Final Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic transmural inflammatory disease of the distal ileum & colon. Rectum is not involved. Pt has perianal fistulas or abscesses & non-bloody diarrhea. Smoking increases the likelihood

A

Crohn’s Disease AKA Regional Enteritis; Granulomatous Ileitis, Ileocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Discontinuous lesions assoc. w/ Crohn’s Disease are AKA?

A

Skip lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease arising in the mucosa & submucosa of the colon. Smoking decreases risk.

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the M/C clinical presentation of Ulcerative colitis?

A

Bloody Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diverticula M/C’ly occur in what part of the colon?

A

Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diverticula that contain all layers of the affected area are called what?

A

True diverticula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

False or pseudo diverticula have mucosa only going through what layer?

A

Muscular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Multiple diverticula in the colon is called what? Typically asymptomatic but can become inflamed & bleed

A

Diverticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What individuals are typically affected by diverticulosis?

A

> 40 yr old. Individuals w/ a low fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inflammation of the diverticula is called what?

A

Diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What % of diverticula that become inflamed resolve on their own?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is a congenital anomaly in distal ileum w/i 100cm (3ft) of ileocecal valve that occurs M/C’ly in older children. Represents persistent prox. end of yolk sac, sometimes becomes attached to inside of umbilicus. M/C diverticulum in the small bowel

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute longitudinal tear or ulcer in squamous epithelium of anal canal from large stool passage w/ secondary infection

A

Anal fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anorectal abscesses are M/C’ly caused by what?

A

Bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tube-like tract w/ one opening in the anal canal & the other usually in the perianal skin. Assoc. w/ Crohns

A

Anorectal Fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Episodic rectal pain lasting <20mins d/t spasm of levator ani muscle

A

Levator Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute abscess or chronic drainage sinus in the sacrococcygeal region (cyst formation under skin)

A

Pilonidal Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inflammation of anus & the distal rectal mucosa from infection (STD or bacterial), IBD or radiation

A

Proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the M/C etiology of proctitis?

A

STD’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Proctitis may develop d/t long term use of what type of medication?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Painless protrusion of rectum thru the anus

A

Rectal prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the M/C benign tumor of the esophagus?

A

Leiomyoma (excellent prognosis for recovery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 M/C malignant tumors of the esophagus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (M/C)

Adenocarcinoma (2nd M/C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are features of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Caused by alcohol/tobacco
M/C occurrence in Asia & South Africa
M/C in African Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are features of adenocarcinoma?

A

Caused by smoking (but not alcohol)
Seen in distal esophagus (Barrett’s)
50% Caucasian esophageal cancers
M/C’ly affects males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the 2nd M/C cancer worldwide?

A

Stomach cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What bacteria plays a significant role in stomach cancer?

A

H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type of cancer that makes up 95% of all stomach cancers?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What sign is not commonly assoc. w/ small bowel tumors?

A

Polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Polyps of the colon & the rectum are M/C’ly seen in what part?

A

Sigmoid area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Any mass of tissue that arises from the bowel wall & protrudes into the lumen is known as what?

A

Polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Primary adenocarcinoma of the pancreas M/C’ly occurs in what part of the pancreas?

A

Pancreatic head (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What two things ARE NOT risk factors for primary adenocarcinoma in the pancreas?

A

Alcohol

Caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gastrin-producing tumor located in pancreas or duodenal walls. Gastric acid hyper-secretion leads to peptic ulcer

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome AKA Z-E syndrome, Gastrinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most metabolically complex organ in the body?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Free fluid in the peritoneal cavity M/C’ly caused by portal hypertension from liver disease is called what?

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Yellowing of the skin, sclera & other tissues caused by excess circulating hyperbilirubinemia

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are s/s assoc. w/ jaundice?

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Conjugation (4th step) during bilirubin metabolism allows what to happen to bilirubin?

A

Becomes water soluble and can pass through kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Syndrome that causes impaired excretion of bilirubin. Liver itself is healthy but dark

A

Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Rare & severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Most pts die before 1 yr of age

A

Crigler-Najjar Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is consider normal pressure in the portal system?

A

5-10mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 M/C etiologies for portal hypertension?

A

Liver cirrhosis

Hepatic Vascular Abnormalities (increased resistance to blood flow from ds w/i liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alcohol causes liver injury that can progress to what 3 pathologies?

A

Fatty liver
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are 3 major factors assoc. w/ alcoholic liver disease?

A

Quantity of alcohol consumed
Duration of alcohol abuse
Nutritional status of pt

46
Q

Where is alcohol absorbed in the GI tract?

A

Readily absorbed from stomach & sm. intestine. Can’t be stored, goes straight to liver

47
Q

What is the difference in prognosis b/w fatty liver/alcohol hepatitis vs fibrosis/cirrhosis?

A

Fatty liver/alcohol hepatitis is reversible

Fibrosis/cirrhosis is not reversible

48
Q

This liver ds is a leading cause of death worldwide

A

Liver cirrhosis

49
Q

Type of hepatitis that is spread primarily by fecal-oral contact & may occur in areas of poor hygiene (daycare)

A

Hep A AKA Infectious Hepatitis

50
Q

Type of hepatitis that is transmitted via blood or blood products, or bodily fluids, & can be spread via sexual intercourse

A

Hep B AKA Serum hepatitis

51
Q

Type of hepatitis that requires the presence of Hep B

A

Hep D AKA Delta agent

52
Q

Type of hepatitis that is transmitted via fecal-oral route d/t contaminated water & found in developing countries. Much more virulent in pregnant women

A

Hep E AKA Epidemic hepatitis (was part of non-A & non-B hepatitis)

53
Q

Type of hepatitis that is the M/C blood-borne infection & leading cause of chronic liver disease. Seen in drug users, not usually sexually transmitted

A

Hep C (was part of non-A, non-B hepatitis)

54
Q

Type of hepatitis that is related to hep C virus

A

Hep G

55
Q

If you seen a pt w/ viral hepatitis, you must do what?

A

Report to local health department

56
Q

A person that was previously healthy/stable that suddenly in a short time deteriorates is a red flag for what pathology?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma (Hepatoma) (primary liver cancer)

57
Q

What sign is assoc. w/ gallbladder & bile duct disorders?

A

Murphy’s Sign

58
Q

Presence of one or more calculi in the gallbladder. Can be either asymptomatic (85%) or produce biliary colic pain (RUQ)

A

Cholelithiasis AKA Gallstones

59
Q

What are the 2 types of gallstones (don’t think soft tissue rad)?

A

Cholesterol stones - 85% of gallstones in western world

Pigment stones - 15% of gallstones

60
Q

Inflammation of the gallbladder (acute or chronic)

A

Cholecysitis

61
Q

M/C complication of cholelithiasis. Develops over hours from cystic duct obstruction by gallstones

A

Acute cholecystitis

62
Q

Formation or presence of stones in the bile ducts, usually pigment stones.

A

Choledocholithiasis

63
Q

Bacterial infection of the bile ducts (E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter)

A

Cholangitis

64
Q

Symptoms assoc. w/ Cholangitis are called Charcot’s triad which is composed of what?

A

Abdominal pain
Jaundice
Fever or chills

65
Q

Painful or uncomfortable urination (common in UTI’s)

A

Dysuria

66
Q

Urine output over 3 liters per day (2500ml)

A

Polyuria

67
Q

Bed-wetting. Involuntary passage of urine while sleeping

A

Enuresis (nocturnal enuresis)

68
Q

The male reproductive system is controlled by a feedback circuit involving what endocrine organs

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Testes

69
Q

Male sexual dysfunction is when drugs or physical & psychological disorders affect any one of what 4 sexual functions?

A

Libido
Erection
Ejaculation
Orgasm

70
Q

Type of incontinence where urgent need to void just before uncontrolled urine leakage occurs

A

Urge Incontinence (M/C in elderly)

71
Q

Type of incontinence that occurs w/ abrupt increase in intra-abdominal pressure i.e. coughing, laughing, sneezing, etc

A

Stress incontinence

72
Q

Type of incontinence w/ dribbling of urine from overly full bladder

A

Overflow incontinence

73
Q

Type of incontinence w/ loss of urine d/t cognitive or physical impairments (stroke/dementia)

A

Functional Incontinence

74
Q

Type of neurogenic bladder that occurs from peripheral nerve or spinal cord damage at S2-S4

A

Flaccid neurogenic bladder

75
Q

Type of neurogenic bladder that occurs from brain or spinal cord damage above T12 (Stroke)

A

Spastic neurogenic bladder

76
Q

Pain along the T-11/T-12 dermatome is a symptom of what urinary tract problem?

A

Obstructive Uropathy AKA Urinary Tract OBstruction

77
Q

95% of UTI’s occur when bacteria do what?

A

Ascend from urethra to bladder & then move upward to kidney

78
Q

What is the M/C bacteria to cause UTI?

A

E. coli

79
Q

Bacterial infection of the urethra. S/s include dysuria & urethral discharge (pus)

A

Urethritis

80
Q

Bacterial infection of the bladder. S/s include sudden onset, increased freq., painful urination, nocturia, low grade fever, abdominal symptoms

A

Cystitis

81
Q

Hereditary disorder of renal cyst formation causing gradual enlargement of both kidneys & can lead to renal failure. May also have hepatic/pancreatic/intestinal cysts, colonic diverticula, or hernias

A

Cystic kidney disease (Polycystic kidney disease)

82
Q

Rapid onset, rapid decrease in renal function over days

A

Acute renal failure

83
Q

Accumulation of nitrogenous products in blood. Assoc. w/ acute renal failure

A

Azotemia

84
Q

Decrease in renal function that develops slowly over months to years

A

Chronic Renal failure

85
Q

What is the difference b/w Nephritic Syndrome & Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

Nephritic Syndrome presents w/ hematuria

Nephrotic Syndrome presents w/ proteinuria

86
Q

Orchitis (inflammation of the testes) is M/C’ly caused by what?

A

Mumps

87
Q

Fibrosis of the corpus cavernosus sheaths of the penis. Painful erection & deviated, usually to involved side

A

Peyronie’s Disease

88
Q

Inability to retract the foreskin of the penis

A

Phimosis

89
Q

Entrapment of the penis foreskin in the retracted position

A

Paraphimosis

90
Q

Painful, persistent, abnormal erection unaccompanied by sexual desire or excitation

A

Priapism

91
Q

Excessive accumulation of sterile fluid w/i tunica vaginalis

A

Hydrocele

92
Q

Scrotal swelling w/ non-sterile fluid (pus). D/t complication of severe epididymitis

A

Pyocele

93
Q

Accumulation of blood w/i tunica vaginalis secondary to trauma

A

Hematocele

94
Q

Spermatic cyst similar to hydrocele. Painless at upper poles of testes

A

Spermatocele

95
Q

Collection of large veins, usually in L scrotum. Bag of worms appearance that goes away when laying down

A

Varicocele

96
Q

Testicular torsion M/C’ly occurs in which teste?

A

L teste

97
Q

Digital rectal exam can be used to determine what about the prostate?

A

Size
Symmetry
Texture
Nodules

98
Q

What is the M/C risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

Smoking

99
Q

What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor has spread to the vena cava or renal vein?

A

Stage IIIA

100
Q

What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor is confined to a renal capsule?

A

Stage I

101
Q

What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor has invaded adjacent organs & has distant metastases?

A

Stage IV

102
Q

What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor is not extending beyond Gerota’s fascia membrane around kidney/adrenal/fat?

A

Stage II

103
Q

What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor has spread to the regional lymph nodes?

A

Stage IIIB

104
Q

What is the M/C type of penile cancer & who is affected most?

A

Squamous cell carinoma

Usually occur in elderly uncircumcised men w/ poor local hygiene

105
Q

What is penile cancer caused by?

A

HPV
Bowen’s Disease
Erythroplaia of Queyrat

106
Q

What is the M/C non-dermatologic cancer in men over the age of 50? M/C in african americans

A

Prostate cancer

107
Q

Over what age are most prostate cancers found?

A

Over 65 w/ median age of 72 (75%)

108
Q

How is tx for prostate determined?

A

Depends on age of pt & extent of the tumor. <70yr old = radical prostectomy

109
Q

What is the M/C solid cancer in males aged 15-35?

A

testicular cancer

110
Q

What is the M/C type of urethral cancer?

A

Squamous cell