Fevers and Seizures - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered a fever? What is the underlying cause?

A

100.4

Fever occurs due to the hypothalamus creating a new “set point” of body temperature
occurs due to the presence of pyrogenic cytokines released by infectious pathogens

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2
Q

What are 2 important questions to ask when first interviewing an adult that presents with a fever?

A

**Any new medications? Could this be a drug reaction?
**Any hx of injectable drug use??

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3
Q

Are fevers directly related to the severity of illness? What populations tend to present differently?

A

NOT directly proportional

children have a GREATER febrile response

geriatrics, neonates and patients taking NSAIDS for other conditions may have a normal or below normal temperature

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4
Q

What 3 populations tend to have a LOWER than normal temperature even when they are sick and should have one?

A

geriatrics, neonates and pts taking NSAIDs

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5
Q

What is the average normal body temp? When the temp is taken orally, what 3 things can cause it to be NOT accurate?

A

98.0F

  1. Pt who is hyperventilating
  2. Pt who did not close their mouth
  3. recent food/drink ingestion
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6
Q

_______ temps are more accurate than peripheral/ **Which one is the most accurate?

A

CORE temps are better

rectal temps are the most accurate

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7
Q

How are rectal and tympanic temps reading different when compared to oral temps?

A

Rectal and tympanic temps are 0.5°C (0.9° F) higher (Take a ° (degree) Off the Orifices)

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8
Q

How are axillary and forehead temps reading different when compared to oral temps?

A

Axillary and forehead temps are 0.5°C (0.9° F) lower (I visualize the outside air brings down the temp a little)

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9
Q

______ is a fever in the adult that will NOT get better with NSAIDs/Tylenol. What are 3 general causes?

A

hyperthermia

environmental exposures
thyroid storm
medication induced

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10
Q

muscular rigidity
altered mental status
autonomic dysfunction (fever)

What am I?
What causes it?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

a lethal reaction to neuroleptic medications (e.g. haloperidol and fluphenazine)

aka these pts will be VERY HOT

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11
Q

What is the criteria to dx fever of unknown orgin? What should you do next?

A

fever over 38.3°C (100.9° F) on multiple occasions over 3 weeks without a diagnosis being made

call infectious dz!! etiology is very vast: autoimmune disorders, vasculitis (giant cell arteritis), SLE, infectious (TB), malignancy (leukemia, lymphoma), Thyroid Storm, Lyme Disease

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12
Q

What are 4 s/s that indicate hemodynamic instability?

A

low BP, tachycardia, hypoxia, fever

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13
Q

When looking for signs of infection, ______ and ______ are big offenders

A

PNA and UTI

should NOT wait for the pt to urinate, straight cath if the pt cannot urinate in a timely manner

CXR for PNA, if negative with high suspicion, get CT!

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14
Q

**What are the SIRS criteria?

A

WBC less than 4K or greater than 12K

HR > 90

Resp > 20

Temp less 96.8 or greater than 100.4

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15
Q

What is considered sepsis? Severe sepsis?

A

SIRS criteria plus source of infection

severe sepsis: sepsis and organ dysfunction

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16
Q

What is considered septic shock?

A

persistent hypotension after bolus AND

lactate above 4.0

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17
Q

What is the Tylenol dose for a pediatric pt? What if older than 12? What is the ibuprofen dosing in kids?

A

10-15mg/kg for peds

if greater than 12 years old 325-650 q4 hours

5-10 mg/kg pediatric dose

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18
Q

What is the age restriction for ibuprofen? ASA?

A

no ibuprofen if less than 6 months

no ASA if less than 18 due to risk of Reye’s Syndrome Risk

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19
Q

What is an alternative for fever control if the temp remains uncontrolled?

A

alternate between acetaminophen and ibuprofen every 3 hours early in course of fever

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20
Q

What are the empiric abx indications for fever management in an adult?

A

neutropenic

hemodynamically unstable

asplenic: surgical or secondary to sickle cell

immunosuppressed

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21
Q

What are the indications to admit if an adult pt has a fever? If discharged, when do they need to f/u?

A

Concomitant vital sign abnormalities

Evidence of end-organ damage when sepsis is suspected or confirmed

Temperature > 41°C (105.8° F)

Associated seizure or other mental status change

Underlying condition requires admission

24-72 hours if discharged

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22
Q

pediatric fever is due to a lack of a mature immune system and development leads to _____ at presentation and a greater risk of ______

A

vague symptoms

serious infection

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23
Q

_____ is the MC CC presenting in this pediatric population. How is management classified? Give the ranges

A

FEVER

based on age:
0 to 28 days of age (aka neonate)
1 to 3 months of age
3 to 36 months of age

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24
Q

**What is considered a fever in a pt who is LESS than 3 months old?
**kid 3-36 months old?
**how does the temp need to be obtained?

A

38°C (100.4° F) in children < 3 months of age

39° C (102.2) in children 3-36 months of age

must be RECTAL

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25
Q

**______ is the MC cause of fever in pts less than 3 months old? Then _______

A

viral sources: flu A, flu B, COVID, RSV, HSV, chickenpox, enterovirus, adenovirus, CMV, rubella

bacteria: group B strep, listeria, E coli, S pneu, T pallidum

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26
Q

What is classic chickenpox presentation?

A

will have red spots all over with various stages of healing present

ulcer, papule and blister

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27
Q

**What is the classic presentation of measles? Are they contagious?

A

high fever with rash that starts at HEAD and goes DOWN the body

YES!! need to isolate

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28
Q

**What is the classic presentation of roseola?

A

rash that starts on the abdomen and spreads outward towards the extremities

typically moves very fast
+/- febrile seizures

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29
Q

What are important history questions you want to ask in a pt with a fever who is less than 3 months old?

A
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30
Q

What are normal vital signs for pt less than 3 months old?

A

HR 120-160 bpm
RR 30-60 breaths/min

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31
Q

What are the s/s of a pt less than 3 months old who has a respiratory tract infection? meningitis?

A

Cough, tachypnea or hypoxia

Inconsolable crying during handling and a bulging fontanelle

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32
Q

What should be included in your w/u of a pt less than 3 months old who has a fever? What is important to note about the lumbar puncture?

A

if younger than 28 days old, getting a LP

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33
Q

_______ may be elevated if the source of infection is bacterial or due to tissue injury

A

procalcitonin

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34
Q

If order for a pt who is less than 3 months old to go home from ER with a fever, what criteria must be met?

A

must be labeled “low risk” and ALL criteria must be met

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35
Q

What are 3 criteria according to the Step by Step protocol that automatically label the ped pt “high risk” if you have a fever? Intermediate risk? What are the criteria the kid must meet in order to qualify for the Step by Step criteria?

A

high risk:
younger than 28 days old

leukocytes in the urine

procalcitonin is greater or equal to 0.5ng/mL

intermediate risk:
CRP > 20mg/L or ANC > 10,000

must be:
term baby
temp greater than 100.4
be sick for at least a couple hours
previously healthy
no hospitalizations
no previous abx
normal PE

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36
Q

What is the management of an pt who is less than 28 days old who has a fever? ped pt 1-3 months old? What is the medication of choice?

A

Infants ≤ 28 days of age: admit for IV abx

1-3 months old: admit for parenteral antibiotics if FAILURE to meet “low risk” criteria

ampicillin PLUS cefotaxime

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37
Q

What is the management for ped pts 1-3 months old who meet the “low risk” criteria?

A

can do either

Outpatient with or without antibiotics and a required f/u in 24 hours

or inpt +/- abx

all depending on the provider’s comfort level and pt’s normal pediatrician (if they can get f/u or not)

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38
Q

What should you do next if the ped pt 1-3 months old presents with an identifiable viral illness?

A

UA (with C&S if positive findings)
Blood cultures

get consults!!

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39
Q

______ is the MC etiology of a ped pt who is 3-36 months old. **Very important to ask _______ in this patient population

A

viral is MC but serious bacterial illness need to be ruled out

**need to assess vaccination status!!

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40
Q

routine vaccination of ____ and ______ in infants has reduced the risk of occult bacteremia from 5% to 1%

A

Hib

**S.pneumoniae

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41
Q

**What are some PE findings in the 3-36 month population that clues you in that they are NON-toxic? **What will toxic patients present like?

A

non-toxic patients will be alert and make eye contact, be playful and console easily, have positive response to interactions, negative (bad) response to noxious stimuli

**toxic: lethargy, poor perfusion, hypo- or hyperventilation, and/or acrocyanosis

aka sick babies will just lie there

42
Q

When should you get a CXR in a 3-36 month pt? If needed, what is the associated timeframe goal of IV abx?

A

tachypnea or WBC≥ 20,000/µL

Parenteral antibiotics given within 1 hour of arrival

43
Q

What age is strep throat common after?

A

strep is common after 2 years old

44
Q

What is the tx for a well appearing pt 3-36 months old who is also UTD on immunizations? If negative, what should you do next? If positive?

A

Catheterized urine collection

UA only in girls < 24 m,
uncircumcised boys < 12 m
circumcised boys < 6 m

negative UA: d/c home with antipyretics

positive: single dose of parenteral antibiotics with f/u in 12-24 hours

45
Q

What vaccines are needed to be UTD?

What is the management for ped pts 3-36 months old who are well appearing and NOT UTD on vaccines?

A

not UTD (or doesn’t have 3 Hib and Pneumococcal vaccines)

need blood cultures from 2 different spots

46
Q

What is the management for ped pts 3-36 months old who are ill appearing, unable to maintain fluids or who are unlikely to f/u or return to ED?

A

ADMIT pt

if infection source is known. treat it

if not: empirically tx with
ceftriaxone (Rocephin) OR piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) PLUS vancomycin

47
Q

_____ should be administered early in the emergency department course to improve the patient’s comfort level. What is the preferred medication?

A

Antipyretics

Acetaminophen: 10-15mg/kg q4 hours

48
Q

Response to antipyretic doesn’t affect ______.

A

disposition

aka CAN discharge a pt home with a fever

49
Q

What should you do if a patient is discharged home and blood cultures later reveal bacteremia?

A

repeat eval of pt!!! aka they need to come back to ER

well appearing, afebrile: outpt 10 day course of abx and f/u with Ped

ill appearing/febrile: ADMIT with IV abx

50
Q

**What is a neutropenic fever defined as?

A

** Temp ≥ 38°C (100.4° F) for 1 hour or a single temp ≥ 38.3°C (101° F)

Neutropenia - ANC < 1000 cells/mm³ (Absolute Neutrophil Count)

Severe Neutropenia - ANC < 500 cells/mm³

ANC: absolute neutrophil count

51
Q

in a neutropenic fever, _____ is usually the earliest and often only sign of infection

A

fever

A specific source of infection is identified in only 20% to 30% patients

52
Q

**What is usually discovered in a pts hx with neutropenic fever? Are symptoms correlated with extent of infection?

A

History of recent chemotherapy treatment

The severity of symptoms may NOT be proportional to the severity of infection

53
Q

Why does chemotherapy cause neutropenic fevers?

A

chemotherapy affects myelopoiesis and the integrity of GI mucosa allowing bacterial colonization and transposition across mucosa

54
Q

When are neutrophil counts usually the lowest?

A

lowest 10-15 days after chemotherapy and increase 5 days after reaching nadir (the lowest point)

55
Q

**______ need to be avoided in pt with neutropenic fever until AFTER abx are on board

56
Q

What is the w/u on a pt with neutropenic fever? Where do the blood cultures need to be obtained from?

A

all the things!!!!

obtained from 2 different sites: one from peripheral vein, the other from central catheter (if present)

57
Q

**What is the empiric tx for neutropenic fever? At what point during the w/u should you start them?

A

**Vancomycin + Cefepime

Empiric antibiotics should be administered immediately after blood cultures are obtained (within 1 hour of arrival)

58
Q

______ is a good abx choice for covering gram +

59
Q

If hemodynamic instability, catheter-related infection, skin/soft tissue infection, pneumonia, or known colonization with resistant organism, need to cover for ______. If abdominal symptoms are present need to cover for ______

A

cover gram + (use vanc)

anaerobes (metro, clinda, or something that ends in -penem)

60
Q

a pt with neutropenic fever, need to consult ______ with regards to disposition. What is considered a high risk NF pt?

A

consult oncology!!

high risk:
profound neutropenia expected to last > 7 days
comorbid medical conditions
acute liver/renal injury

61
Q

_______ is the risk assessment tool used by oncology to determine disposition in NF pts. What score = admission?

A

MASCC

0-20 requires admission

62
Q

_____ no cause can be identified

______ identifiable neurologic condition is identified such as a mass lesion, previous head injury, stroke

A

primary (idiopathic) seizure

secondary (symptomatic) seizure

63
Q

______ a seizure that occurs within 7 days of an insult

_______ no acute precipitating factor can be identified

A

Provoked seizure

Unprovoked seizure

64
Q

What is status epilepticus? What is considered refractory status epilepticus?

A

seizure activity for ≥ 5 minutes or two or more seizures without regaining consciousness between the seizures - multiple seizures back to back without recovery

persistent seizure activity despite IV administration of 2 antiepileptic drugs

65
Q

What are the 2 different presentations of seizures in the ED?

A

recently had a seizure or actively seizing!

** is this seizure new or is it a known condition??

66
Q

What are some things you want to note about the seizure?

67
Q

______ is very suggestive of a true seizure

A

postictal confusion or lethargy

68
Q

What are 4 things should you closely examine if the pt had a seizure?

A

POC glucose

assess for injuries: neck/spine, posterior shoulder dislocation, tongue/mouth laceration, dental fx

pulm exam: risk of aspiration

neuro exan with serial exams

69
Q

_____ can occur in patients who are in status epilepticus

A

hyperthermia

70
Q

**______ a transient focal deficit (usually unilateral) after a simple or complex focal seizure. What is the management? When will it resolve?

A

Todd’s paralysis

if new onset: need to w/u as a stroke

within 48 hours

71
Q

What are 4 clinical features that differentiate a seizure from another condition?

A

abrupt onset

memory loss of activity

purposeless movement during seizure

postical confusion/lethargy

72
Q

What is the Soto saline sign for a pseudoseizure?

A

squirt 10cc of saline or tap water through a syringe into the pt’s eye

true seizure will not flinch

pseudoseizure: pt will turn/move out of the way

73
Q

What is the w/u of a pt who presents with a seizure and has a hx of seizure disorder?

A

glucose (fingerstick/point of care)

serum anti-convulsant drug levels

hcg - females of reproductive age

74
Q

_____ is the MC cause of break-through seizures in pts with a hx of seizures

A

non-compliance

75
Q

What is the w/u of a pt who presents with a seizure who does NOT have a hx of seizure disorder?

A

glucose (fingerstick/point of care)

BMP: looking for electrolyte disturbances

magnesium

Hcg

UDS: cocaine, phencyclidine (PCP), heroin, methamphetamines, inhalants can all cause seizures

76
Q

What are the head CT w/o indications in pt with seizure?

A

first-ever seizure

change in pattern of normal seizure activity

concern for acute intracranial process

abnormal neuro exam

77
Q

What are the LP indications in a seizure pt?

A

febrile

immunocompromised

suspicion for subarachnoid hemorrhage

78
Q

What is the management for a pt who is actively seizing?

79
Q

What is the management for status epilepticus?

A

insert nasopharyngeal airway and prepare for ET intubation (SECURE an airway)

IV lorazepam

monitor airway and give oxygen

80
Q

What should you do if the pt is still seizing after 5 minutes?

A

repeat dose of IV lorazepam

81
Q

status epilepticus, once the seizing stops, what should you do next?

A

anticonvulsant should be initiated to prevent recurrence

82
Q

What are 2nd line options for medication management in Status Epilepticus? Which one is preferred? Why?

A

fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) or phenytoin (Dilantin)

fosphenytoin is preferred - less SE

phenytoin requires a 2nd IV line

83
Q

Why is phenytoid NOT preferred over fosphenytoin?

A

phenytoin requires a 2nd IV line

incompatible with BZD’s, fluids, dextrose

SE of hypotension and cardiac arrhythmia if given too rapidly or in a central line

84
Q

What are the SE of fosphenytoin and phenytoin?

A

respiratory depression

85
Q

What are second line alternatives to fosphenytoin and phenytoin?

A

levetiracetam (Keppra),valproic acid phenobarbital

86
Q

What is the treatment for Status Epilepticus if the first and second line tx options fail?

A

prepare for intubation and coma induction (midazolam, propofol and pentobarbital)

EEG monitoring

87
Q

If the seizure was due to hypoglycemia what is the tx?

A

Infants: 4-5 mL/kg 10% dextrose IV
Older children: 2 mL/kg 25% dextrose IV

88
Q

If the seizure was due to hyponatremia what is the tx?

A

3% NaCl 4-6 mL/kg

89
Q

If the seizure was due to hypocalcemia what is the tx?

A

10% calcium gluconate 0.3 mL/kg over 10 minutes

90
Q

If the seizure was due to hypomagnesemia what is the tx?

A

50 mg/kg of magnesium sulfate over 20 minutes

91
Q

If a refractory status epilepticus patient does get intubated, _____ needs to be monitor. What does it help with? _____ is proportionate to ______

A

ABG

helps to determine adequate ventilation

hypercapnia is proportionate to hypoventilation

92
Q

What is the management of a pt with a seizure who has a hx of seizure disorder w/o status epilepticus?

A

Obtain serum drug levels

Replenish anticonvulsant if drug levels are therapeutically low

Provide loading dose of anticonvulsant then restart or adjust regular regimen

93
Q

What is the management of a pt with a seizure who has a hx of seizure disorder w/o status epilepticus and their seizure drug levels are therapeutically normal with only 1 breakthrough normal seizure?

A

discharge home to reliable caregiver and a prompt f/u with neurology

94
Q

What is the management of a pt with a seizure who has a hx of seizure disorder w/o status epilepticus and seizure is outside of what is considered “normal” for them and no precipitants are identified?

A

consultation with patient PCP or neurology should be made

if adjusted meds, need to f/u with neurology in 1-3 days

95
Q

What are the requirements to go home in a pt who is conscious post seizure without a hx of seizure disorder? What are the discharge instructions?

A

patient physical exam has returned to baseline

normal head CT scan

normal laboratory evaluation

any abnormalities noted -> admit to neurology

discharge instructions:
-discharge to supervision of reliable caregiver
-no driving or operating heavy machinery
-follow up with neurology

96
Q

**What is the tx for suspected eclampsia?

A

IV magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV x 1 dose and emergent consult to OBGYN

97
Q

Use of_____ in ETOH withdrawal will often prevent seizure

98
Q

What is considered a febrile seizure? What age range is MC?

A

Generalized seizure activity usually lasting <15 minutes

MC between 6 months and 6 years

tx the underlying cause

99
Q

if _______ occurs it is usually associated with more severe infections

A

febrile seizure status epilepticus