments and sarcomeres shorten within cardiac muscle cells

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214
Q

RMP of nodal cells

A

-60mV

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215
Q

the sodium concentration is great inside or outside of a nodal cell

A

greater concentration of Na+ outside of cell

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216
Q

SA Node Cellular Activity

A
  1. RMP @ -60mV
  2. increase (depolarization)
  3. MP reaches threshold (-40mV) - repolarization
  4. when cell becomes negative enough ation potential is generated
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217
Q

pacemaker potential

A

time it takes for SA node to go from -40mV to threshold voltage

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218
Q

steps of SA node generating action potential

A
  1. Reaching threshold
    - slow voltage gated Na+ channels open
    - inflow of Na+ changes membrane potential from -60mV to -40mV
  2. Depolarization
    - fast voltage gated Ca2+ channels open. inflow of Ca2+ changes membrane potential from -40mV to just above 0mV
  3. Repolarization
    - fast voltage gated Ca2+ close. voltage gated K+ channels open allowing K+ outflow. MP returns to -60mV and K+ channels close
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219
Q

RMP of cardiac muscle cell

A

-90mV

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220
Q

at RMP of cardiac muscle cell, all Na+ is

A

closed so concentration gradient for ions remains table so ions aren’t moving through creating action potential

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221
Q

electrical events of cardiac muscle cell

A
  1. Depolarization
    - starts @ - 90mV and rapidly reaches +30mV
  2. Plateau
    - almost no change during period of time
  3. Repolarization
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222
Q

why do cardiac muscle cells have a plateau

A

helps ensure heart is beating synchronously with all of its components so if stimulated, nothing will happen

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223
Q

steps of cardiac muscle cells

A
  1. Depolarization
    - fast voltage gated Na+ channels open and Na+ flows into cell reversing polarity from -90mV to +30mV. Channels then close
  2. Plateau
    - voltage gated K+ channels open and K+ flow out of cardiac muscle cells. slow voltage gated Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ moves into the cell with no electrical change and depolarized state is maintained
  3. Repolarization
    - voltage gated Ca2+ channels close, voltage gated K+ channels remain open and K+ moves out of cardiac muscle cell, and polarity is reversed from +30mV to -90mV
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224
Q

electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG)

A
  • skin electrodes detect electrical signals of cardiac muscle cells
  • common diagnostic tools
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225
Q

P wave

A

atrial depolarization

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226
Q

QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization

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227
Q

during QRS complex the atria are

A

repolarizing

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228
Q

T wave

A

ventricular repolarization

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229
Q

P-Q segment

A

atrial cells’ plateau (atria are contracting)

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230
Q

S-T segment

A

ventricular plateau (ventricles contracting

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231
Q

P-R interval

A

time from beginning of P wave to beginning of QRS
from atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization

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232
Q

P-R interval represents the time to transmit

A

action potential through entire conduction system

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233
Q

Q-T interval

A

time from beginning of QRS to end of T wave
reflects time of ventricular depolarization and repolarization

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234
Q

the length of Q-T interval depends upon

A

heart rate

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235
Q

cardiac cycle

A

all events in heart from the start of one beat to the start of the next

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236
Q

the cardiac cycle includes both

A

systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation)

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237
Q

relationship of contraction and pressure

A

contraction increases pressure
relaxation decreases it

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238
Q

blood moves ____ its pressure gradient

A

down (high to low)

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239
Q

valves ensure that

A

flow of blood is forward (closure of valves prevents backflow)

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240
Q

what is the most important driving force of cardiac cycle

A

ventricular activity

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241
Q

ventricular contraction raises

A

ventricular pressure
AV valves pushed closed, semilunar valves pushed open and blood pushed out

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242
Q

ventricular relaxation lowers

A

ventricular pressure
semilunar valves closed
AV valves open (no pressure pushing them closed)

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243
Q

phases of cardiac cycle

A
  1. atrial contraction and ventricular filling
  2. isovolumetric contraction
  3. ventricular ejection
  4. isovolumetric relaxation
  5. atrial relaxation and ventricular filling
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244
Q

atrial contraction and ventricular filling

A
  • atria contract, ventricle relax
  • ventricular pressure is LESS than atrial and arterial pressure
  • AV valves open, semilunar valves closed
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245
Q

isovolumetric contraction

A
  • atria relax, ventricles closed
  • ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure but less than arterial trunk pressure
  • AV valves and semilunar valves closed
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246
Q

ventricular ejection

A
  • atria relax, ventricles contract
  • ventricular pressure is GREATER than both atrial pressure and arterial trunk pressure
  • AV valves closed, semilunar valve open
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247
Q

isovolumetric relaxation

A
  • atria and ventricles are relaxed
  • ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure but less than arterial pressure
  • both valves closed
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248
Q

atrial relaxation and ventricular filling

A
  • atria relax, ventricles relax
  • ventricular pressure is less than BOTH arterial and atrial pressure
  • AV valves open, semilunar valves closed
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249
Q

cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped by single ventricle in one minute

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250
Q

cardiac output is a measure of

A

effectiveness of CV system

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251
Q

CO increases in

A

healthy individuals during exercise

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252
Q

formula for cardiac output (CO)

A

heart rate (BPM) x stroke volume (SV) = cardiac output (CO)

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253
Q

patient HR 75 BPM, stroke volume is 70ml/beat. what is CO

A

75 beats/min x 70 ml/beat = 5250 ml/min = 5.25 L/min

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254
Q

stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected in one beat from one ventricle

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255
Q

what influences stroke volume

A

venous return
inotropic agents
afterload

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256
Q

venous return

A

volume of blood returned to the heart

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257
Q

venous return is directly related to

A

stroke volume

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258
Q

venous return determines amount of

A

ventricular blood prior to contraction (EDV)

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259
Q

volume of blood determines

A

preload (pressure stretching heart wall before shortening)

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260
Q

Frank-Starling law (Starling’s Law)

A

as EDV increases, the greater stretch of heart wall, results in more optimal overlap of thick and thin filaments

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261
Q

starling’s law suggests that the heart

A

contracts more forcefully when filled with more blood so SV increases

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262
Q

what factors increase venous return

A

increased venous pressure
increased time to fill

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263
Q

venous pressure increases during

A

exercise as muscles squeeze veins

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264
Q

slower heart rates impact on venous return

A

time available to fill increases with slower heart rate (high-caliber athletes with strong hearts)

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265
Q

steps of venous return

A
  1. increased venous return (occurs with greater venous pressure or slower heart rate
  2. increases stretch of heart wall (preload) which results in greater overlap of thick and thin filaments within sarcomeres of myocardium
  3. additional crossbridges form and ventricles contract with greater force
  4. stroke volume increases
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266
Q

inotropic agents effect on stroke volume

A
  1. positive inotropic agents
  2. increased Ca2+ levels in sarcoplasm results in greater binding of Ca2+ to troponin of thin filaments within sarcomeres of myocardium
  3. additional crossbridges form, and ventricles contract with greater force
  4. stroke volume increases
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267
Q

inotropic agents

A

substances that act on the myocardium to alter contractility

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268
Q

positive inotropic agents

A

e.g., stimulation by sympathetic nervous system

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269
Q

venous returns ____ stroke volume

A

increases SV

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270
Q

inotropic agents _____ stroke volume

A

positive inotropic agents increases SV

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271
Q

afterload

A

resistance in arteries to ejection of blood

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272
Q

afterloads effect on stroke volume

A
  1. artherosclerosis, deposition of plaque on inner lining of arteries is typically only a factor as we age
  2. arteries become more narrow in diameter
  3. increases the resistance to pump blood into arteries
  4. stroke volume decreases
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273
Q

chronotropic agenets

A

alter SA node and AV node activity

274
Q

positive chronotropic agents increase or decrease cardiac output

A

increase by increasing heart rate

275
Q

negative chronotropic agents increase or decrease cardiac output

A

decrease cardiac output by decreasing heart rate

276
Q

increase in heart rate increases or decreases CO

277
Q

decrease in heart rate increases or decreases CO

278
Q

venous return is directly correlated with

A

stroke volume

279
Q

increase venous return and increase inotropic agents effect on CO

A

increase SV which increases CO

280
Q

afterloads effect on CO

A

increase in afterload would decrease SV causing a decreased in CO
decrease in afterload would increase SV causing an increase in CO

281
Q

inotropic agents alter

A

Ca2+ levels in sarcoplasm

282
Q

foramen ovale

A

structure in fetal heart that transports deoxygenated blood from right atrium to left atrium where it becomes oxygenated

283
Q

ductus arteriosus

A

connection in fetal heart that connects aorta and pulmonary trunk

284
Q

arteries

A

convey blood from heart to capillaries

285
Q

capillaries

A

microscopic porous blood vessels
exchange substances between blood and tissues

286
Q

veins

A

transport blood from capillaries to heart

287
Q

walls of arteries and veins from deep to superficial

A

tunica intima
tunica media
tunica externa

288
Q

what blood vessel contains valves

289
Q

branching of arteries

A

branch into smaller vessels extending from the heart where they decrease in lumen diameter, decrease in elastic fibers, and increase in amount of smooth muscle

290
Q

3 types of arteries

A

elastic
muscular
arterioles

291
Q

capillary characteristics

A

small vessels connecting arterioles to venuoles
average length = 1mm
deiamter = 8-10 micrometers
thin wall and small diameter make it optimal for exchange between blood and tissue fluid

292
Q

three types of capillaries

A

continuous
fenestrated
sinusoid

293
Q

continuous capillaries

A

endothelial cells form a continuous lining with tight junctions

294
Q

tight junctions

A

connect cells but don’t form a complete seal
found within continuous capillaries

295
Q

tight junctions contain

A

intracellular clefts which are gaps between endothelial cells of capillary wall
allow smaller particles to pass through, and blocks large particles

296
Q

continuous capillaries are most commonly found in

A

muscle, skin, lungs, and CNS

297
Q

fenestrated capillaries

A

endothelial cells form a continuous lining but cells have fenestrations

298
Q

fenestrations allow for

A

movement of smaller plasma proteins

299
Q

where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

intestinal capillaries absorbing nutrients
kidney capillaries filtering blood to form urine

300
Q

sinusoids (discontinuous capillaries)

A

endothelial cells form an incomplete lining with large pore gaps
basement membrane is incomplete or absent
openings allow for transport of large substances (formed elements, large proteins)

301
Q

where are sinusoids found

A

bone marrow, spleen, liver, and some endocrine glands

302
Q

venuoles

A

smallest veins
companion vessels with arterioles
merge to form veins

303
Q

smallest venuoles are

A

postcapillary venuoles

304
Q

largest venuoles have

A

all 3 tunics

305
Q

small and medium-sized veins are companion vessels with

A

muscular arteries

306
Q

largest veins travel with

A

elastic arteries

307
Q

most veins have numerous

A

valves preventing blood from pooling in limbs to ensure blood flow toward heart

308
Q

valves are made of

A

tunica intima and elastic and collagen fibers
similar to heart’s semilunar valves

309
Q

pulmonary arteries transport

A

deoxygenated blood to heart

310
Q

systemic arteries transport

A

oxygenated blood away from heart

311
Q

elastic arteries

A

stretch to accomodate the pulses of blood ejected from heart and recoil to propel blood through the arteries

312
Q

muscular arteries

A

regulate distribution of blood through vasoconstriction and vasodilation

313
Q

arterioles

A

regulate blood distribution through vasoconstriction and vasodilation

314
Q

precapillary sphincters regulate

A

blood flow through capillary beds
when sphincter contracts, it closes off blood flow
when relaxed, it allows blood to pass through

315
Q

large veins serve as

A

a blood resovior (at rest - 55% total blood)

316
Q

small/medium veins

A

receive blood from venuoles; blood drains into small/medium veins and then into large veins

317
Q

venules

A

receive blood from capillaries

318
Q

valves in veins prevent

A

backflow of blood

319
Q

bulk flow

A

fluid flows down presentation gradient
large amounts of fluids and dissolved substances move

320
Q

movement direction of bulk flow depends on

A

net pressure of opposing forces
(hydrostatic vs colloid osmotic)

321
Q

filtration

A

fluid moves out of blood
- fluid and small solutes easily flow through capillary openings (intercellular clefts; fenestrations)

322
Q

filtration occurs on what end of capillary

323
Q

reabsorption

A

fluid moves back into blood

324
Q

reabsorption occurs at what end of capillary

A

venous end

325
Q

colloid osmotic pressure

A

the pull on water due to the presence of protein solutes

326
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

force exerted by fluid

327
Q

blood hydrostatic pressure (HPb)

A

force exerted per unit area by blood vessel on wall
promotes filtration from capillary

328
Q

blood colloid osmotic pressure (COPb)

A

draws fluid into blood due to blood proteins (e.g., albumins)
promotes reabsorption (opposes dominant hydrostatic pressure)
clinically called oncotic pressure

329
Q

on arterial end of blood capillary…

A
  • blood hydrostatic pressure is > than osmotic pressure
  • net pressure moves from blood into interstitial fluid
  • filtration
330
Q

on venous end of capillary

A
  • osmotic pressure is > than blood hydrostatic pressure
  • net pressure move from interstitial fluid back into blood
  • reabsorption
331
Q

formula for NFP on arterial end

A

net hydrostatic pressure - net colloid osmotic pressure = net filtration pressure (NFP)

332
Q

NFP on arterial end

333
Q

NFP on venous end

334
Q

blood pressure

A

force of blood against vessel wall

335
Q

blood pressure gradient

A

change in pressure from one end of vessel to other
- propels blood through vessels

336
Q

pressure is highest in

A

arteries and lowest in veins

337
Q

arterial blood pressure

A

blood flow in arteries pulses with cardiac cycle

338
Q

systolic pressure

A

occurs when ventricles contract (systole)
recorded as upper number of blood pressure ratio
highest pressure generated in arteries (they are stretched)

339
Q

diastolic pressure

A

occurs when ventricles relax (diastole)
lower number of BP ratio

340
Q

pulse pressure

A

pressure in arteries added by heart contraction

341
Q

pulse pressure formula

A

difference between systolic and diastolic BP
BP = 120/80 PP= 120-80= 40mmHg

342
Q

pulse pressure allows for palpitation of

A

throbbing pulse in elastic and muscular arteries

343
Q

what influences pulse pressure

A

elasticity and recoil of arteries
- tends to decline with age and disease

344
Q

blood pressure gradient in systemic circulation

A

systemic gradient is difference between pressure in arteries near heart and inferior vena cava

  • mean BP in arteries = 93 mmHg
  • blood pressure in vena cava 0
  • BP gradient = 0 mmHg
345
Q

increasing BP gradient is the

A

driving force to move blood through vasculature

346
Q

increasing BP graident increases

A

total blood flow and cardiac output

347
Q

resistance

A

friction that blood encounters

348
Q

resistance is due to

A

contact between blood and vessel wall

349
Q

peripheral resistance

A

resistance of blood in blood vessels

350
Q

resistance is affected by

A
  • viscosity
  • vessel length
  • lumen size
351
Q

total BF equation

A

total blood flow = pressure gradient (established by heart)/resistance (experienced by blood as it moves through the vessels)

352
Q

factors the increase blood flow

A

increased cardiac output
less resistance ( vasodilation, reduction in blood vessel length, or decrease in viscosity)
steeper pressure gradient

353
Q

factors that decrease total blood flow

A

decreased cardiac output
greater resistance (vasoconstriction, increase in vessel length, or increase in blood viscosity)

354
Q

skeletal muscle pump

A

venous side of blood vessels struggle to bring blood back to the heart and needs assistance to be propelled upwards
when muscles contract, it compresses venous walls and blood is going to go in both direction with one way valves having blood be forced upwards

355
Q

respiratory pump aids in

A

increasing venous pressure and propelling it to the heart

356
Q

inspiration increases blood flow to

A

thoracic veins

357
Q

expiration increases blood flow into

A

heart and abdominal veins

358
Q

during inspiration there is more pressure in

A

intra-abdominal pressure than intrathoracic pressure causing blood flow up toward thoracic veins

359
Q

during expiration there is more pressure in

A

intrathoracic pressure than intra-abdominal pressure
inferior vena cava is released of compression and blood flows into heart and abdominal veins

360
Q

blood pressure must be kept high enough to

A

maintain tissue perfusion but not so high that it damages blood vessels

361
Q

BP depends on

A
  • cardiac output
  • resistance
  • blood volume

regulated by nervous and endocrine systems

362
Q

autonomic reflexes regulate BP only

A

short-term
involves nuclei in medulla oblongata
quickly adjust cardiac output, resistance, or both

363
Q

autonomic reflexes meet

A

momentary pressure needs (standing up from supine position)

364
Q

cardiovascular center of medulla contains

A

2 autonomic nuclei: cardiac center and vasomotor center

365
Q

cardiac center influences

A

BP by influencing cardiac output

366
Q

vasomotor center influences BP by

A

influencing vessel diameter (vessel constriction influences resistance)

367
Q

baroreceptors

A

nerve endings that respond to stretch of vessel wall

368
Q

barorecptors firing rate changes with

A

BP changes

369
Q

where are baroreceptors found

A

tunica externa of aortic arch and carotid sinuses

370
Q

aortic arch baroreceptors transmit signals to

A

cardiovascular center through vagus nerve (CN X)
- important in regulating systemic BP

371
Q

carotid sinuses transmit nerve signals to

A

CV center via glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
- monitor BP in head, neck (vessels that serve the brain)
- more sensitive to blood pressure changes than aortic arch receptors

372
Q

autonomic reflexes for BP are

A

baroreceptor reflexes

373
Q

baroreceptor reflexes are initiated by

A

decrease or increase in BP

374
Q

if blood pressure decreases vessel stretch..

A

declines and baroreceptors firing rate decreases
- this activates the cardioacceleratory center to stimulate sympathetic pathways to increase CO
- it inhibits cardoinhibatory center to minimize parasympathetic activity
- it activates the vasomotor center to stimualte the sympathetic pathways to increase vasoconstriction; parasympathetic stimulation inhibited
- the increase in cardiac output and resistance raises BP

375
Q

if BP increases

A
  • vessel is stretch and baroreceptor firing rate increases
  • cardioacceleratory center sends less signals along sympathetic pathways
  • stimulates cardioinhibatory center to activate parasympathetic pathways to SA and AV nodes
  • it causes vasomotor center to send fewer signals along the sympathetic pathways to blood vessels (vasodilation); parasympathetic output enhanced
  • decrease in cardiac output and resistance lowers BP
376
Q

baroreceptor reflexes are best for

A

quick changes in BP but are inneffective for long term BP regulation

377
Q

chemoreceptor reflexes

A

influence BP
stimulation of chemoreceptors brings about negative feedback reflexes to return blood chemistry to normal
- responses in respiratory and CV systems

378
Q

main peripheral chemorecptors are in

A

aortic and carotid bodies

379
Q

aortic and carotid bodies send input to

A

cardiovascular center

380
Q

aortic bodies send signals via

A

vagus nerve

381
Q

carotid bodies send signals via

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

382
Q

what stimulates chemoreceptors

A
  • high carbon dioxide
  • low pH
  • low oxygen
383
Q

chemoreceptor firing stimulate

A

vasomotor center which
- increases nerve signals along sympathetic pathways to vessels
- shifts blood from venous resovoirs to increase venous return
- raises BP and increases blood flow (including pulmonary)
- allows for increased respiratory gas exchange in lungs

384
Q

hormones also regulate

385
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine work with

A

sympathetic nervous system

386
Q

hormones with effect on BP

A

angiotensin II
ADH
aldosterone
ANP

  • influence BP through resistance, blood volume or both
387
Q

renin angiotensin system

A
  1. kidney receptors detect low BP or are stimulated by sympathetic division; renin is released
  2. renin converts angiotensinogen that is produced by liver into angiotensin I
  3. ACE converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
  4. angiotensin II increased BP by
    - vasoconstriction
    - stimulating thirst center
    - decreasing urine formation
388
Q

aldosterone helps maintain

A

blood volume and pressure

389
Q

release of aldosterone is triggered by

A

several stimuli inclduing angiotensin II

390
Q

aldosterone increases absorption of

A

sodium ions and water in kidneys
- decreases urine output

391
Q

ADH helps maintain and elevate

392
Q

ADH is released from

A

posterior pituitary gland

393
Q

release of ADH is triggered by

A

nerve signals from hypothalamus
stimulated by increased blood concentration or angiotensin II

394
Q

ADH effects

A

increased water reabsorption in kidney (less fluid loss, maintaining blood volume)
stimulates thirst center to increase fluid intake (raising blood volume)
in large amounts, causes vasoconstriction (increasing resistance and pressure)

395
Q

ADH is sometimes termed

A

vasopressin

396
Q

ANP decreases

396
Q

what stimulated ANP release

A

stretch of atrial heart wall from high blood volume

397
Q

ANP effect on vessel diameter

A

causes vasodilation decreasing resistance

398
Q

ANP effect on urine output

A

increases urine output decreasing blood volume

399
Q

mechanisms of BP homeostasis

A

cardiac output
resistance
blood volume

400
Q

cardiac output, resistance, and blood volume are directly related to

A

blood pressure; increase in any of these will raise BP

401
Q

heart rate effect on cardiac output and BP

A

increased heart rate increases cardiac output and BP
decreased heart rate decreases cardiac output and BP

402
Q

stroke volume effect on cardiac output and BP

A

increase SV increases CO and BP
decreases SV decreases CO and BP

403
Q

vasocontriction narrows vessel and forces blood through narrower lumen causing

A

increase in resistance and BP

404
Q

vasodilation widens vessel and forces blood through wider lumen causing

A

decrease resistance and BP

405
Q

the longer the vessel..

A

the larger resistance which raises BP

406
Q

shorter vessels …

A

decreases resistance which lowers BP

407
Q

increased blood viscosity increases

A

peripheral resistance and BP

408
Q

decreased blood viscosity decreases

A

peripheral resistance and BP

409
Q

fluid intake _____ blood volume and BP

410
Q

fluid output _____ blood volume and blood pressure

411
Q

function of lymphatic system

A

transport and house lymphocytes and other immune cells
return excess fluid in body tissues to blood to maintain blood volume

412
Q

lymph

A

fluid transported within lymph vessels

413
Q

components of lymph

A

water
dissolved solutes
small amounts of protein
- sometimes cell debris, pathogens, or cancer cells

414
Q

anchoring filament

A

components of lymphatic capillary that anchors and stabilizes the position of the capillary and prevents walls from collapsing

415
Q

thoracic duct

A

drains everywhere except upper right side

416
Q

right lymphatic duct

A

drains right arm, right side of chest, and right side of head and neck

417
Q

primary lymphatic stuctures

A

red bone marrow
thymus

418
Q

primary lymphatic structures are involved in

A

formation and maturation of lymphocytes

419
Q

secondary lymphatic structures do not

A

form lymphocytes but house them and other immune cells

420
Q

site of immune response initiation

A

secondary lymphatic structures

421
Q

secondary lymphatic structures include

A

lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, and lymphatic nodules
MALT

422
Q

red bone marrow

A

located between trabeculae of spongy bone
site of hemopoiesis; production of blood’s formed elements (includes production of T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes

423
Q

t lymphocytes migrate to

A

the thymus to complete maturation

424
Q

the thymus grows until

A

puberty, then regresses

425
Q

cortex of thymus contains

A

immature T-lymphocytes

426
Q

medulla of thymus contains

A

mature T-lymphocytes

427
Q

lymph nodes

A

filter lymph and remove unwanted substances
occur in cluster

428
Q

cervical lymph nodes

A

receive lymph from head and neck

429
Q

axillary lymph nodes

A

receive lymph from breast, axilla, and arms

430
Q

inguinal lymph nodes

A

receive lymph from legs and pelvis

431
Q

afferent lymphatic vessels

A

bring lymph to node

432
Q

an efferent vessel

A

drains a lymph node (located @ hilum)

433
Q

components of lymph node

A

cortex
medulla
afferent vessels
efferent vessels
hilum

434
Q

lymph is monitored for

A

presence of foreign material

435
Q

macrophages remove

A

foreign debris from lymph

436
Q

lymphocytes may initiate

A

immune resopnse
proliferative in germinal centers
cause enlarged nodes that can be felt in neck

437
Q

spleen

A

largest lymphatic organ
contains white and red pulp

438
Q

white pulp

A

clusters of T and B lymphocytes and macrophages around central artery

439
Q

red pulp

A

contains erythrocytes, platelets, macrophages, and B lymphocytes

440
Q

red pulp is the storage site for

A

erythrocytes and platelets

441
Q

spleen monitors

A

blood not lymph

442
Q

white pulp monitors lymph for

A

foreign materials and bacteria

443
Q

macrophages lining sinusoids of red pulp..

A

remove particles, phagocytize bacteria, debris, defective erythrocytes, and platelets

444
Q

summary functions of spleen

A
  • remove foreign particles
  • clear defective erythrocytes and platelets
  • store erythrocytes and platelets
445
Q

in first 5months of fetal life, spleen makes

A

blood cells
can be reactivated under certain conditions (extra medullary hemopoeisis)
- hematological disorders

446
Q

tonsils

A

immune surveillance of inhaled and ingested substances

447
Q

tonsillar crypts

A

invaginations that trap material

448
Q

pharyngel tonsils

A

in nasopharynx
called adenoids when enlarged

449
Q

palatine tonsils

A

in oral cavity

450
Q

lingual tonsils

A

along posterior 1/3 of tongue

451
Q

malt

A

located in GI, respiratory, genital, and urinary tracts
helps defend against foreign substances

452
Q

the immune system protect us from

A

infectious agents and harmful substances
composed of cellular and molecular structures that function together to provide immunity

453
Q

types of immunity differ based on

A
  • cells involved
  • specificity of cell response
  • mechanisms of eliminating harmful substances
  • amount of time for response
454
Q

innate immunity

A

immediate response to wide array of substances

455
Q

adaptive immunity

A

delayed response to specific antigens

456
Q

characteristics of innate immunity

A
  • responds non specifically to range of substances
457
Q

first line of denfense in innate immunity

A

skin and mucosal membranes

458
Q

second line of defense in innate immunity

A

internal processes like
- activation of neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells
- chemicals such as interferon and complement
- inflammation and fever

459
Q

phagocytic cells include

A
  • neutrophil
  • macrophages
  • dendritic cells
460
Q

basophils and mast cells

A
  • proinflammatory chemical-secreting cells
  • releases histamine, heparin, and aicosanoids
461
Q

NK cells

A

apoptosis initiating cells
releases perforin and granzymes

462
Q

eosinophils

A

parasite destroying cells
release cytotoxic chemicals

463
Q

interferon

A

synthesizes enzymes that interfere with viral replication
result in apoptosis

464
Q

complement

A

group of over 30 plasma proteins that are synthesized by liver, continuously released in inactive form

465
Q

activation of complement

A

occurs by enzyme cascade

466
Q

complement activation follows

A

pathogen entry

467
Q

classical pathway (complement activation)

A

antibody attaches to foreign substance and then complement binds to antibody

468
Q

alternative pathways for complement activation

A
  • binds to polysaccharides of bacterial or fungal cell wall
469
Q

opsonization

A

complement protein (opsonin) binds to pathogen and enhances likelihood of phagocytosis or pathogenic cell

470
Q

inflammation is enhnaced by

A

complement as it activates mast cells and basophils and attract neutrophils and macrophages

471
Q

cytolosis

A

complement triggers destruction of target cell
complement proteins form membrane attack complex (MAC) that creates channel in target cell’s membrane (fluid enters causing lysis)

472
Q

elimination of immune complexes

A

complement link antigen-antibody complexes to erythrocytes where cells are moved to liver and spleen where complexes are stripped off

473
Q

complement is what kind of imunity

A

nonspecific innate immunity

474
Q

inflammation

A

an immediate response to ward off unwanted substances
- local nonspecific respsonse of vascularized tissue to injury, part of innate immunity

475
Q

steps of inflammation

A
  1. Release of inflammatory and chemotacic factors
    - mast cells
    - basophils
  2. vascular changes include
    - vasodilation of arterioles
    - increase capillary permeability
    - display of CAMs
  3. recruitment of immune cells
    - margination
    - diapedesis
    - chemotaxis
  4. delivery of plasma proteins
476
Q

cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  • redness (increased blood flow)
  • heat ( increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity within the area)
  • swelling (increase in fluid loss from capillaries)
  • pain (stimulation of pain receptors)
  • loss of function
477
Q

duration of acute inflmmation

478
Q

fever (pyrexia)

A

abnormal temperature elevation
1 degree or more from normal
results from release of pyrogens from immune cells or infectious agents

479
Q

events of fever

A
  • pyrogens circulate through blood and target hypothalamus
  • in response, hypothalamus releases prostaglandin E2
  • hypothalamus raises temperature set point leading to fever
480
Q

benfits of fever

A
  • inhibits reproduction of bacteria and viruses
  • promotes interferon activity
  • increases activity of adaptive immunity
  • accelerate tissue reapair
  • increase CAMs on endothelium of capillaries in lymph nodes
  • recommended to leave low fever untreated
481
Q

adaptive immunity involves

A

specific lymphocyte responses to an antigen

482
Q

immune response consists of

A

lymphocytes and their products

483
Q

adaptive immunity is considered

A

3rd line of defnese

484
Q

branches of adaptive immunity

A

cell mediated immunity involves T-lymphocytes
humoral immunity involving B-lymphocytes, plasma cells, and antibodies

485
Q

cell-mediated immunity

A

t lymphocytes (effective against APC)

produces cytotoxic T-lymphocytes and helper T-lymphocytes

destroy cells through apoptosis

486
Q

humoral immunity

A

B-lymphocytes

plasma cells

produce antibodies

487
Q

pathogens are detected by

A

lymphocytes because they contain antigens

488
Q

antigen

A

substance that binds a t-lymphocyte or antibody

examples:
- protein capside of virus
- cell wall of bacteria or fungi
- bacterial toxins
- abnormal proteins or tumor agents

489
Q

antigens are usually

A

large proteins or polysaccharide

490
Q

antigenic determinant

A

also known as epitope

  • specific site on antigen recognized by immune system
  • each has different shape
  • pathogenic organisms can have multiple determinants
491
Q

immunogen

A

antigen that induces immune response

492
Q

immunogenicity

A

ability to trigger responses
increases with antigen’s degree of foreignness, size, complexity, or quanitity

493
Q

haptens

A

small foreign molecules that induce immune response when attached to carrier molecule in host
e.g., poison ivy

494
Q

what accounts for hypersensitivity reactions

A

haptens
e.g., drugs like penicillin

495
Q

B-lymphocytes make

A

direct contact with antigen

496
Q

T-lymphocytes have

A

antigen presented by some other cells

497
Q

coreceptors on helper T lymphocytes

498
Q

coreceptors on cytotoxic T lymphocytes

499
Q

B lymphocytes contain receptors that

A

directly attach to specific antigen

500
Q

cytotoxic t-lymphocytes release

A

chemicals that destroy other cells

501
Q

helper T- lymphocytes

A

assist in cell mediated, humoral, and innate immunity
(activate NK cells and macrophages)

502
Q

other types of t-lymphocytes

A

memory T-cells and regulatory T-cells

503
Q

antigen presentation

A

cells display antigen on plasma membrane so T cells can recognize it

504
Q

two categories of cells present antigens

A

-all nucleated cells of body
- antigen presenting cells (APC): dendritic cells, macrophages, and B lymphocytes

505
Q

antigen presentation requires

A

attachment of antigen to major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

  • group of transmembrane proteins
506
Q

CD4 interacts specifically with

A

MHC class II molecules

507
Q

CD8 interacts specifically with

A

MHC class I molecules

508
Q

main events in life events of lymphocytes

A
  1. formation and maturation
    - occurs in primarily lymphatic structures (red bone marrow and thymus)
    - becomes able to recognize one specific antigen
  2. activation of lymphocytes
    - in secondary lymphatic structures they are exposed to antigen and become activated
    - replicated to form identical lymphocytes
  3. effector response: action of lymphocytes to eliminate antigen
    - T-lymphocytes migrate to site of infection
    - B lymphocytes stay in secondary lymphatic structure (as plasma cells)
509
Q

plasma cells that stay in secondary lymphatic structures

A
  • synthesize and release large quantities of antibodies
  • antibodies are transported to infection site through blood and lymph
510
Q

activation of lymphocytes

A
  • secondary lymphatic structures house B and T lymphocytes
  • site of activation and proliferation of these cells
511
Q

effector response of lymphocytes

A
  • interaction of T lymphocytes and antibodies to eliminate foreign antigens at site of infection
512
Q

antigen challenge

A

first encounter between antigen and lymphocytes

513
Q

antigen challenge usually occurs in

A

secondary lymphatic structures
-antigen in blood taken to spleen
-antigen penetrating skin transported to lymph node
- antigen from respiratory, GI, urogenital tracts, in tonsils or MALT

514
Q

clonal selection

A

forming clones in response to an antigen
- all formed cells have same TCR or BCR that matches specific antigens

515
Q

activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes

A
  1. First Signal: CD8 binds with MHC class I molecule of infected cell; TCR interacts with antigen within MHC class I molecule
  2. Second Signal: IL-2 released from activated helper T-lymphocytes activates cytotoxic T lymphocytes
    *activated cytotoxic T-lymphocytes differentiate to form clone of activated and memory cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
516
Q

activation of helper T-lymphocytes

A
  1. First Signal:
    - CD4 binds with MHC class II molecule of APC; TCR interacts with antigen within MHC class II molecule
  2. Second Signal:
    - other signal receptors interact and helper T-lymphocyte releases IL-2 which binds with helper T lymphocytes
    activated helper T cells proliferate and differentiate to form a clone of activated and memory helper T cells
517
Q

activation of B lymphocytes

A
  1. First Signal:
    - free antigen binds to BCR; B-lymphocytes engulf and present antigen to activated helper T-lymphocyte
  2. Second Signal:
    - IL-4 released from activated helper T cells stimulate B-lymphocyte
  3. activated B lymphocytes proliferate and differentiate into clone of plasma cells and memory B lymphocytes
518
Q

effector response

A

mechanism used by lymphocytes to help eliminate antigen

519
Q

helper T-lymphocyte effector response

A
  • releases IL-2, IL-4, and other other cytokines
  • help activate B-lymphocytes
  • activate cytotoxic T-lymphocytes with cytokines
  • regulate cells of adaptive and innate immunity
520
Q

cytotoxic T-lymphocyte effector response

A

destroy unhealthy cells by apoptosis
releases perforin and granzyme to induce apoptosis

521
Q

plasma cells (differentiated B-lymphocytes)

A

produce antibodies

522
Q

most activated B lymphocytes become

A

plasma cells

523
Q

plasma cells synthesize and release

A

antibodies

524
Q

plasma cells remain in

A

the lymph nodes

525
Q

plasma cells produce

A

millions of antibodies during 5-day life span
they circulate in lymph until encountering an antigen

526
Q

antibody titer

A

circualting blood concentration of antibody against a specific antigen
- measures immune response

527
Q

antibodies

A

immunoglobin proteins produced against a particular agent

528
Q

antibodies tag

A

pathogens for destruction by immune cells

529
Q

antibody structure

A
  • 4 polypeptide bounds together
  • 2 light chains and 2 heavy chains
530
Q

disulfide bonds in antibodies allows for

A

linkage between polypeptides

531
Q

variable regions

A

gives antibody specificty on antigen binding site
unique to specific antibody

532
Q

constant region

A

area among bottom 75% of antibody structure that remains constant

533
Q

Fc region

A

fragmented constant

534
Q

binding of antigen-binding site of a antibody with antigen causes

A
  • neutralization
  • agglutination
  • precipitation
535
Q

exposed Fc region portion following antigen binding by antibody promotes

A
  • complement fixation
  • opsonization
  • activation of NK cells
536
Q

neutralization

A

antibody covers biologically active portion of microbe or toxin and neutralizes the organisms ability to be pathogenic

537
Q

agglutination

A

antibody cross-links bacteria forming a clump making it easier for organism to be phagocytized

538
Q

precipiatation

A

antibody-crosslink circulating particles forming insoluble antigen-antibody complexes and precipetate them out of solution

539
Q

complement fixation

A

Fc region of antibody binds to complement proteins; complement activated

540
Q

opsonization

A

Fc region of antibody binds to receptors of phagocytic cells, triggering phagocytosis

541
Q

activation of NK cells

A

Fc region of antibody binds to an NK cell triggering release of cytotoxic chemicals

542
Q

IgG

A

major class
75-85%
most versatile - capable of all Ab actions

543
Q

IgM

A

pentamer
best at agglutination

544
Q

IgA

A

dimer
areas exposed to environment (mucosal membranes, tonsils) best at neutralization

545
Q

IgD

A

activates B cells (BCR)

546
Q

IgE

A

allergy and parasitism
degranulation of basophils and mast cells; chemotacic for eosinophils

547
Q

effector response: cell mediated immunity

A
  1. activated helper T lymphocytes release cytokines to stimulate activity of B cells and cytotoxic T cells, and regulate cells of innate immunity
  2. activated cytotoxic T cells release cytotoxic molecules (perforin and granzymes) causing apoptosis fo foreign or abnormal cells
548
Q

effector response: humoral immunity

A
  1. Fab region of antibody binds to antigen causing several consquences including neutralization of microbial cells, agglutination of cells, and precipitation of particles
  2. Fc region of antibody serves as point of interaction with several structures including complement activation, bidning of phagocytic cells to cause phagocytosis of unwanted substances, and binding of NK cells to induce apoptosis of unwanted cell
549
Q

memory results from

A

formation of long-lived army of lymphocytes upon immune activation

550
Q

adaptive immunity activation requirs

A

contact between lymphocyte and antigen
(lag time btwn first exposure of host and direct contact with lymphocyte)

551
Q

activation of adaptive immunity leads to

A

formation of many memory cells against specific antigen

552
Q

with subsequent antigen exposure

A
  • many memory cells make contact with antigen more rapidly producing powerful secondary response (pathogen is typically eliminated before disease symptoms develop)
553
Q

what is the most effective way to develop memory

554
Q

antibody titer in primary and secondary response

A

Primary:
lag phase long
IgM increase
then high IgG
then lowers

Secondary:
lag phase shorter
immediate high IgG
lower levels of IgM

555
Q

active immunity

A

production of memory cells due to contact with antigen

556
Q

branches of active immunity

A

naturally acquired- direct exposure to antigen
artificially acquired- vaccine

557
Q

passive immunity

A

no production of memory cells, antibodies from another person or animal

558
Q

passive immunity branches

A

naturally acquired - transfer from mother to child across placenta or breast milk
artificially acquired - transfer of serum containing antibody from another person or animal

559
Q

acute hypersensitivity

A
  • allergy
  • overreaction of immune system to noninfectious substance, allergen
560
Q

autoimmune disorders

A

immune system is lacking tolerance for specific self-antigen which initiates response as if cells were foreign
due to cross reactivity, altered self-antigens or entering areas of immune privledge

561
Q

cross reactivity

A

pathogen is so structurally similar, immune system doesn’t recognize that it is self
e.g., rheumatic heart disease

562
Q

altered self-antigen

A

something alters makeup of shape or makeup of antigen (either random mutation or from infection) causing cell to become foreign
e.g., type 1 diabetes

563
Q

areas of immune privledge

A

some areas are not involved in immune response
ovaries, testes, etc.

564
Q

aqcuired immunodeficiency syndrome

A

life threatening illness that results from human immunodeficiency virus
- destrys helper T cells
- resides in body fluids
- transmitted through intercourse, needle sharing, breastfeedings, placenta

565
Q

HIV become AIDS when

A

helper T cells drop below a certain levels

566
Q

HIV tests look for

A

HIV antibodies in blood

567
Q

AIDS patients have many

A

CNS complications and are prey to opportunistic infections

568
Q

functions of GI tract

A
  • ingestion
  • motility
  • secretions
  • digestion
  • absorption
  • elimination
569
Q

ingestion

A

introduction of solid and liquid nutrients into oral cavity
first step in process of digesting and absorbing nutrients

570
Q

motility

A

voluntary and involuntary muscle contractions
mixing and moving material through GI tract

571
Q

secretion

A

process of producing and releasing fluid products facilitating digestion
e.g., digestive enzymes, acid, bile

572
Q

digestion

A

breakdown of ingested food into smaller structures
mechanical and chemical

573
Q

mechanical digestion

A

materially physically broken down by chewing and mixing

574
Q

chemical digestion

A

involves specific enzyme to break chemical bonds
change large complex molecules into smaller molecules

575
Q

absorption

A

transport of digested molecules, electrolytes, vitmains, water
move from GI tract into blood or lymph

576
Q

elimination

A

expulsion of indigestible coponents that are not absorbed

577
Q

accessory digestive organs

A

teeth
tongue
salivary glands
liver
gallbladder
pancreas

578
Q

GI tract or alimentery canal

A

where food actually passes through
- oral cavity
- pharynx
- esophagous
- stomach
- small intestine
- large intestine
- anal canal

579
Q

tunics (deep to superfifical)

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
serosa

580
Q

enteric nervous system

A
  • submucosal plexus and myenteric plexus
  • baroreceptors and chemoreceptors detect changes in tract wall (stretch) and chemical makeup of lumen content
  • sensory and motor neurons
581
Q

inner circular muscle layer thickened at several points to form

A

sphincter which closes off lumen and controls movement of material into next section of GI tract

582
Q

motility involves

A

peristalsis and mixing

583
Q

peristalsis

A

involves wave of contraction that moves bolus along
propels food

584
Q

mixing

A

not designed to propel food but initiate mixing with secretions in both directions

585
Q

peristalsis and mixing both

A

occur at same time in different areas of GI tract

586
Q

oral cavity and salivary glands

A
  • where mechanical digestion begins
  • saliva secreted from salivary glands in response to food
  • contains salivary amylase, enzyme initiating digestion of starch
  • mixed with ingested materials to form bolus
587
Q

pharynx

A
  • bolus moved here where swallowing occurs
  • mucus secreted here to facilitate swallowing
588
Q

esophagous

A

bolus transported from pharynx to esophagous into stomach
lubricated by mucus secretions

589
Q

stomach

A

bolus is mixed with gastric secertions by smooth muscle contractions
secretions produced by epithelial cells of stomach
chyme formed from mixing

590
Q

duodenum

A

part of upper GI tract

591
Q

vestibule

A

region behind lip and in front of teeth

592
Q

hard palate

A

bone covered by mucous membrane

593
Q

soft palate

A

located posteriorly and is a soft tissue that forms uvula where it ends

594
Q

tongue

A

skeletal muscle under voluntary control

595
Q

saliva

A
  • mostly produced during mealtime
  • 99.5% water and mixture of solutes
  • salivary amylase, lysozyme, mucin added
596
Q

saliva function

A
  • moistens ingested food to help become bolus
  • initiates chemical breakdown of starch (chemical digestion)
  • food molecules dissolved here so taste receptors stimulated
  • cleanses oral cavity structures
  • antibacterial subtances inhibit bacterial growth (lysozyme, antibodies)
597
Q

salivary glands

A

parotid salivary gland (attaches to roof of mouth)
sublingual salivary glands ( attaches below tongue)
submandibular salivary duct

598
Q

mechanical digestion

A

mastication

599
Q

mastication

A

chewing
mechanically reducles bulk to facilitate swallowing
requires coordinated activies of teeth, jaw, lips, tongue, cheeks

600
Q

chewing increases

A
  • surface area to facilitate exposure to digestive enzymes
  • salivation
601
Q

mastication is controlled by

A

nuclei in medulla and pons
mastication center^

602
Q

phases of swallowing

A
  1. voluntary phase
  2. pharyngeal phase
  3. esophageal phase
603
Q

voluntary phase

A

bolus of food is pushed by tongue against hard palata and then moves toward oropharynx

604
Q

pharyngeal phase

A

involuntary
as bolus moves through oropharynx, soft palata and uvula close off nasopharynx and the larynx elevates so the epiglottis closes over laryngeal opening

605
Q

esophageal phase

A

involuntary
peristaltic contractions of esophageal muscle push bolus toward stomach
acidity from esophageal phase in stomach can impact esophagus

606
Q

stomach performs

A

mechanical and chemical digestion

607
Q

where does the digestion of fat and protein begin

A

within stomach

608
Q

how long do ingested materials spend in stomach

609
Q

stomach serves as

A

“holding bag” for controlled release of partially digesting material (chyme) into small intestine (where most digestion and absorption occur)

610
Q

absorption of nutrients in stomach is

A

limited to small ,nonpolar substances

611
Q

gastric folds

A

rugae that allow for expansion of stomach which will happen as food enters

612
Q

pyloric sphincrer

A

where stomach and duodenum meet
controls release of food content into small intestine

613
Q

stomach wall is composed of 3 layers

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
serosa

614
Q

mucosa of stomach

A

contains simple columnar epithelium with invaginations called gastric pits

615
Q

gastric pits

A

lined with secretory cells
collectively called gastric gland

616
Q

what is responsible for absorption in mucosa of stomach

A

limina propria

617
Q

muscularis mucosae

A

contraction stimulates secretion from gastric glands

618
Q

muscularis of stomach

A

oblique layer
circular layer
longitudonal layer

619
Q

layers of stomach wall deep to superficial

A
  1. oblique
  2. circular
  3. longitudonal
620
Q

gastric secretions

A
  • produced by 5 types of secretory cells
  • 4 produce gastric juice, fifth secretes hormones
621
Q

surface mucus cells

A
  • line stomach lumen and extend into gastric pits
  • secrete alkaline product containing mucin
  • mucous layer helps prevent ulceration of stomach lining (protect from enzymes and high acidity)
622
Q

mucous neck cells

A

immediately deep to base of gastric pit
interspresed among parietal cells
produce acid mucin
help maintain acidic conditions

623
Q

both kinds of mucous cells help

A

protect the stomach lining from abrasion and injury

624
Q

parietal cells

A

intrinsic factor: required for absorption of vitamin B12 in ileum (necessary for production of erythrocytes)

hydrochloric acid: responsible for low pH in stomach (1.5-2.5)

625
Q

hydrochloric acid functions

A
  • converts inactive enzyme pepsinogen into active pepsin
  • denatures proteins, facilitating chemical digestion
  • kills most microorganisms entering stomach
  • helps breakdown plant cell walls and animal CT
626
Q

chief cells

A
  • most numerous secretory cells within gastric glands
  • produce and secrete packets of zymogen granules that primarily contain pepsinogen, inactive precursor of pepsin
627
Q

pepsinogen activated by

A

HCl and other active pepsin molecules

628
Q

pepsin chemically digests

A

denatured proteins into oligopeptides

629
Q

chief cells produce

A

gastric lipase, playing limited role in fat digestion (10-15% of ingested fat)

630
Q

G cells

A

enteroendocrine cells that are widely distributed in gastric glands
secretes gastrin

631
Q

gastrin stimulates

A

stomach secretions and motility

632
Q

what activates pepsinogen

633
Q

gastric mixing and emptying

A

Mixing
1. contraction of smooth muscle in stomach wall mix bolus with gastric secretions to form chyme
2. peristaltic waves result in pressure gradients that move stomach contents toward the pyloric region

Emptying
3. Pressure gradient increases force in pylorus against pyloric sphincter
4. pyloric sphincter open, and small volume of chyme enters the duodenum
5. pyloric sphincter closes and retropulsion occurs

634
Q

small intestine

A

small bowel
ingested nutrients reside here at least 12 hrs
absorbs most nutrients and large percentage of water and electrolytes
absorbs vitamins

635
Q

what is absorbed in small intestine

A
  • most nutrients
  • water
  • electrolytes
  • vitamins
636
Q

segments of small intestine

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

637
Q

duodenum

A
  • originates at pyloric sphincter
  • C shape around head of pancreas
  • continuous with jejunum at duodenojejunal flexure
  • most retroperitoneal
638
Q

the duedenum recieves

A

accessory gland secretions from liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and chyme from stomach

639
Q

jejunum

A

primary region for chemical digestion and nutrient absorption
intraperitoneal and suspended by mesentery

640
Q

ileum

A

distal end terminates at ileocecal valve (sphincter controlling entry of materials into large intestine)
intraperitoneal and suspended by mesentary
continues absorption of digested materials

641
Q

small intestine layers

A

contains mucosa with circular folds
submucosa
muscularis
and serosa

642
Q

mucosa of small intestine

A

shape in circular folds
folds contain villi that extends towards lumen of intestine called intestinal villi

643
Q

circular folds increase

A

surface area available for absorption

644
Q

single intesntial villi

A

contains mucosa and submucosa

645
Q

intestinal villi contain

A
  • simple columnar epithelial cells with microvilli)
  • goblet cells
  • unicellular gland cell
  • enteroendocrine cells
646
Q

simple columnar epithelial cells with microvilli function

A

absorbs nutrients

647
Q

microvilli on columnar cells of small intestine make a

A

brush border

648
Q

goblet cells

A

produce mucin

649
Q

unicellular gland cell

A

synthesizes eneteropeptidase

650
Q

enteroendocrine cell

A

secretes hormones

651
Q

large intestine

A

absorbs water and electrolytes from remaining digested material
absorbs vitamins B and K produced by bacteria
watery chyme compacted into feces
stores feces until eliminated through defecation

652
Q

right colic flexure

A

bend of colon on right sight from ascending to transverse

653
Q

left colic flexure

A

bend of colon on left side from transverse to descending colon

654
Q

sigmoid flexure

A

bend of colon on bottom left from descending to signmoid

655
Q

mesocolon

A

mesentary attachments (CT holding things in place)

656
Q

liver

A

largest internal organ
covered by CT capsule and layer of visceral peritoneum
production of bile is main function in digestion

657
Q

bile

A

secreted by liver
contains water, HCO3-, bile pigments, cholesterol, bile salts, lecithin, and mucin

658
Q

bile salts and lecithin help

A

mechanically digest lipids

659
Q

gallbladder

A

saclike organ attached to inferior surface. of liver
stores, concentrates, and releases bile produced in liver

660
Q

cystic duct

A

connects gallbladder to common bile duct

661
Q

sphincter valve/hepatopancreatic sphincter

A

controls flow of bile into and out of gallbladder

662
Q

pancreas

A

endocrine function: secretes insulin and glucagon
exocrine function: produces pancreatic juice to assit with digestive activies

663
Q

pancreas regions

A

head body and tail

664
Q

alpha cells of pancreas secrete

665
Q

beta cells of pancreatic islet secretes

666
Q

acinar cells of pancreatic acinus secrete

A

-amylase
- lipase
- proteases
- neucleases

667
Q

duct cells of pancreatic acinus secrete

A

bicarbonate ions

668
Q

pancreatic juice

A

formed from secretion of acinar cells and pancreatic duct cells
alkaline fluid

669
Q

pancreatic juice is made of

A

mostly water, HCO3-, digestive enzymes

  • pancreatic amylase to digest starch
  • pancreatic lipase to digest triglycerides
  • inactive proteases that digest proteins when activated
  • nucleases for digestion of nucleic acids
670
Q

gastrin is secreted by

A

G cells in stomach

671
Q

gastrin is stimulated for release when

A

bolus is in stomach (especially if contains proteins)

672
Q

targets of gastrin

A
  • parietal cells: stimulates secretion of hydrochloric acid
  • chief cells: stimulates releases of pepsinogen
  • pyloric sphincter: stimulates contraction
673
Q

cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by

A

enteroendocrine cells of small intestine
stimulated for release when chyme containing amino acids and fatty acids enter small intestine

674
Q

primary target and effects of CCK

A
  • inhibits stomach motility and gastric secretion
  • stimulates release of bile
  • stimulates release of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice
  • causes relxation of hepatopancreatic sphincter
675
Q

secretin is secreted by

A

enteroendocrine cells of small intestine
primarily with increase in acidity of chyme entering small intestine

676
Q

primary targets and effects of secretin

A
  • inhibits gastric secertions and stomach motility
  • stimulates secretion of alkaline solution from pancreatic ducts
  • stimulates secretion of alkaline solution
677
Q

carbohydrate digestion in small intestine

A
  1. pancreatic amylase is produced by pancreas and secreted into small intestine
  2. pancreatic amylase continues digestion of starch that began in oral cavity by salivary amylase
  3. brush border enzymes complete the breakdown of starch to individual glucose molecules and are responsible for digestion of disaccharides
678
Q

protein digestion in small intestine

A
  1. proteolytic enzymes are released from pancreas
  2. enteropeptidase activates trypsinogeen to trypsin; trypsin then activates other proteolytic enzymes
  3. activated pancreatic proteolytic enzymes (chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase) break proteins into epeptides and aminoacids
  4. brush border peptidases break peptides into single amino acids to be absorbed through epithelial cells into blood
679
Q

lipid digestion and absorption in small intesine

A
  1. bile silts released from liver and gall bladder emulsify lipid droplets to form micelles
  2. pancreatic lipase functions within micelles to digest each triglyceride into a monoglyceride and two free fatty acids
  3. monoglycerides and three fatty acids enter an epithelial cell, while bile salts remain in intestinal lumen to be reabsorbed and recycled
  4. triglyceride molecules are reassembled within epithelial cells. lipids are then wrapped with protein to form chylomicrons which are then packaged within secretory vesicles and then exocytosed from cells and absorbed into lacteals

Human Anatomy and Phys Sp23 (5 decks)

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