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Part 1 Exam > File 20 > Flashcards

File 20 Flashcards

1
Q

A 29-year-old female patient, non-pregnant, complaining of RLQ pain,
ultrasound showed hyperechoic lesion with echogenic shadow and nodule in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Enteric cyst
B) Endometrioma
C) Dermoid cyst
D) Duplication cyst

A

C) Dermoid cyst

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2
Q

50-year-old lady with breast mass, what to do:
A) Mammography
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) CT

A

A) Mammography

for any patient with breast mass:
if the pt is young less than 30 bilateral US
if pt old mammo

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3
Q

Case patient on HSG shows 1 vagina, 1 cervix and 2 uteruses:

A) Bicornuate
B) Didphylus
C) Arcuate
D) Septate

A

A) Bicornuate

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4
Q

Best view in mammography:
A) CC
B) MLO

A

B) MLO

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5
Q

Best view of milky calcification in mammography:
A) Magnification
B) True lateral

A

B) True lateral

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6
Q

Component of the intraductal terminal complex:
A) Lactiferous gland
B) Interlobar ductal gland
C) Adipose tissue
D) Fibro glandular

A

B) Interlobar ductal gland

Answer: B
Notes:
- The TDLU consists of the:
o extralobular terminal duct
o intralobular terminal duct
o lobule (functional unit of the breast)

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7
Q

Regarding forbidden area in mammography:

A) Axillary
B) Fibrogalndular
C) Pectorals major muscle

A

C) Pectorals major muscle

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8
Q

Child came through General physician with retinal mass, what to do
next:
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Refer to ophthalmologist

A

C) Refer to ophthalmologist

Answer: C
Notes:
- MRI is for staging.
- US & ophthalmoscope is for diagnosis.

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9
Q

Pediatric liver mass which is true:

A) Hepatoblastoma with normal alpha fetotropin (High not N)
B) Hepatoblastoma usually dead with congestive heart failure (Infantile)
C) Hepatoblastoma is the most common extra-crainal tumor in pediatric
(Neuroblastoma)
D) Mesenchymal hamartoma

A

D) Mesenchymal hamartoma

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10
Q

Infant with bowel obstruction, which is true:
A) No need for bowel preparation
B) Rectal enema injected manually
C) IV contrast to opacity the bowel and colon

A

A) No need for bowel preparation

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11
Q

Case of child to see peritoneal free air:

A) Supine chest x ray
B) Lateral decubitus chest
C) Supine abdomen
D) Lateral decubitus abdomen

A

D) Left lateral decubitus abdomen.

Notes:
- The lateral decubitus radiograph is an additional projection for assessing the pediatric
abdomen. This view is ideal for displaying free air in the abdomen and/or if the patient is
unable to lie supine.
- Erect is more accurate.

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12
Q

Which is the best view for the metatarsal bones?

A) Oblique dorsoplantar view
B) Oblique view
C) Dorsoplantar view
D) AP view

A

A) Oblique dorsoplantar view

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13
Q

Apical lordotic view:

A) Patient pressed against the Bucky to stress on head, neck & chest
B) Patients erect
C) Cranial 15°
D) Cranial 45°

A

D) Cranial 45°

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14
Q

In IVP to visualize the right vesicoureteral junction:

A) Right anterior oblique
B) Left anterior oblique
C) Right posterior oblique
D) Left posterior oblique

A

C) Right posterior oblique

Answer: C
Notes:
- because in this position you will free the right ureter from superimposition by the spine.

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15
Q

What is the best view to see the right intervertebral foramen in C-spine:

A) Left anterior oblique
B) Right anterior oblique
C) Lateral
D) AP

A

B) Right anterior oblique

Answer: B
Notes:
- LPO and RAO = Right foramina.

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16
Q

To visualize the colonic flexures during barium enema:
A) LAO and RAO
B) Lateral
C) Left lateral decubitus
D) Right lateral decubitus

A

A) LAO and RAO

Answer: A
Notes:
- RAO → Right hepatic flexure.
- LAO → Left splenic flexure.

17
Q

Best view for lipohemarthrosis:
A) Lateral
B) AP

A

A) Lateral

Answer: A
Notes:
- Lipohemarthrosis results from an intra-articular fracture with escape of fat and blood from the
bone marrow into the joint, and is most frequently seen in the knee, associated with a tibial
plateau fracture or distal femoral fracture, rarely a patellar fracture.

18
Q

Pediatric patient with foreign body, what to do:
A) AP
B) PA
C) Lateral
D) Bilateral decubitus

A

D) Bilateral decubitus

Answer: D
Notes:
- Bilateral lateral decubitus (can be done to increase sensitivity).
- Bilateral decubitus views should demonstrate hyperinflation of the affected lung on both
radiographs; in the obstructive foreign body there will be air-trapping and therefore
hyperlucency of the dependent lung.

19
Q

Regarding lines:

A) EET is 1 cm below carina. (above)
B) NGT in the lower esophagus. (stomach)
C) PICC insertion through brachiocephalic.
D) Swanz – Ganz 5 cm in pulmonary artery

A

D) Swanz – Ganz 5 cm in pulmonary artery

20
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding hip lines:
A) Shenton lines is seen along the superior border of superior pubic ramus
B) Higenreiner line is drown horizontally through the superior aspect of both triradiate cartilage.

A

B) Higenreiner line is drown horizontally through the superior aspect of both triradiate cartilage.

21
Q

Patient developed chest wheeze post-contrast, what is the immediate
medication to give:

A) Atropine
B) Albuterol
C) Epinephrine
D) Antihistamine

A

B) Albuterol

22
Q

What you will give for patient with renal insufficiency to prevent renal
nephrotoxicity:

A) CO2
B) Nitrogen
C) Low osmolar contrast medium

A

C) Low osmolar contrast medium

23
Q

Picture of cardiac MRI, what is the diagnosis:

A) Trans mural infarct
B) Subendocardial infarct
C) Myocarditis
D) Ventricular aneurysm

A

B) Subendocardial infarct

24
Q

The radiation dose to the critical organ in mSv is:

A) 0.05
B) 5
C) 10
D) 50

A

D) 50

25
Q

Which is NOT Deterministic effect:

A) Skin erythema
B) Hair loss
C) Leukemia
D) Cataract

A

C) Leukemia

26
Q

The most common source of scatter is:
A) The table
B) The floor and walls
C) Patient’s body

A

C) Patient’s body

Answer: C
Notes:
- In the case of X-rays, the most common source of scatter radiation for most humans, the
“object” in question is the patient.

27
Q

Roentgen is:

A) Air exposure to radiation.
B) Soft tissue exposure to radiation

A

A) Air exposure to radiation.

28
Q

Best way to manage radiation exposure is by:
A) Increase shielding thickness
B) Decrease distance from radiation source

A

B) Decrease distance from radiation source

↓ time.
- ↑ distance and thickness of shielding.

29
Q

Dual filament is used to:
A) Increase the tube current
B) Increase the heat
C) Spare
D) Focal spot

A

D) Focal spot

Notes:
- A dual filament, rotary anode X-ray tube generates X-radiation of extraordinary uniform
cross-sectional intensity by focusing a pair of electron flows on a target to produce partially
overlapping focal spot.

30
Q

Question about beam hardening:

A) Bermesstulung
B) Compton scatter
C) Photoelectric
D) Pair production

A

C) Photoelectric

Answer: C
Notes:
- When a suitable range of energy is used so that the attenuation is mainly contributed by the
photoelectric effect.

31
Q

CT linearity is related to:

A) Mass density
B) Electron density
C) Linear attenuation coefficient
D) Mass absorption coefficient

A

C) Linear attenuation coefficient

32
Q

Picture, automated exposure control if the patient is moved off the
center, what will that decrease:

A) Patient dose
B) Scatter

A

A) Patient dose

Answer: A
Notes:
- Off-center patient positions cause errors in tube current modulation that can outweigh the dose
reduction

33
Q

How would you check for ventricular-peritoneal shunt patency:

A) Tc –m99- DTPA
B) Tc – m99- RBC
C) Thallium
D) Gallium

A

A) Tc –m99- DTPA

Answer: A
Notes:
- Injection of 99mTc-DTPA via reservoir by manually occlude the distal limb to help reflux a
portion of the radiopharmaceutical into the ventricles, thereby assessing patency of the
proximal limb of the ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt.

34
Q

In ventilation perfusion scan what give you high probability of PE:

A) Two large filling defects
B) Two large matching defects
C) Two large defects in perfusion not seen in chest x ray
D) Two small defects in perfusion not seen in chest x ray

A

C) Two large defects in perfusion not seen in chest x ray

Answer: C
Notes:
- High probability 10%
o 2 large V/Q mismatches
o 1 large + 2 moderate V/Q defects
o 4 moderate V/Q mismatches
o Perfusion defect > CXR abn. (Perfusion abn starts first)

35
Q

Nuclear in GI bleeding:

A) Progressive uptake in 3 hours
B) Increase uptake in stomach
C) Increase uptake in spleen
D) Colonic uptake after 42 hours

A

A) Progressive uptake in 3 hours

36
Q

Ventilation tracer:
A) Xe
B) MAA

A

A) Xe

  • Ventilation
    o ¹³³Xe
  • Perfusion
    o ᵐ⁹⁹Tc MAA
37
Q

Tc-m99-RBC attached to what:
A) Alpha Hb
B) Beta Hb

A

B) Beta Hb

38
Q

In nuclear Tc Molybdenum contamination with aluminum is:
A) Chemical purity
B) Radiochemical
C) Radionuclide

A

A) Chemical purity

Part 1 Exam (26 decks)

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