Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Med Surg 2 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

This is an adverse effect of cardiac catheterization via the groin

A

Hematoma or occlusion in the femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This ECG wave that shows the depolarization of the ventricles

A

QRS interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is used to diagnose valve disorders and cardiomyopathy

A

ECG (ultrasound of heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This is a respiratory disorder that requires a patient to be in a negative pressure room

A

TB (airborne)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ARDS or acute respiratory distress syndrome can lead to the need for this

A

Intubation or mechanical ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At patient with sepsis develops tachypnea which is an early indicator of the development of

A

ARDS or acute respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This test is used to diagnose the type and extent of the heart failure

A

ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This test shows the presence of clots in the atrium

A

TEE (Transesohageal Echocardiogram)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This disorder is treated with the use of nitroglycerin, dopamine, bobutamine, dobutamine and Milrinonr which decrease reload, decrease after load and increase contractility

A

Acute exacerbation of heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

alterations in electrolyte levels can cause these cardiac conditions

A

Dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This is a test that monitor acid base balance

A

ABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The area of the heart that is damaged when there is a complete occlusion of the left anterior descending artery

A

Anterior wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This is when there is a loss of atrial kick, and it causes hypotension and decreased cardiac output

A

A fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

These symptoms are clinical manifestation of what disorder, dizziness, difficulty, talking and sudden or difficulty talking sudden weakness on one side of the

A

Carotid artery disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After this procedure, a patient must maintain bed rest in a flat position

A

Cardiac catheterization
(To prevent hematoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This is the lab value that is a protein that measures the overstretching of the ventricles

A

BNP ,
Brain Natriuretic peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Risk for Rupture increases with hypertension in a size larger than 6 cm

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm or AAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A pacer wire is placed in the right and left ventricle monitors for heart dysrhythmias, and will deliver a shock if needed

A

Biventricular implantable cardioverter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This valve is most affected in valvular disease

A

Aortic Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

These symptoms are clinical manifestations of what disorder swelling in extremities and jugular vein distention

A

Right sided HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The risk factors for this disorder include male, gender obesity, and type two diabetes, smoking, alcohol use, ages between 40-65, cranial facial abnormalities, menopause, Afib, nocturnal dysrhythmias, pulmonary htn

A

Sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Priority, nursing diagnosis for left sided heart failure

A

Impaired oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This is an abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of a disease of the lungs, are the pulmonary blood vessels

A

Cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The risk factors for this disorder include alcohol and tobacco use, and Gerd

A

Laryngeal cancer 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A patient with this genetic disorder would have elevated sodium and chloride levels in their sweat, but not in serum or blood levels 

A

Cystic fibrosis 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This is a disorder of the respiratory, G.I. and reproductive system

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Symptoms of this disorder include tachypnea dyspnea in the use of accessory muscles

A

Pulmonary embolism 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This medication is used to dilate the airways

A

Bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A patient with emphysema will have this clinical manifestation due to the use of accessory muscles

A

Barrel chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Your patient has swelling from the side to the knee. What do you suspect is wrong with the patient?

A

Femoral vein, thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A patient with heart failure is decompensating, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention

A

Dyspnea at rest 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

And unconscious patient with Gerd is at risk for

A

Aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The patient with Gerd should avoid doing this at night

A

Eating two hours before bed and sleeping flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with Gerd should do an assessment on which body systemS

A

Abdomen and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Highest risk factor for having Gerd

A

Obesity, smoking pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

These medication is neutralize stomach acid, an hour fast acting

A

AntAcids Maalox and Tums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This type of cancer presents as red velvety patches on the Buffalo mucosa

A

Oral cancer Or erythroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Two common risk factors for oral cancer

A

smoking /tobacco use
HPV virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

This test requires a bowel prep and is used to screen for colorectal cancer

A

Colonoscopy
Bowel prep must be completed or the test must be rescheduled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Alcoholism is a higher risk factor for this type of cancer

A

Gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse in a patient with gastric cancer who is postop

A

Diaphoresis
many reasons like hypovolemia from hemorrhage or dumping syndrome which can lead to hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Post liver biopsy these three things should be done by the nurse

A

Position the patient on the right side
Lay the bed flat
Check for bleeding

Prior to the test coagulation studies should’ve been completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This is the first sign that there is a problem with the liver

A

Jaundice

Can mean hepatitis to blocked bile Duct to primary or metastatic site of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The patient with ascites requires what dietary restriction

A

Low sodium

A patient with advanced liver disease requires Low protein due to the buildup of ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The patient with advanced liver disease needs this medication to rid the body of ammonia

A

Lactulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Post liver biopsy The nurse needs to intervene immediately if any of these are suspected

A

Signs of hypovolemic shock

The liver plays a large role in clotting factors and liver failure means risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This symptom requires immediate intervention with a hernia, because it can indicate obstruction or strangulation

A

Abdominal distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When there are no bowel, sounds this requires what type of assessment to be completed

A

Focused assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This is an abnormal finding after the Roux En Y gastric bypass surgery and requires us to notify the provider immediately

A

Emesis around the NG tube

This suggests it is clogged and we do not manipulate or remove the tube due to the stress on the gastric sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

These medications are used for first line treatment of H. pylori

A

Penicillin metronidazole, bismuth, sub salicylate and PPIs

patients with a penicillin allergy can use alternative like clarithromycin but PCn is the preferred drug 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Colon cancer is more common if a patient suffers from this chronic gastrointestinal disorder

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

These meds decrease the rate of gastric acid secretion

A

What are PPIs?

Nexium Prilosec Prevacid and protonix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This medication promotes motility and increases the rate of gastric emptying and can also be used as an antiemetic

A

Reglan or metoclopramide

Short term use only due to the side effects like Tardive dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This medication can be used to treat the pain and discomfort associated with hemorrhoids

A

Benzocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This medication is used to treat IBS with diarrhea

A

Loperamide or Imodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

This medication is used to treat chronic hepatitis B, and even HIV and as post exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B

A

Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This hepatitis is spread through fecal, oral contamination

A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A nurse, who sustains needlestick injury, is most at risk for this type of hepatitis

A

Hepatitis B

Best prevention is to get vaccinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hepatitis can lead to these liver complications

A

Cirrhosis (irreversible scarring.)

Liver cancer

Liver failure which can lead to hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This disorder can cause sweet fecal, smell to the breath, called fetor hepaticus

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cystic fibrosis patients are at risk for this G.I. complication

A

Chronic pancreatitis due to tubes, becoming blocked with thick mucus, causing the pancreas to become inflamed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

This G.I. Disorder has a genetic component, and has very similar symptoms to lactose intolerance

A

Celiac’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

This female disorder is treated with a minimum of nine consecutive months of oral contraceptives

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

These things should be avoided when taking oral contraceptives

A

Smoking ( DVT) using St. John’s wort and antibiotics (lessens effectiveness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

This is the treatment for Candida alibicans

A

Nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A nurse document to patient’s heart rate is 120 bpm the term for this finding is

A

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman with syphilis who has a penicillin allergy. The treatment for her would include this.

A

Penicillin desensitization

Penicillin is the most effective, and the alternative treatments can be dangerous to use during pregnancy 

68
Q

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old male who complains of decreasing force an intermittent urine stream during urination you suspect he has this disorder

A

Benign prostate hyperplasia 

69
Q

This class of medications relax the smooth muscle in the prostate

A

Alpha adrenergic blocking agents

Tamulosin and Flomax

70
Q

A male patient has a history of angina and is taking Cialis so it is important for the nurse notify him of this interaction between cialis and this drug

A

Nitroglycerin

71
Q

These medications relax the bladder muscles

A

anticholinergics

Oxybutynin

72
Q

A male patient with a history of mumps is at increased risk for this type of cancer

A

Breast cancer they are also at risk first for sterility

73
Q

A male patient comes in to a clinic complaining of burning and itching in the groin area as swollen lymph nodes in the groin with a fever, the nurse suspects, which STI

A

Genital herpes

74
Q

The nurse is caring for a male patient that presents to the clinic with complaints of dysuria and both rectal and urethral discharge.The nurses suspects this STI

A

Chlamydia

75
Q

A female patient is seen in the clinical for a rash that has reddish brown spots on the palms of her hands and soles of the feet with wart like sores in the genital area. The nurse suspects this STI

A

Syphilis

76
Q

A prodromal signs of herpes is

A

Headache

77
Q

This is recommended to decrease the discomfort associated with genital herpes

A

cleanse the area 2-3 times a day with soap and warm water

78
Q

A female patient is at higher risk of breast cancer if which relatives have a history of breast or ovarian cancer

A

Sister or mother?they should be tested for genetic factors if the family members are young when they had their cancer

79
Q

The nurse assesses a patient w a less than 2 cm lump in her breast and no lymph node involvement

A

Stage 1 breast cancer

80
Q

Gardasil 9 is a vaccine given to prevent HPV which is a known risk factor for

A

What is cervical cancer? This works best if given prior to a patient becoming sexually active

81
Q

When a female patient is undergoing radiation for breast cancer teaching must be done regarding this

A

What is good skin care? They are at risk for radiation burns and other skin complications

82
Q

This cancer drug is used to treat estrogen receptor positive adenocarcinoma of the breast

A

Tamoxifen

83
Q

A female patient comes to the clinic with a BMI of 42 and complaints of pelvic pain and bloating.the nurse suspects

A

Ovarian Cancer

84
Q

A male patient is expressing concern over having this procedure done to remove his prostate gland bc he is worried about this

A

Erectile disfunction

85
Q

Over 80% of the male population will end up with this cancer

A

Prostate cancer

86
Q

The treatment for a STI must include education regarding this factor to be effective

A

What is the treatment of all sexual partners at the same time and take the entire course of treatment

87
Q

A nurse of stains, a needle stick injury in the ER and they draw a hep B titer. if the nurse has immunity the hepatitis B the titer will show this

A

Anti-HBs

88
Q

The nurse assesses here to see if a patient with dark skin has jaundice

A

Sclera of the eyes

89
Q

The nurse is going to use an NG tube for feedings. These are some important considerations.

A

Check placement
Keep head of bed up 30°
Hold feeds for large amount of residual
Check lungs for wheezing
Flush q4h with 30 ML‘s of water to keep the tube patent 

90
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient with a transverse colonoscopy when applying the new appliance it is important for the nurse to do this

A

Cut the appliance, opening a small as possible to fit around the stoma

This will help prevent store from sitting on and breaking down the surrounding skin

91
Q

Signs of a bowel obstruction

A

Vomiting, undigested, food, or fecal matter

92
Q

This is a sign of a bowel perforation post endoscopy

A

High fever
We have a bowel, perforation, empty and waste into the abdominal cavity = peritonitis= sepsis

93
Q

When a patient comes in with unintended weight loss, the nurse must do a thorough assessment. These must be done to check nutritional status.

A

Albumin, and pre-albumin

There can be many causes such as depression, cancer, ill fitting, dentures mouth pain, swallowing issues thrush, cannot afford food

94
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disorder include ptosis, diplopia dysphasia

A

Myasthenia gravis

95
Q

What does disorder you see the progress deterioration of the lower extremity and sensory function

A

Guillian barre

96
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disorder, dizziness, double vision, numbness, weakness, unsteady gate

A

Multiple sclerosis

97
Q

This disorder has exacerbations or new symptoms that last a few days then disappear

A

Relapsing, remitting, multiple sclerosis

98
Q

This disorder is diagnosed definitively with an MRI, showing demylenating changes in two separate locations

A

Multiple sclerosis 

99
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disorder that causes enter cranial pressure include ataxia, papilledema, vomiting, headache, decreased level of consciousness, personality changes, hemiphoresis, abnormal reflexes, and cranial nerve palsies

A

Brain tumor

100
Q

The signs and symptoms effect which area of the brain, auditory perception, long-term memory sensation and receptive speech center (wernickes)

A

Left temporal lobe

101
Q

The signs and symptoms affect which area of the brain expressive speech difficulty

A

Frontal lobe

102
Q

The signs and symptoms of fact which area of the brain changes in eye movement

A

Midbrain

103
Q

A patient is having increased intercranial pressure related to encephalitis, so what treatment is required

A

Antivirals

104
Q

This is one of the highest risk factors for a hemorrhagic stroke

A

Hypertension

105
Q

This is one of the highest risk factors for embolytic stroke

A

Carotid plaque

106
Q

This is a treatment that can be use for an ischemic stroke

A

TPA

107
Q

TPA is contraindicated in what patient population

A

Elderly over 80 years old
Diabetics
Patients using anticoagulants
patients who have had hemorrhagic stroke

108
Q

Post stroke. These patients need some of the following medication is based on the cause of the stroke

A

Anticoagulants for a fib
Antihypertensives for hypertension
Antiplatelets to prevent blood clots from forming
Lipid lowering agents to prevent carotid plaque buildup

109
Q

New on side of back pain, radiating down the left leg could be a symptom of

A

Spinal cord tumor

110
Q

A patient who has a cervical spinal cord injury, needs to be watched for this

A

Respiratory distress
Monitor respiratory pattern in airway

111
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury is at risk for this disorder, when they have symptoms of hypertension and bradycardia

A

Autonomic dereflexia
Treatment is raise head of bed greater than 45°

112
Q

This disorder is due to nerve root compression and causes low back pain, weakness, numbness in the affected extremity in ability control motor movement in the affected area

A

Radiculopathy

113
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disorder include photophobia, nuchal rigidity,
Neck pain , fever, headache, change in mental status, chills, N &V

A

Meningitis
Treatment is long-term antibiotics and a cool blanket to help decrease 02 demand in the brain

114
Q

This is a disorder one vitamin B 12 is not being absorbed

A

Pernicious, anemia

115
Q

This is a type of anemia caused by bone marrow produce in an adequate cells

A

Aplastic anemia

116
Q

This anemia requires a diet high in red meat, green leafy vegetables, and citrus

A

Iron deficiency anemia

117
Q

A sign and symptom of this deficiency is confusion

A

Folic acid deficiency

118
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disorder are elevated temperature decrease O2 stat and pain

A

Sickle cell crisis

119
Q

Risk factors for this disorder include severe, cold temperatures, high altitude, fever, dehydration

A

Sickle cell crisis

120
Q

Treatment for this disorder includes 02 via nasal cannula 2 to 3 L and fluid resuscitation

A

Sickle cell crisis

121
Q

Renal failure, diagnosis with anemia is due to the loss of this hormone

A

Erythropoietin

122
Q

A patient who is just suffered a TBI has clear drainage from his nose and ears. What do we expect has occurred?

A

Skull fracture or cerebral spinal fluid leak
it is important to collect this fluid on Gosford testing and this is a life-threatening emergency that can lead to meningitis
Basilar skull fracture has bruising around the ears

123
Q

A tonic clonic seizure last more than five minutes what is our priority?

A

Call 911 because they are going to need an airway
One of the ordered medication’s for seizure activity as Ativan

124
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disorder include Bradykinesia impaired voluntary motor control, and slow. Movement shuffled gait dragon of one or both feet while walking

A

Parkinson’s disease

One medication used is carbidopa/levodopa aka sinemet

125
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disorder include word, recall issues, and not knowing they have been incontinent of bowel

A

Alzheimer’s

126
Q

It is recommended that you have this test done when you’re sleep deprived

A

EEG
This test is measuring the electrical activity in the brain and sleep deprivation, which can cause a seizure activity, which is helpful during testing

127
Q

Treatment of this disorder includes placing the head and neck in a neutral position, and elevating the head of bed higher than 60°

A

Intercranial pressure
Place in the head and neck in a neutral position, and elevating the head of bed more than 60° helps facilitate Venus drainage from the head and decreases pressure on the internal jugular vein

128
Q

A positive result from this test indicates upper motor neuron lesion, which damages the corticospinal tract of the spinal cord

A

Positive Babinski response
Often from chronic alcohol or substance abuse, MS or TBI

129
Q

With this disorder, patients will eventually lose all motor control

A

ALS
They can eventually have difficulty swallowing, and if choking her coughing excessively during meals, we need to check for aspiration by auscultating lungs

130
Q

Hematuria is a sign of this cancer

A

Bladder cancer

131
Q

Paresthesia of the fingertips and cardiac dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms of

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

132
Q

We must restrict visitors who have been sick when someone has this disorder

A

Leukemia with neutropenia caused by chemotherapy
Reverse precautions are used to protect the patient who is severely immuno compromised, and we may need to have no flowers in a diet with no fresh fruits or vegetables

133
Q

One way to reduce your risk of cancer

A

Wear sunscreen, or quit smoking

134
Q

We do chemotherapy prior to surgery to

A

Shrink the size of the tumor

135
Q

Males are at increased risk for these types of cancer

A

Colorectal
Melanoma of the skin
Prostate
Bladder

136
Q

Debulking a brain tumor consists of the use of this type of medication

A

Steroids
Patient on steroids are at risk for hyperglycemia. They are immuno compromise, and we never stop steroids Suddenly they are always tapered

137
Q

These tumors stay in one area and have a slower growth rate

A

Benign tumors

138
Q

These tumors can grow back grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissue and vessels

A

Malignant tumors
They destroy normal tissue, steal nutrition, create their own blood vessels, and survive anoxic or acidotic conditions

139
Q

The risk factors for this cancer, excessive alcohol, use obesity, high-fat, diet, chronic bell disease, history of polyps

A

Colon cancer

140
Q

The patient who has a history of this is at increased risk for bladder, esophageal gastric cervical had neck and long and pancreatic cancer

A

Cigarette smoking

141
Q

Buy limiting alcohol consumption, and secondhand smoke exposure and wearing sunscreen. You can decrease your risk for

A

Cancer

142
Q

This makes you at a higher risk for cervical nasal and oral head and neck and pharyngeal cancer

A

HPV

143
Q

Gardasil nine should be given prior to sexual activity and is used to prevent this

A

HPV

144
Q

This can lead to superior vena cava syndrome, so we have to monitor the patient for shortness of breath

A

Malignant lymphoma

145
Q

The patient with this type of leukemia is at risk for bleeding

A

AML
Due to low levels of platelets

146
Q

A patient reports seen a blue shadow before having a seizure this is called

A

Aura
This can be visual, auditory, or olfactory

147
Q

The patient has just had an olfactory aura so we should implement what seizure precautions

A

Lower the patient to the ground
Remove sharp objects
Protect their head
Record the time it starts and ends, and what was occurring during the seizure,
place them on their side to prevent aspiration

148
Q

What is the most common type of headache and adults?

A

Tension headache

149
Q

What type of shock occurs after a spinal cord injury

A

Neurogenic, also known as distributive shock

150
Q

What type of shock occurs from large blood loss

A

Hypovolemic shock

151
Q

What type of shock occurs with an infected central line catheter

A

Septic shock

152
Q

What type of shock occurs when there is ischemia related to decrease coronary perfusion

A

cardiogenic shock

153
Q

What type of shock occurs when a patient is allergic to shellfish and has contrast dye

A

Anaphylactic shock

154
Q

This medication is used for the treatment of neurogenic shock

A

Atropine

155
Q

A patient is having a Tensilon test for suspected myasthenia gravis. It is vital to have this medication available as an antidote.

A

Atropine sulfate

156
Q

Signs and symptoms of neurogenic shock

A

Warm dry skin
Flushed appearance
Decreased cardiac output
Decrease, systemic, vascular resistance

157
Q

Early signs of hypovolemic shock

A

Restlessness or confusion
Decreased urine output
Pale cool, clammy skin
Weak pulses
Delayed capillary refill

158
Q

Late signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock

A

Lethargy
Hypotension
Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
Anuria
Cold cyanotic skin with weak or absent pulses
Dysrhythmias 

159
Q

Signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock

A

Chest pain
Metabolic acidosis
Diaphoresis
Nausea and vomiting
Decreased cardiac output,
Hypotension
Decreased level of consciousness
Decrease urine output
Weak pulses
Cool skin
Hypoactive bowel sounds 

160
Q

Early signs of sepsis

A

Tachycardia,
bounding pulses
fever

161
Q

Late stage symptoms of septicemia

A

Cool pale skin
Weak thready pulses
Tachycardia
Hypotension

162
Q

What is Collens sign?

A

Blue tint around umbilicus

163
Q

What is gray Turner sign?

A

Flank bruising
If on left side could be pancreatitis

164
Q

What is McBurney’s point?

A

A sign for appendicitis

Rebound tenderness when pressure is taken away in LOWER R QUADRANT

165
Q

What is rovsings?

A

Oh, when you press down on the left lower quadrant and pain appears in the right lower quadrant

Med Surg 2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions