Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Human Anatomy and Phys Sp23 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

primary reproductive organs of female

A

ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

accessory reproductive organs of female

A

uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, external genitalia, mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

anatomy of ovaries

A

paired, oval organs
within pelvic cavity lateral to uterus
slightly larger than an almond in an adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ovarian follicles are the site of

A

oocyte production and sex hormone release (estrogen and progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what forms from secondary follicles

A

large vesicular (mature) follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mature follicle contains

A

a secondary oocyte
surrounded by zona pellucid and corona radiata
numerous layers of granulosa cells
fluid filled antrium
completed meiosis I
arrested in second meiotic metaphase
one formed per month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

corpus luteum forms from

A

remnants of follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

corpus luteum formation

A

after mature follicle ruptures and oocyte expelled corpus luteum forms

secretes sex hormones progesterone and estrogen
- stimulate buildup of uterine lining (endometrium)
-prepare uterus for possible implantation of fertilized oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

from puberty to menopause

A

hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) to stimulate release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FSH and LH in oogenesis and ovarian cycle

A

levels vary in cyclical pattern
produce monthly sequence of events called ovarian cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 phases of ovarian cycle

A

follicular
ovulation
luteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how many days is the follicular phase

A

1-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

days of ovulation

A

day 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

days of luteal phase

A

15-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ovulation

A

release of secondary oocyte from mature follicle
occurs on day 14 of 28 day cycle
usually only one ovary ovulates each month (random)
antrum increases in size and swells with increased fluid
expands until ovarian surface thins (eventually ruptures, expelling secondary oocyte)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ovulation is induced by

A

increase in LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

uterine cycle

A

cyclical changes in endometrial lining
influenced by estrogen and progesterone (secreted by follicle and then corpus luteum)
timeline based on 28-day uterine cycle
(varies 21 to 35 day cycle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

phases of uterine cycle

A

menstrual phase
proliferative phase
secretory phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

menstrual cycle

A

days 1-5
sloughing off of the functional layer
last through period of menstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

proliferative phase

A

days 6-14
development of new functional layer of endometrium
overlaps time of follicle growth and ovarian estrogen secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

secretory phase

A

days 15-28
increased progesterone secretion from corpus luteum
results in increased vascularization and uterine gland development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

if fertilization doesn’t occur during secretory phase…

A

degeneration of corpus luteum
dramatic drop of progesterone
without progesterone, functional layer sloughs off starting cycle over again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what hormones increase during ovulation

A

mainly LH and estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what hormones increase during the luteal or secretory phase

A

progesterone, FSH at beginning of new cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

breast milk / lactation

A

occurs in response to internal and external stimuli
start to produce after giving birth
prolactin and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

prolactin

A

produced in anterior pituitary and responsible for milk production
with increase, mammary gland forms more and larger alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

oxytocin

A

produced by hypothalamus and released from posterior pituitary
responsible for milk ejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

primary reproductive organs of males

A

testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

accessory reproductive organs of males

A

ducts and tubules leading from testes to penis, male accessory glands, penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

4 parts of uterine tube

A

infundibulum
ampulla
isthmus
uterine part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

infundibulum

A

lies first on ovary, funnel shaped going upwards
has to catch ovulated oocyte consistent with shape of infundibulum
has fimbriae- splay over ovary surface to help catch oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where does fertilization occur

A

ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the uterine wall is mostly composed of

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

layers of uterine wall deep to superficial

A

endometrium
myometrium-mainly muscle
perimetrium- thin connective tissue covering on outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

mammary glands

A

fat surrounds mammary gland tissue where it is divided into lobules composed of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what kind of glands are mammary glands

A

exocrine glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what brings milk to nipple

A

lactiferous ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is responsible for storage of sperm

A

epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ductus deferens (vas)

A

ends towards abdominal, passes through anal canal and merges with the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

in the male, the urethra serves as

A

outflow for both reproductive and urinary products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the only singular gland in the male reproductive system

A

prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

testes are divided into

A

lobules divided by septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is inside lobules of testes

A

tightly packed seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

where are gametes produced in the male

A

seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

where is sperm found in seminiferous tubule

A

inside tubule lumen
spermatids border lumen
spermatatogonia on outside of lumen, surrounding border or interstitial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

sustentacular cells (sertoli)

A

provide sustenance to germ cells, support them, provide nutritional support, influence rate of sperm cell production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

spermatogonia contain

A

46 chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

speramtids and sperm contains

A

23 chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis and androgen production

A
  1. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH
  2. LH stimulates interstitial cells to secrete testosterone. FSH stimulates sustentacular cells to secrete androgen-binding protein (ABP) which keeps testosterone levels high in the testis
  3. Testosterone stimulates spermatogenesis but inhibits GnRH secretion and reduces the anterior pituitary’s sensitivity to GnRH
  4. Rising sperm count levels cause sustentacular cells to secrete inhibin, which further inhibits FSH secretion
  5. Testosterone stimulates libido and development of secondary sex characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

seminal fluid

A

alkaline secretion needed to neutralize vaginal acidity
gives nutrients to sperm traveling in female reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what produces seminal fluid

A

seminal vesicles
prostate gland
bulbourethral gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

semen

A

formed from seminal fluid and sperm
called ejaculate when release during intercourse
200-500 million spermatozoa
transit time from seminiferous tubules to ejaculate is about 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

puberty

A

period in adolescence
reproductive organs becoming fully functional
external sex characteristics becoming more prominent (breast enlargement and pubic hair growth)
timing is affected by genetics, health, and environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

puberty initiation

A

hypothalamus beginning to secrete GnRH
stimulates anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH
stimulates significant levels of sex hormones which starts the process of gamete and sexual maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

signs of puberty

A

pubic and axillary hair in boys and girls
breast development in girls
boys w/ testicle and penis growth
rapid growth of laryngeal structures in boys
(causes voice to change and become lower in pitch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

menarche

A

first period, about 2 years after signs of puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

puberty timing

A

girls 2 years prior to boys
about 8-12 for girls and 9-14 boys
african-american girls about 1 year earlier than caucasians
onset has dropped with better nutrition and health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

precocious puberty

A

signs of puberty developing much earlier than normal
may be without known cause
may be due to pituitary or gonad tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

perimenopause

A

time near menopause
irregular or skipped periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

menopause

A

woman stop monthly cycles for a year
age 45-55
atrophy of reproductive organs and breasts with reduced hormones
decrease in vaginal wall thickness and uterine shrinking
“hot flashes”
thinning scalp hair and increased facial hair
increased risk of osteoporosis and heart disease
symptoms treated with hormone replacement therapy (not much anymore)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

fertilization

A

two gametes fuse to form new diploid cell
restores diploid number of chromosomes
determines sex of organsim
initiates cleavage
occurs in widest part of uterine tube, ampulla
oocyte viable for 24 hrs following ovulation
sperm remain viable for 3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

phases of fertilization

A
  1. corona radiata penetration
  2. zona pellucida penetration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

corona radiata penetration

A

sperm reaches secondary oocyte
initially prevented entry by corona radiata and zona pellucida
can push through cell layers of corona radiata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

zona pellucida penetration

A

acrosome reaction
-release of digestive enzymes from acrosomes
-allows sperm to penetrate zona pellucida

after penetration of secondary oocyte
-immediate hardening of zona pellucida
prevents other sperm from entering this layer
ensures only one sperm fertilizes the oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

labor

A

physical expulsion of fetus and placenta from uterus
typically at 38 weeks for full-term pregnancy
not all uterine contractions lead to true labor
contractions weak and irregular first
become more intense and frequent with increasing estrogen and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

increased levels of estrogen in labor

A

increase uterine myometrium sensitivity
stimulate production of oxytocin receptors on uterine myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

premature labor

A

labor prior to 38 weeks
undesirable because infant’s body systems not fully developed (especially lungs - insufficient surfactant)
greater risk for morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

initiation of true labor

A

uterine contractions that increase in intensity and regularity; changes to the cervix occur
- mother’s hypothalamus secretes increasing levels of oxytocin
- fetus’s hypothalamus also secreting oxytocin
-combined maternal and fetal oxytocin initiates true labor
-both sources stimulate placenta to secrete prostaglandins (uterine muscle contraction and soften and dilate cervix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

positive feedback mechanism of true labor

A
  1. control center - fetus’s hypothalamus and mother’s hypothalamus both secrete oxytocin
  2. stimulus - oxytocin from fetus’s and mother’s hypothalamus
  3. Effector- stimulates place to make prostaglandins
    Effector - stimulates uterus to contract
    4.Stimulus- Prostaglandins stimulate more frequent and intense contractions of uterus
  4. Effector - uterine contractions cause the fetal head to push against the cervix making the cervix stretch and dilate
  5. stimulus- dilating cervix initiates nerve signals to the hypothalamus which cause it to secrete more oxytocin (positive feedback)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

blood

A

continuously regenerated connective tissue
moves gases, nutrients, wastes, and horones
transported through cardiovascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

the heart…

A

pumps blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

arteries…

A

transport blood away from heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

veins…

A

transport blood toward heart

74
Q

capillaries…

A

allow exchange between blood and body tissues

75
Q

components of blood

A

formed elements and plasma

76
Q

formed elements

A

erythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets

77
Q

erythrocytes

A

red blood cells
transport respiratory gases in the blood

78
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells
defend against pathogens

79
Q

platelets

A

thrombocytes
help form clots to prevent blood loss

80
Q

plasma

A

fluid portion of blood
contains plasma proteins and dissolved solutes

81
Q

functions of blood

A

transportation
protection
regulation of body conditions

82
Q

transportation

A

blood transports formed elements, dissolved molecules, and ions
-carries oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from lungs
-transports nutrients, hormones, heat and waste products

83
Q

protection

A

leukocytes, plasma proteins, and other molecules (of immune system) protect against pathogens
platelets and certain plasma proteins protect against blood loss

84
Q

regulation of body conditions

A

body temp
body pH
fluid balance

85
Q

body temperature and blood

A

blood absorbs heat from body cells (especially muscle)
heat released at skin blood vessels

86
Q

body pH

A

body absorbs acid and base from body cells
blood contains chemical buffers (e.g., bicarbonate; proteins)

87
Q

fluid balance

A

water is added to blood from GI tract
water lost through urine, skin, respiration
fluid is constantly exchanged between blood and interstitial fluid
-blood contains proteins and ions helping maintain osmotic balance

88
Q

what does blood color depend on

A

degree of oxyenation

89
Q

oxygen rich blood is

A

bright red

90
Q

oxygen poor blood is

A

dark red

91
Q

volume of blood in an adult…

A

5 liters
on average males have slightly more

92
Q

viscosity

A

blood is 4-5x thicker than water

93
Q

what does the viscosity of blood depend on

A

amount of dissolved and suspended substance relative to amount of fluid

94
Q

viscosity increases if

A

erythrocyte number increases or amount of fluid decreases

95
Q

plasma concentration of solutes (proteins, ions, etc)

A

typically .09%
determines the direction of osmosis across capillary walls
(during dehydration plasma hypertonic-fluid drawn from tissues)

96
Q

temperature

A

blood is 1 degree C higher than measured body temperature
38 degrees C (100.4 degrees F)
warms area through which it travels

97
Q

blood pH

A

slightly alkaline
pH between 7.35 and 7.45
crucial for normal plasma protein shape (avoiding denaturation)

98
Q

physical characteristics of blood

A

color (red)
volume - 5 L
viscosity - 4/5x thicker than water
solute concentration - .09%
temperature - 38 degrees C (100.4 degrees F)
pH- alkaline (7.35-7.45)

99
Q

centrifuged blood

A

plasma (55%)
buffy coat (<1%)
eryhtrocytes (44%)

100
Q

plasma in centrifuged blood

A

water - 92%
proteins - 7%
other solutes - 1%

101
Q

proteins 7%

A

albumins 58%
globulins 37%
fibrinogen 4%
regulatory proteins <1%

102
Q

other solutes 1%

A

electrolytes
nutrients
respiratory gases
waste products

103
Q

buffy coat <1%

A

platelets - 150-400 thousand per cubic mm
leukocytes - 4.5-11 thousand per cubic mm

104
Q

leukocytes

A

neutrophils (50-70%)
lymphocytes (20-40%)
monocytes (2-8%)
eosinophils (1-4%)
basophils (.5-1%)

105
Q

erythrocytes 44%

A

4.2-6.2 million per cubic mm

106
Q

plasma

A

extracellular fluid
similar composition to interstitial fluid but plasma has higher protein concentration

107
Q

blood is referred to as

A

colloid

108
Q

plasma proteins are

A

albumin, globulins, fibrinogen and other clotting proteins, enzymes and some hormones
mostly produced in the liver
others produced by leukocytes or other organs

109
Q

plasma proteins exert colloid osmotic pressure

A

prevents loos of fluid from blood as it moves through capillaries (helps maintain blood volume and blood pressure)

110
Q

how are plasma proteins impacted by disease

A

can be decreased with diseases resulting in fluid loss from blood and tissue swelling
e.g. liver disease that decrease production of plasma proteins
e.g. kidney diseases that increase elimination of plasma proteins

111
Q

albumins

A

smallest and most abundant group of plasma proteins (58%)
exert greatest colloid osmotic pressure
act as transport proteins for some lipids, hormones, and ions

112
Q

globulins

A

second largest group of plasma proteins (37%)
smaller alpha-globulins and larger beta-globulins
transport some water-insoluble molecules, hormones, metals, ions
gamma globulins (immunoglobulins or antibodies) - part of bodies defense

113
Q

fibrinogen

A

makes up only 4% of plasma proteins
contributes to blood clot formation
following trauma, it is converted to insoluble fibrin strands
serum is plasma with clotting proteins removed

114
Q

regulatory proteins

A

less than 1% of total proteins
includes enzymes and hormones

115
Q

hemopoiesis

A

production of formed elements

116
Q

where does hemopoiesis occur

A

in red bone marrow of certain bones

117
Q

hemocytoblasts

A

stem cells
produce two different lines: myeloid and lymphoid

118
Q

pluriopotent

A

can differentiate into may types of cells

119
Q

myeloid line

A

forms erythrocytes, all leukocytes (except lymphocytes and megakaryocytes - cells that produce platelets)

120
Q

lymphoid line

A

forms only lymphocytes

121
Q

maturation of erythrocytes

A

hemocytoblast
myeloid stem cell
multi-CSF
erythropoiesis
…
eryhtrocytes

122
Q

maturation of platelets

A

hemocytoblast
myeloid stem cell
multi-CSF
thrombopoiesis
…
platelets

123
Q

maturation of granulocytes and monocytes

A

hemocytoblast
myeloid stem cell
multi-CSF
leukopoiesis
GM-CSF - progenitor cell
1 granulocyte line - granulocytes
2 monocyte line - monocytes

124
Q

maturation of B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes, and natural killer cells

A

hemocytoblast
lymphoid line
lymphoid stem cell
1 B lymphocyte
2 T lymphocyte
3 directly to natural killer cells

125
Q

megkaryocytes

A

give rise to platelets and have multilobulated nuclei

126
Q

platelet formation

A

megakaryocytes sit against capillary wall
on small openings on wall, megakaryocytes appendages fall into opening called proplatelets and as blood pushes through capillary platelets fall off appendages and into capillary

127
Q

erythrocytes (red blood cells)

A

small flexible formed elements
lack nucleus and cellular organelles; packed with hemoglobin
have biconcave disc structure
transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between tissues and lungs

128
Q

disc structure of erythrocytes

A

has lattice work of spectrin protein providing support and flexibility
can stack and line up in single file (roleau)

129
Q

why can erythrocytes pass through blood vessels

A

rouleau allows the shape to change

130
Q

hemoglobin

A

red-pigmented protein
transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
termed oxygenated when maximally loaded with oxygen
termed deoxygenated when SOME oxygen lost
oxygen binds to iron (weak for rapid detachment in body tissues)
CO2 binds to globin protein (not iron) - weak binding attachment in body tissue and detachment in lungs

131
Q

each hemoglobin is composed of

A

four globins
two alpha chains and two beta chains
each chain has a heme group: a prophyrin ring with an iron ion in its center
- oxygen binds to the iron ion so each hemoglobin can bind four oxygen molecules

132
Q

each hemoglobin is composed of

A

four globins
two alpha chains and two beta chains
each chain has a heme group: a porphyrin ring with an iron ion in its center
- oxygen binds to the iron ion so each hemoglobin can bind four oxygen molecules

133
Q

EPO regulation of erythrocyte production

A
  1. stimulus - decreased blood oxygen levels
  2. receptor - kidney detects decreased blood O2
  3. control center - kidney releases EPO into the blood
  4. effector - EPO stimulates red bone marrow to increase the rate of production of erythrocytes
  5. net effect - increased numbers of erythrocytes enter the circulation, during which time the lungs oxygenate erythrocytes and blood O2 levels increase
  6. increased O2 levels are detected by the kidney which stops EPO release by negative feedback
134
Q

erythrocyte recycling

A
  1. erythrocytes form in red bone marrow
  2. they circulate in the blood for about 120 days
  3. aged erythrocytes are phagocytized by macrophages in the liver and spleen and the three components of hemoglobin are separated
  4. each of the separated components of heme (globin, iron ion, and heme) has a different fate
135
Q

macrophages

A

cells that are very adept to phagocytize harmful things in the body like bacteria, viruses, tumor cells, cellular debris

136
Q

fate of globin

A

globin proteins are broken down into amino acids and enter into the blood where some are used to make new erythrocytes

137
Q

fate of iron (Fe-)

A

small amounts of iron are lost in sweat, urine, and feces daily; iron is also lost via injury and menstruation

iron is stored in the liver attached to ferritin

iron is transported by transferrin to the red bone marrow as needed for erythrocytes production

138
Q

fate of heme (minus iron)

A

converted to biliverdin - bilirubin

bilirubin is transported to liver by albumin and then released as a component of bile in the small intestine

bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen within small intestine

most urobilinogen continues to the large intestine and is converted to stercobilin and expelled in feces

some urobilinogen is absorbed back into the blood and converted to urobilin and excreted in the urine

139
Q

what percentage of urobilinogen is used by the kidneys

A

10%

140
Q

type A blood

A

contain surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies

141
Q

type B blood

A

contain surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies

142
Q

type AB blood

A

contain surface antigen A and B and no antibodies

143
Q

type O blood

A

contain no surface antigens and anti-A and anti-B antibodies

144
Q

Rh Blood Type

A

presence or absence of Rh factor (antigen D) on eryhtrocytes determines if blood type is positive or negative
antibodies to Rh factor are not common (only there if Rh- is exposed to Rh+ blood)

145
Q

aggulation reaction

A

type B recipient
type A donor
antibodies from recipient (anti-A) aggulinate type A blood from donor blocking small vessels

146
Q

leukocyte characteristics

A

defend against pathogens
contain nucleus and organelles but not hemoglobin
motile and flexible - most not in blood but in tissues

147
Q

diapedesis

A

process of squeezing through blood vessel wall

148
Q

chemotaxis

A

attraction of leukocytes to chemicals at an infection site

149
Q

granulocytes

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

150
Q

agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes
monocytes

151
Q

least abundant to most abundant leukocytes

A

neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils

152
Q

neutrophils

A

granulocyte
phagocytize pathogens (bacteria!!) and release enzymes that target pathogens
50-70% of total leukocytes

153
Q

eosinophils

A

granulocyte
phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and allergens release chemical mediators to destroy PARASITIC WORMS
1-4% of total leukocytes

154
Q

basophils

A

granulocyte
release HISTAMINE (vasodialator and increases capillary permeability) and heparin (anticoagulant) during inflammatory responses
.5-1% of total leukocytes

155
Q

lymphocytes

A

agranulocytes
coordinate immune cell activity, attack pathogens and abnormal infected cells, produce antibodies
20-40% of total leukocytes

156
Q

monocytes

A

agranulocytes
exit blood vessels and become macrophages, phagocytize pathogen (bacteria and viruses), cellular fragments, dead cells, debris
2-8% of total leukocytes

157
Q

platelets

A

thrombocytes
small, membrane-enclosed cell fragments with no nucleus
break off of megakaryocytes in red marrow

158
Q

platelets are important for

A

blood clotting

159
Q

how long are platelets circulated in the blood stream for

A

8-10 days; then broken down and recycled

160
Q

what percentage of thrombocytes are stored in the spleen

A

30%

161
Q

hemostasis

A

stoppage of bleeding

162
Q

phases of hemostasis

A

vascular spasm
platelet plug formation
coagulation phase

163
Q

vascular spasm

A

blood vessel constriction
limits blood leakage
lasts from few to many minutes
platelets and endothelial cells release chemicals that stimulate further constriction
greater vasoconstriction with greater vessel damage

164
Q

blood vessels endothelial wall is coated with

A

prostacyclin, an eicosanoid that repels platelets

causes endothelial cells and platelets to make cAMP which inhibits platelet activation

165
Q

when blood vessel is damaged, a platelet plug is formed when

A

collagen fibers in vessel wall become exposed and platelets stick to collagen with the help of von Williebrand factor

the platelets aggregate and close off injury

166
Q

platelet activation

A

platelet’s cytosol degranulates and releases chemicals
-serotonin and thromboxane A2 cause prolonged vascular spams
-ADP and thromboxane A2 attract other platelets and facilitate their degranulation (positive feedback)
-procoagulants stimulate coagulation
-mitosis stimulating substances trigger repair of blood vessel

167
Q

platelet plug is formed

A

quickly, usually less tahn 1 min but is prevented from getting too large by prostacyclin secretion by nearby healthy cells

168
Q

coagulation

A

blood clotting

169
Q

coagulation phase

A

network of fibrin (insoluble protein) forms a meshes that traps eryhtrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, plasma proteins to form a clot

170
Q

fibrin comes from

A

soluble precursor fibrinogen

171
Q

what substances are involved in coagulation

A

platelets
calcium
clotting factors
vitamin K

172
Q

clotting factors are mostly

A

inactive enzymes

173
Q

where are most clotting factors produced

A

in the liver within hepatocytes

174
Q

vitamin K

A

fat soluble coenzyme required for synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X

175
Q

coagulation pathways

A

intrinsic pathway
extrinsic pathway
common pathway

176
Q

intrinsic pathway

A

initated by damage to inside of vessel
factor XII turns into factor VIII

177
Q

extrinsic pathway

A

initiated by damage to tissue outside of vessel
tissue factor or factor III and factor VII

178
Q

the products of the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway start

A

the beginning common pathway

179
Q

common pathway

A

factor X —— fibrinogen——fibrin—–fibrin polymer

180
Q

clot elimination includes

A

clot retraction and fibrinolysis

181
Q

clot retraction

A

actinomyosin (protein within platelets) contracts and squeezes serum out of developing clot making it smaller

182
Q

fibrinolysis

A

degradation of fibrin strands by plasmin
begins within 2 days after clot formation
occurs slowly over a number of days

Human Anatomy and Phys Sp23 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions