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Operations Mngt > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Implications for Ops. Mgt for Low Price organization strategy?

A

Requires low variation in products and high volume, steady flow of goods

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2
Q

Implications for Ops. Mgt for High Quality organization strategy?

A

Entails higher initial cost for product design, and more emphasis on assuring supplier quality

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3
Q

Implications for Ops. Mgt for Quick Response organization strategy?

A

Requires:
- flexibility
- extra capacity
- Higher levels of some inventory items

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4
Q

Implications for Ops. Mgt for Newness/innovation organization strategy?

A

Entails large investments in R&D for new products

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5
Q

Implications for Ops. Mgt for Product Variety organization strategy?

A

Requires:
- high variation in resource
- Most emphasis on product design
- More complexity
- Higher work skills needed

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6
Q

Implications for Ops. Mgt for Sustainability organization strategy?

A

Affects:
- Location planning
- Product design
- Outsourcing decisions
- Waste mngt

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7
Q

____ is a top-down management system that organizations use to clarify their vision/ strategy and transform them into action

A

Balanced Scorecard (BSC)

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8
Q

What are the 4 perspectives of the Balanced Scorecard?

A

1) Financial Performance
2) Efficiency of Internal Business Processes
3) Organizational Knowledge/ Innovation
4) Customer/Stakeholder Satisfaction

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9
Q

What are the 5 factors of the Suppliers Focal Point?

A
  • Delivery Performance
  • Quality Performance
  • Number of Suppliers
  • Supplier Locations
  • Duplicate Activities
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10
Q

What are the 3 factors of the Internal Processes Focal Point?

A
  • Bottlenecks
  • Automation potential
  • Turnover
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11
Q

What are the 3 factors of the Employees Focal Point?

A
  • Job Satisfaction
  • Learning Opportunities
  • Delivery Performance
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12
Q

What are the 3 factors of the Customers Focal Point?

A
  • Quality performance
  • Satisfaction
  • Retention Rate
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13
Q

_____ is an index that measures output (goods/services) relative to the input (labor, materials, resources) used to produce it

A

Productivity

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14
Q

_____ is the increase in productivity from one period to the next relative to the productivity in the proceeding period

A

Productivity growth

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15
Q

Productivity growth is a key factor in a country’s _____

A

Rate of inflation and standard living of its people

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16
Q

What are productivity measures used to judge the performance of an entire industry or the productivity of a country as a whole?

A

Aggregate Measures

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17
Q

What is defined as the ratio of output of goods to the quantity of raw material input?

A

Process yield

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18
Q

Dismantling and inspecting a competitor’s product to discover product improvements is called ______

A

Reverse Engineering

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19
Q

____ refers to organized efforts that are directed toward increasing scientific knowledge and product innovation

A

Research and Development (R&D)

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20
Q

____ has the objective of advancing the state of knowledge about a subject, without any near-term expectation of commercial applications

A

Basic research

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21
Q

___ has the objective of achieving commercial application

A

Applied research

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22
Q

____ converts the results of applied research into useful commercial applications

A

Development

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23
Q

What are the two critical human factor issues that often arise in the design of consumer products?

A

Safety and liability

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24
Q

“Too much of a good thing” can be a source of ____

A

Customer dissatisfaction

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25
Q

____ means bringing design and manufacturing engineering people together early in the design phase to develop the product/ design process

A

Concurrent engineering

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26
Q

Concurrent engineering is also known as _____

A

Simultaneous development

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27
Q

___ uses computer graphics for product design. Benefit of increased productivity of designers

A

Computer-aided design (CAD)

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28
Q

_____ is used to indicate the designing of products that are compatible with an organization’s capabilities

A

Design for Manufacturing (DFM)

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29
Q

____ is design that focuses on reducing the number of parts in a product and on assembly methods and sequence

A

Design for Assembly (DFA)

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30
Q

___ is the capability of an organization to produce an item at an acceptable profit

A

Manufacturability

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31
Q

System design involves development/refinement of the overall _____

A

Service Package

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32
Q

Explicit Services = _____

A

Essential/core features of a service (tax preparation)

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33
Q

Implicit Service = _____

A

Extra features (Friendliness)

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34
Q

____ is a method for describing and analyzing a service process

A

Service blueprint

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35
Q

What are the 4 steps of service blueprinting?

A

1) Establish boundaries for the service
2) Identify/ determine the sequence of actions
3) Develop time estimates for phases
4) Identify potential failure points

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36
Q

Capacity decisions have a real impact on the ability of the organization to _____

A

Meet future demands for products and services

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37
Q

How do capacity decisions affect operating costs?

A

Capacity and demand requirements will be matched, which will tend to minimize operating costs

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38
Q

How is capacity usually a major determinant of initial cost?

A

The greater the capacity of a production unit, the greater the cost

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39
Q

How can capacity decisions gain competitive advantages?

A

If a firm has excess capacity/ quickly add capacity, that fact may serve as a barrier to entry by other firms

Can increase delivery speed

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40
Q

____ is the maximum output rate an operation, process, or facility is designed for.

A

Design Capacity

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41
Q

____ = Design capacity - allowances

A

Effective Capacity

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42
Q

Personal time and preventative maintenance are examples of ______

A

Allowances

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43
Q

_____ is the ratio of actual output to design capacity

A

Capacity Utilization

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44
Q

_____ is the ratio of actual output to effective capacity

A

Efficiency

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45
Q

_____ cannot exceed effective capacity, and is often less because of machine breakdowns, absenteeism, shortages, or quality problems

A

Actual output

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46
Q

What 4 Facility factors determine effective capacity?

A

1) Design
2) Location
3) Layout
4) Environment

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47
Q

What 2 Product/service factors determine effective capacity?

A

1) Design
2) Product/service mix

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48
Q

What 2 Process factors determine effective capacity?

A

1) Quantity capabilities
2) Quality capabilities

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49
Q

What 7 Human Factors determine effective capacity?

A

1) Job content
2) Job design
3) Training/experience
4) Motivation
5) Compensation
6) Learning rates
7) Labor turnover/ absenteeism

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50
Q

What 5 Operational factors determine effective capacity?

A

1) Scheduling
2) Material maintenance
3) Quality Assurance
4) Maintenance policies
5) Equipment breakdowns

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51
Q

What 4 External factors determine effective capacity?

A

1) Product standards
2) Safety Regulations
3) Unions
4) Pollution Control Standards

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52
Q

______ needs require forecasting demand over a time horizon and then converting those forecasts into capacity requirements

A

Long-term capacity needs

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53
Q

____ needs are less concerned with cycles/trends than with seasonal variations or other variations from average

A

Short-term capacity needs

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54
Q

_____ are important because they can place a severe strain on a system’s ability to satisfy demand at times or result in idle capacity

A

Deviations

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55
Q

The link between _____ and _____ is crucial to a realistic determination of capacity requirements

A

Marketing and operations

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56
Q

Are the following steps a reasonable approach to determining capacity requirements?

1) Obtain a forecast of future demand
2) Translate demand into both the quantity and timing of capacity requirements
3) Decide what capacity changes are needed

A

Yes

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57
Q

What are 6 reasons to outsource?

A

1) Lack of capacity
2) Lack of expertise
3) Low Costs to outsource
4) Risks of producing in-house
5) Low demand
6) Inability to meet quality standards in-house

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58
Q

____ is an operation in a sequence whose capacity is lower than the capacities of other operations in the sequence

A

Bottleneck Operation

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59
Q

Capacity of the bottleneck operation ______

A

Limits the system capacity to the amount of the bottleneck operation

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60
Q

Frederick Winslow Taylor =

A

Father of Scientific Management

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61
Q

_____ gave new emphasis to quality by including product inspection and gauging in his list of fundamental areas of manufacturing management

A

Frederick Winslow Taylor

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62
Q

During the 1950’s, total quality control efforts enlarged the realm of quality efforts from its primary focus on manufacturing to include:

A

Product design and incoming raw materials

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63
Q

During the 1960’s, the concept of ______ gained favor.

A

“Zero defects”

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64
Q

The evolution of quality took a dramatic shift from quality assurance to ______ in the late 1970’s.

A

A strategic approach

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65
Q

Walter Shewhart =

A

“Father of Statistical Quality Control”

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66
Q

_____ developed control charts for analyzing the output of processes to determine when corrective action was necessary

A

Walter Shewhart

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67
Q

____ compiled a famous list of 14 points he believed were the prescription needed to achieve quality in an organization

A

W. Edwards Deming

68
Q

_____ was established by the Japanese to annually award firms that distinguish themselves with quality management programs

A

Deming Prize

69
Q

____ described quality management in terms of a trilogy consisting of quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement

A

Joseph M. Juran

70
Q

Joseph Juran is credited as one of the first to ______

A

Measure the cost of quality

71
Q

_____ was instrumental in advancing the “cost of nonconformance” approach as a reason for management to commit to quality

A

Armand Feigenbaum

72
Q

______ developed the the concept of “zero defects” and popularized the phrase “Do it right the first time”

A

Philip B. Crosby

73
Q

____ developed the cause-and-effect diagram for problem solving and the implementation of quality circles

A

Kaoru Ishikawa

74
Q

____ is known for the Taguchi loss function, which involves a formula for determining the cost of poor quality - deviation from a standard causes a loss

A

Genichi Taguchi

75
Q

_____ and ____ both developed the philosophy and methods of kaizen (continuous improvement)

A

Taiichi Ohno and Shigeo Shingo

76
Q

____ identifies and recognizes role-model organizations, establish criteria for evaluating improvement efforts, and disseminate/share best practices

A

Baldrige Award

77
Q

_____ is Europe’s most prestigious award for organizational excellence. Sits at the top of regional and national quality awards

A

European Quality Award

78
Q

_____ is the conceptual basis for problem solving activities. The process is represented in a circle to underscore its continuing nature and contains four basic steps.

A

Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) Cycle

79
Q

____ is a systematic approach to improving a process. Involves documentation, measurement, and analysis for the purpose of improving the functioning of a process

A

Process Improvement

80
Q

What are the 7 basic steps in problem solving?

A

1) Define Problem
2) Develop measures
3) Analyze Problem
4) Generate Solutions
5) Choose Solution
6) Implement Solution
7) Monitor Solution

81
Q

___ is a business process for improving quality, reducing costs, and increasing customer satisfaction

A

Six Sigma

82
Q

What are the 4 management components of Six Sigma?

A

1) Strong Leadership
2) Defining performance metrics
3) Quality Project Selection
4) Selecting/Training appropriate people

83
Q

What are the 4 technical components of Six Sigma?

A

1) Improving process performance
2) Reducing variation
3) Utilizing statistical methods
4) Designing a structured improvement strategy

84
Q

_____ is a formalized problem-solving process of Six Sigma

A

DMAIC (Define-Measure-Analyze-Improve-Control)

85
Q

In a ____, a physical count of items in inventory is made a fixed intervals (weekly, monthy) in order to decide how much to order

A

Periodic System

86
Q

______ keeps track of removals from inventory in a continuous basis, so the system can provide information on the current level of inventory for each item

A

Perpetual Inventory System

87
Q

____ is an elementary system that uses containers to determine the need for reordering. Reorder when the first bin is out, and the second bin covers the expected demand until the new material arrives.

A

Two-bin system

88
Q

____ is the bar code that is printed on an item tag/packaging that is read by a laser scanning device. Code contains information about the item.

A

Universal product code (UPC)

89
Q

_____ electronically record actual sales. Enable management to make any necessary changes to restocking decisions

A

Point-of-sale (POS) systems

90
Q

______ are particularly helpful in retail businesses to track inventory items and sales. These are alphanumerical codes unique to each business

A

Stock Keeping Units (SKUs)

91
Q

____ is the cost to carry an item in inventory for a length of time

A

Holding (carrying) costs

92
Q

Holding costs include these 6 examples:

A

Interest
Taxes
Insurance
Depreciation
Spoilage
Warehouse costs

93
Q

Ordering Costs include:

A

Determining how much is needed
Preparing invoices
Inspecting goods upon arrival
Moving goods to storage

94
Q

Ordering costs are typically a _____

A

Fixed charge per order, regardless of size

95
Q

____ is the amount paid to a vendor to buy the inventory; can include shipping costs

A

Purchasing Costs

96
Q

____ are the costs of preparing equipment for a job by making adjustments or changing out tools

A

Setup costs

97
Q

When a firm produces its own inventory, machine setup costs are ______

A

analogous to ordering costs = expressed as a fixed dollar amount per order

98
Q

____ costs result from when demand exceeds supply of inventory on hand

A

Shortage costs

99
Q

4 examples of Shortage costs include:

A

1) Opportunity cost of not making a sale
2) Loss of customer goodwill
3) Late charges
4) Backorder costs

100
Q

_____ classifies inventory according to some measure of importance and allocating control efforts accordingly

A

A-B-C Approach

101
Q

One purpose of cycle counting is ________.

A

To reduce discrepancies between the amounts reported and the actual amounts on hand

102
Q

____ models identify the optimal order quantity by minimizing the sum of certain annual costs that vary with order size/frequency

A

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model

103
Q

_____ is used to identify a fixed order size that will minimuze the sum of the annual costs of holding/ordering inventory

A

Basic EOQ

104
Q

The assumptions of the EPQ are similar to the EOQ model, except that

A

Units are received incrementally during production

105
Q

____ are price reductions are larger orders offered to customer to induce them to buy in large quantities

A

Quantity Discounts

106
Q

____ is when the quantity on hand drops below this amount signaling it’s time for the item to be reordered

A

Reorder Point (ROP)

107
Q

____ is the amount of inventory needed to meet expected demand

A

Cycle Stock

108
Q

_____ is the extra inventory carried to reduce the probability of a stockout due to demand/ lead time variability

A

Safety Stock

109
Q

Order cycle _____ can be defined as the probability that demand will not exceed supply during lead time

A

Service Level

110
Q

____ is the percentage of demand filled by the stock on hand

A

Fill Rate

111
Q

____ a flexible system of operation that uses considerably fewer resources than traditional systems

A

Lean Operation Systems

112
Q

Lean Operation Systems = ________

A

Just-in-time systems

113
Q

Lean operation systems were developed by ______

A

Toyota

114
Q

Five characteristics of Lean Operations:

A

1) Waste Reduction
2) Continuous Improvement
3) Work Cells
4) Output tied to demand
5) High Quality

115
Q

What are three risks of Lean Operations?

A

1) Increased stress on workers due to increased responsibility
2) Fewer resources available
3) High chance of production shutdown when supply chain disruptions occur

116
Q

Muda = ____

A

Waste and inefficiency

117
Q

Kanban = _____

A

A manual system that signals the need for parts

118
Q

Heijunka = ______

A

Workload leveling

119
Q

Kaizen = ______

A

Continuous improvement

120
Q

Jidoka = ______

A

Quality at the source/ Autonomation

121
Q

What are 5 benefits of Lean Operations?

A

1) Reduced waste
2) Lower costs
3) Increased quality
4) Reduced cycle time
5) Increased flexibility/productivity

122
Q

What are 3 supporting goals of Lean systems?

A

1) Eliminate disruptions
2) Make the system Flexible
3) Eliminate waste (excess inventory)

123
Q

What are the 8 wastes?

A

1) Excess inventory
2) Overproduction
3) Waiting time
4) Unnecessary transporting
5) Processing waste
6) Inefficient methods
7) Defects
8) Underused people

124
Q

What 2 elements of product design relate to speed and simplicity?

A

1) Standard parts
2) Modular design

125
Q

_____ is a system for reducing change-over time

A

Single-minute exchange of die (SMED)

126
Q

______ activities are those that can only be done while a machine is stopped

A

Internal

127
Q

_____ activities are those that do not involve stopping the machine; can be done before or after the changeover

A

External

128
Q

____ involves the automatic detection of defects during production

A

Autonomation

129
Q

_____ is the cycle time needed in a production system to match the pace of production to demand rate

A

Takt time

130
Q

Takt time is often set for _______

A

A work shift

131
Q

Poka-yoke = ______

A

“Mistake proofing” or “fool-proofing”

132
Q

_____ are safeguards built into a process to reduce the possibility of errors

A

Poka-yoke

133
Q

____ is a system of lights used of each workstation to signal problems or slowdowns

A

Andon

134
Q

______ is a method used to calculate the allocation of overhead to specific jobs based on their percentage of activities

A

Activity-based costing

135
Q

In a ____, work moves on in response to demand from the next stage in the process

A

Pull systems

136
Q

In a _____, work moves on as it is completed, without regard to the next station’s readiness for the work. May cause work to pile up because of machine failures or quality defects.

A

Push Systems

137
Q

Kanban = ______

A

“signal” or “visible record”

138
Q

_____ is a card or other devise that communicates demand for work/ materials from the preceding station

A

Kanban

139
Q

Production kanban (p-kanban) = _______

A

Signals the need to produce parts

140
Q

Conveyance kanban (c-kanban) = _______

A

Signals the need to deliver parts to the next station

141
Q

List the 5 S’s, which are the behaviors intended to make the workplace effective.

A

1) Sort
2) Straighten
3) Sweep
4) Standardize
5) Self-discipline

142
Q

____ emphasize maintaining equipment in good operating condition and replacing parts that have a tendency to fail before they fail

A

Preventive Maintenance

143
Q

____ is the movement of goods, services, cash, and information in a supply chain

A

Logistics

144
Q

_____ is the strategic coordination of business functions within a business organization and through out its supply chain for the purpose of integrating supply and demand management

A

Supply Chain Management

145
Q

Demand chain = _____

A

The sales and distribution portion of the value chain

146
Q

Product flow = _____

A

Movement of goods or services from suppliers to customers

147
Q

Financial flow = ____

A

Involves credit terms
Payments
Consignment
Ownership arrangements

148
Q

Information flow = ______

A

Involves sharing forecast and sales data
Transmitting orders
Tracking shipments
Order Status

149
Q

_____ is the ability of a business to recover from an event that negatively impacts the supply chain

A

Resiliency

150
Q

____ is a function of the severity of the impact and the plans that are in place to cope with the event

A

Recovery

151
Q

Risk avoidance = ______

A

Not dealing with suppliers in a certain area

152
Q

Risk reduction = _____

A

Replacing unreliable suppliers

153
Q

Risk sharing = ____

A

Contractual arrangements with supply chain partners that spread the risk

154
Q

______ means that a major trading partner can connect to any part of its supply chain to access data in real time

A

Supply chain visibility

155
Q

_____ is the capability to deter and respond to unplanned events such as delayed shipment or low stock levels

A

Event-response capability

156
Q

A major risk of unethical behavior in supply chain is that when it is exposed in the media, _____

A

Customers tend to blame the major company with the ethical infractions that were actually committed by the other independent company in the supply chain

157
Q

Steps to reduce the risk of damages due to an unethical supplier:

A

1) Choose suppliers with good reputations
2) Incorporate compliance with labor standards in contracts
3) Develop direct, long-term relationships with ethical suppliers
4) Address problems quickly

158
Q

______ includes evaluating the sources of supply in terms of price, quality, reputation, and service

A

Vendor Analysis

159
Q

____ is perhaps the most widely used international certification

A

ISO 9000

160
Q

____ occurs when two or more organizations that have complementary products join so that each may realize a strategic beneft

A

Strategic partnering

161
Q

The rate at which material moves through a supply chain is referred to as _____

A

Inventory velocity

162
Q

The greater the inventory velocity = ______

A

The lower the inventory holding costs are and the faster orders are fulfilled

163
Q

_____ is when inventory fluctuations become progressively larger looking backward through the supply. chian

A

Bullwhip effect

164
Q

Good supply chain management can overcome the bullwhip effect by ______

A

Strategic buffering of inventory, information sharing, and inventory replenishment based on needs

165
Q

____ lets companies reduce overhead by shifting responsibility for owning, managing, and replenishing inventory to vendors

A

Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI)

Operations Mngt (8 decks)

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