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PCTH. 325 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

____ are H2 receptor antagonists that competitively inhibit H+ secretion by _____ cells

A
  • Tidines ; parietal
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2
Q

_____ irreversibly bind to proton pump and prevennt acid release

A

PPIs

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3
Q

_______ is a prosaglandin analogue that stimulates _____ cell receptors and ______ cell

A

misoprostol; parietal; mucus

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4
Q

_______ forms a viscous gel network by binding to broken parts of mucus lining

A

sucralfate

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5
Q

______ is an opioid that can help diminish propulsive activity to treat diarrhea

A

loperamide

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6
Q

the hypertension subtype _____ is associated with stiffnness of large arteries and adults > 50

A

isolated systolic (SBP only)

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7
Q

the hypertension subtype _____ is associated with narrowing or arterioles and adults < 40

A

isolated diastolic (DBP)

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8
Q

______ Hypertension has no known cause wherase _______ hypertension has an identifiable cause

A

primary (essential); secondary

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9
Q

(increase or decrease) in angiotensin, aldoseterone, renin is associated with hypertensionn

A

increase

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10
Q

increase aldosterone –> (increase or decrease) of Na+ and H20 –> (increase or decrease in BV

A

increase; increase

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11
Q

vasodilator deficiency in hypertension is associated with decreased ______ and _______

A

NO; prostacyclin

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12
Q

Catopril is an example of an _______that blocks angiotensin II production thus ______ secretion. It also prevents inactivation of bradykinin

A

ACE inhibitor; aldosterone

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13
Q

Losartan is an an example of an _______ that blocks ______ by blocking the AT1 receptors.

A

ARBs. ; action of angiotensin II

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14
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide-______ diuretic that prevents reabsorption of ___ and ____ in the ____ tubule by inhibiting the co-transporter

A

thiaside-type; Na+ and Cl- ; distal

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15
Q

Chlorthalidone and indapamide are thiazide- ______ diuretics that work to decrease ____, _____ and ________

A

thiazide-like, BV, CO, peripheral resistance

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16
Q

amlodipine is a ___________ that is most vascular selective and is associated with side effects such as headache, flushing and peripheral edema

A

dihydropyridine

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17
Q

verapamil is a _________ that is most cardiac selective and reduced the calcium influx into cardiac muscle cells.

A

phenulalkylamine

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18
Q

Dilitazem is a ________ that inhibits voltage gated L-type Ca2+ channels and is associated with bradycardia

A

benzothiazepine`

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19
Q

G protein coupled receptors for ______ hormones include ____, _____, _____ and are located on the cell surface

A

peptide; Oxytocin, TSH, FSH

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20
Q

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases include for _____ hormones include ______ and ______ and are located on the cell surface

A

peptide; insulin receptor, GH

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21
Q

Steroid hormone receptors include … bind to DNA and cause changes in gene expression

A

glucocorticoid, estrogen, thyroid hormone

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22
Q

What are the two ways to treat hypersecretion

A
  1. drug that interferes with synthesis or block the receptor
  2. remove/ablate with radiation or surgery 1
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23
Q

Short acting bolus insulin is insulin ______ and should be taken 30-60 minutes before meals

A

regular

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24
Q

fast acting bolus insulin is insulin ______, ________, ______ and should be taken at the start of meals

A

glulisine, lispro, aspart

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25
Q

Intermediate acting basal insulin is insulin _____ and should be taken at bedtime or twice a day

A

isphane

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26
Q

long acting basal insulin is insulin ____, _____ is newer and should be taken once or twice a day because it has no peak effect

A

glargine, detemir

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27
Q

Metformin is an antiglycemic __________ and works by
1. (increase/decrease) _____ gluconeogenesis
2. (increase/decrease) insulin _______
3. (increase/decrease)______ glucose uptake
4. (increase/decrease) _______ net glucose uptake

A

biguanide
1. decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis
2. increase insulin sensitivity
3. increase muscle glucose uptake
4. reduce net glucose uptake in intesttine

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28
Q

Glyburide is an antidiabetic ________ that works by (increase/decrease) insulin release from beta cells

A

sulfonylurea; increase

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29
Q

Acarbose is an oral antidiabetic _____________ that works by (increase/decrease) the breakdown of starches and carbohydrates at the brush border of the small intestine

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor; decrease

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30
Q

Rosiglitazone is an ____________ that is a selective agonist for PPAR and (activates or inhibits) the PPARy receptor to regulate transcription of insulin responsive genes

A

Thiazolidinedione (TZD); activates

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31
Q

Exenatide is an ___________ that binds to GLP-1 on pancreatic beta cells and (increase/decrease) cytosolic calcium –> (increase/decrease) release of insulin-containing granules

A

incretin mimetic; increase; increase

32
Q

SABA and LABAs act as _______ receptor (agonist ot antagonist)

A

B2-adrenergic receptor; agonists

33
Q

When _______ bind to receptors on smooth muscle,
–> release of ______
—> removal of _____ via channels
—-> ( activation/ inhibition) of myoslin light chain phosphatase
—-> uncouple cross bridge = _____

A

B2-adrenergic receptor agonists
–> release of cAMP
—> removal of Ca2+ via channels
—-> activation of myosin light chain phosphaase
–> uncouple cross bridge = relaxation

34
Q

When _____ binds to the glucocorticoid receptor complex
trans-________ prevents translocation of inflammator TF from cytosol –> nucleus and decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines, proteases, ROS
trans-_______ up regulates antinflammatory proteins by binding to ______

A

Corticosterone
trans-repression prevents translocation of inflammator TF from cytosol –> nucleus and decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines, proteases, ROS
trans-activation up regulates antinflammatory proteins by binding to GRE

35
Q

Classical psychedelics are 5HT 2A receptor _______

A

partial antagonists

36
Q

______ signalinng is excitatory and Gq coupled and involves the Ca2+ regulation of voltage gated channels in the _____. It also has a role in drug tolerance

A

Canonical; mPFC

37
Q

______ signalling involves ___ bound receptors for downstream cascades that control cell growth, proliferation and angiogenesis

A

non-canonical; arrestin

38
Q

Psychedlics work as ______by blocking the action of _____ involved in the termination of _____ action in the synapse and inhibits reuptake from synapses and reverses flow by monoamine transporters ______ (MDMA)

A

MOA inhibitors; MOA; 5HT; SERT, DAT

39
Q

Ketamine is an glutamate ______ antagonist and activates excitatory_______ signalling

A

NMDAR; AMPAR

40
Q

MDMA releases ______ and _________ via transporters

A

serotonin and dopamine

41
Q

the _______ pathway is also known as the dopamine pathway and goes from the ____ –> _____-

A

mesocorticolimbic ; VTA –> NAcc

42
Q

Mu receptor ________ in the VTA (inhibits/stimulates) GABA release –> dopamine = reward

A

Antagonism; inhibits

43
Q

respiratory depression occurs as a result of mu receptor _______ in the ________ that interferes with the breathing signal resulting in breathing

A

antagonism; brainstem

44
Q

Buprenorphine/naloxone has a (High/low) binding affinity to MOR receptors as a _________

A

high; partial agonist

45
Q

Methadone is a ________ at MOR receptors

A

full agonist

46
Q

the mesolimbic pathway is associated with _____ symptoms such as delusions, halucinations, disorganized speech and behaviour and catatonic behaviour

A

positive

47
Q

the mesocortical pathway is associated with _____ symptoms such as Alogia, anhedonia, affective flattenninng, avoilition, asociality

A

negative

48
Q

the nigrostriatal pathway is asssociated with ______

A

motor movements

49
Q

the Tuberoinfundibular pathway is associated with ________

A

prolactin secretion

50
Q

FGA are D2 _________

A

antagonists

51
Q

SGA are 5HT-2A and D2 ______ and _______ for 5HT-1A which increases dopamine release

A

antagonists; agonists

52
Q

TGA are D2 _____ and 5HT-2A ________

A

partial agonists; antagonists

53
Q

5HT-2A_______ and D2 ________ increase prolactin release

A

agonism; antagonism

54
Q

5HT-2A_______ and D2 ________ decrease prolactin release

A

antagonism; agonism

55
Q

Risperidone and Paliperidone are examples of _____

A

SGA

56
Q

Chlorpromazine and Haloperiodl are examples of _____

A

FGA

57
Q

Aripriprazole and Brexpriprazol are examples of _____

A

TGA

58
Q

D2 antagonists (FGA and SGA)____-regulate D2 receptors whereas D2 partial agonnists do not

A

up

59
Q

______ reduces mortality rate

A

clozapine

60
Q

Clozapine is an _____

A

SGA

61
Q

Prevalence of disease =

A

= (# with disease)/ (# with disease + # non-disease)
Ex. number eligible for trial / total screened

62
Q

Odds =

A

= Proportion/ (1- proportion)

63
Q

Proportion =

A

= Odds/ (1+Odds)

64
Q

Incidence rate is the instantaneous risk for developping a disease at any point in time and =

A

= number of cases / # years per person of follow up

65
Q

Incidence proportion is the proportion of the population that develops the disease during fixed period of follow up annd =

A

new cases of disease observed during a defined period of follow up)/ N(aka number at risk during the period)

66
Q

Risk ratio =

A

= incidence proportion-r / incidence proportion-p
= incidence rate -r / incidence rate - p

67
Q

Risk difference =

A

= incidence proportion-r – incidence proportion - p
= incidence rate-r – incidence rate-p

68
Q

Disease odds ratio =

A

= [ incidence proportion-r/ (1-incidence proportion-r)] \ [incidence proportion-p\ (1-incidence proportion-p)]

69
Q

number needed to treat =

A

NNT = (1/ |RD|)

70
Q

Clinical research take _____ years and with accelerated approval can be. fastter by ____ years

A

9 ; 3

71
Q

the median cost to bring a drug to market is ________

A

1.1 billion

72
Q

The overall likelihood of approval from phase 1 onward is ____ %

A

8%

73
Q

_____ is the study of rare human diseases with extreme traits. For pain it looks at ____ and ______ targets

A

extreme genetics; lipid targets, ion channel targets

74
Q

____ mutatin shows extreme genetic pain phenotypes that include ___ functional channels, deficits in channel _____ (easier) and deficits in channel _____ (longer)

A

SCN9A ; no; opening; inactivation

75
Q

A clinical trial is an expensive experiment to answer the question:__________

A

does the medicine (safely) work

76
Q

4 reasons for potential clinical trial failure

A
  1. lack of clinical efficacy
  2. unmanageable toxicity
  3. poor drug-like properties
  4. lack of commercial need & poor strategic planning
77
Q

In phase 1 it takes ___ for oncolgy studies ___ for CNS and ___ for ____ to approved

In phase 2 it takes ___ years for oncolgy studies ___ years for CNS and ___ years for ____ to be approved

A

In phase 1 it takes __3_ for oncolgy studies 15__ years for CNS and __33 for opthamolgy to approved

In phase 2 it takes 7__ for oncolgy studies __20 years for CNS and __34_ for opthamology to approved

PCTH. 325 (4 decks)

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