Environmental Injuries - Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Who are the at risk individuals for a heat illness?

A

Young/elderly

Obese

Chronic physical/mental illness

Impaired by drugs/ETOH

Anyone denied access to hydration/nutrition

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2
Q

What is heat edema? Why does it happen?

A

Mild swelling of dependent extremities due to heat exposure

Results from muscular and cutaneous vasodilation combined with venous stasis

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3
Q

What is the treatment for heat edema?

A

self-limiting with elevation, rest, cooling, oral rehydration

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4
Q

Why does heat syncope happen?

A

results from vasodilation leading to intravascular volume redistribution

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5
Q

What is the clinical presentation of heat syncope? **What is the core temperature?

A

Core temp is normal, skin is cool and diaphoretic, weak pulse, transient hypotension

**Core temp is normal

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6
Q

What is the management of heat syncope? What is the disposition?

A

Rule out other causes of syncope: hypoglycemia, arrhythmias, and fixed myocardial or cerebrovascular lesions

Lie patient supine with legs elevated, remove from heat, (+/-) external cooling, IV/oral rehydration

Disposition home after appropriate tx and patient education

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7
Q

What are heat cramps? What is the underlying cause?

A

painful spasms of voluntary muscles of the abdomen and extremities resulting from salt depletion

due to salt depletion!

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8
Q

What will the core temperature be in heat cramps? What tests should you order? What will there electrolyte panel be?

A

core temp normal or slightly elevated

intense work-up is rarely indicated! but should order CMP for electrolytes

low-normal Na, (+/-) low K+ and Mg

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9
Q

What is the management for heat cramps?

A

Remove from heat and begin external cooling

Oral electrolyte solution (pedialyte or Gatorade) or IV NS

Replace K+ and Mg if needed

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10
Q

What is the disposition for heat cramps? How long should the patient rest?

A

Discharge home

Rest for 1-3 day - avoid physical exertion and heat exposure

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11
Q

What is heat exhaustion characterized by? If left untreated, what will it evolve into?

A

Characterized by the inability to maintain adequate cardiac output due to strenuous physical exercise and environmental heat stress

Rapidly evolves to heat stroke if no intervention

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12
Q

What are the two types of heat exhaustion? Which one is seem more often?

A

Hypernatremic (primary water loss): results from lack of water access

Hyponatremic (primary sodium loss): fluid loss replaced with water only

a combination of the 2!

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13
Q

Temperature often mildly elevated
Diaphoresis, HA, N/V, malaise, weakness,
Muscle cramps, dizziness, (+/-) dark urine
Tachycardia, hypotension
normal CNS exam

What am I?
**What is the highlighted factor?

A

heat exhaustion

Temperature often mildly elevated - usually will not exceed 40°C (104°F)

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14
Q

How can you differentiate heat exhaustion from heat stroke?

A

No evidence of CNS dysfunction

aka no AMS, syncope or seizures

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15
Q

What tests should you order for heat exhaustion?

A

BMP: electrolytes and renal function
UA: myoglobinuria
CK
LFT
ABG
EKG

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16
Q

______ needs to be assessed during heat exhaustion

A

UA- > looking for myoglobinuria

thinking rhabdo

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17
Q

What is the management for heat exhaustion?

A

Remove from heat, (+/-) external cooling

Oral electrolyte solution if able to tolerate PO intake
Alt: IV NS or LR²; hypertonic saline used if marked hyponatremia due to water intoxicatio

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18
Q

What are the criteria to admit someone from heat exhaustion?

A

moderate-to-severe symptoms

comorbid illnesses

patients at extremes of age

lab abnormalities: Elevated CPK, creatinine, LFTs, cardiac abnormalities, hyponatremia, persistent acidosis

social concerns

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19
Q

Define heat stroke. **What is the super underlined finding?

A

Characterized by a dysfunction of the heat regulating mechanism with hyperthermia and end-organ damage

will have core body temp > 104 AND end-organ damage

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20
Q

**What 4 tissues are the most sensitive to heat stress?

A

Neural tissue

hepatocytes

nephrons

vascular endothelium

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21
Q

What are the 2 types of heat stroke? How do they differ?

A

exertional (rapid onset)

non-exertional (slow onset)

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22
Q

HA, dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, visual disturbances
Skin is hot, flushed, usually dry
CV: rapid, bounding pulse, hypotension indicates CV collapse
confusion, seizure, delirium, ataxia, coma
may have DIC

What am I?
What are the signs of DIC?

A

heat stroke

hematuria, hematemesis, bruising, petechiae, and oozing at sites of venipuncture

aka these pts are usually found sitting under a tree, +/- sweating with increased HR and confusion

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23
Q

How often should you check a CMP in a heat stroke pt? What additional lab needs to be ordered in heat stroke?

A

need to reassess every hour

Phosphate (hypophosphatemia)

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24
Q

Why does hypophosphatemia occur with heat stroke?

A

Hypophosphatemia occurs due to renal dysfunction leading to a lack of PO4 reabsorption

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25
Q

What is the management for heat stroke? What do you tx the severe shivering with?

A

rapid cooling

supplemental O2 if needed

continuing to monitor temp via rectal temps

IV fluids

Significant AMS - ventilate/intubate or GCS score less than 8

if unresponsive to above tx: -> internal lavage

Tx severe shivering with IV BZD

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26
Q

What is the preferred method for rapid cooling in a heat stroke?

A

ice water submersion!!

cooling blanket with ice pack over great vessels: axilla, neck and inguinal areas (avoid direct skin contact)

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27
Q

What way should you monitor core temperature in a heat stroke pt? When can you d/c checking?

A

RECTAL temps!!

Discontinue once core temp reaches 101.5 - 102℉

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28
Q

If the pt is unresponsive to rapid cooling measures in heat stroke, what should you do next?

A

internal lavage - peritoneal, gastric, bladder, and/or rectal

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29
Q

What should the pt’s urine output be in a heat stroke?

A

UO should be 50–100 mL/h

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30
Q

What is the disposition for a heat stroke? Give both ICU and general floor indications?

A

Admit to ICU if hemodynamic instability, severe LFT elevation or rhabdomyolysis

All others admit to general floor (med/surg)

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31
Q

Paresthesias, pruritus of tissue involved; loss of sensation and fine motor control

A

MILD frostbite

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32
Q

decreased ROM, blister formation, edema, tissue appears white, firm/hard, cool to touch

A

Mod/severe frostbite

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33
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with tissue once it has been rewarmed post-frostbite

A

Stinging, burning, aching, throbbing, tenderness

Tissue discoloration, loss of elasticity and mobility

Profound edema, hemorrhagic blisters, necrosis, gangrene

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34
Q

When should you assess the extent of damage of frostbite?

A

AFTER the pt has been rewarmed

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35
Q

What are the 4 degrees of frostbite? include the layers of skin involved

A

1st degree: erythema and edema without blister, skin peeling -> epidermis

2nd degree: serous filled blister -> epidermis and dermis

3rd degree: skin necrosis: hemorrhagic blister with subcutaneous involvement -> epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

4th degree: full-thickness (includes bone), non-blanching cyanosis; dry, black mummified eschar formation; loss or deformity of body part -> epidermis, dermis, hypodermis and muscles, tendons and bones

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36
Q

What degree will have the MOST pain with rewarming?

A

third degree will be the MOST painful and 4th degree will not feel anything!

first and second degree also are painful during rewarming

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37
Q

What is the tx for frostbite? What if the pt is also hypovolemic?

A

Rapid rewarming in CIRCULATING water at 98.6–102.2°F for 15-60 minutes until red/purple color appears on skin then allow to air dry

rewarming can be painful so NSAIDs or opiates may be needed

wound care -> needs to be sterile, topical aloe vera q6hours, splint if needed to prevent contracture and elevate extremity

update tetanus

WARM oral/IV fluids if evidence of hypovolemia

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38
Q

What is the wound care treatment for tissue that has died due to frostbite?

A

Clean/debride superficial dead tissue in a whirlpool BID x 3 wks

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39
Q

What is the disposition for frostbite?

A

Home: limited area with only 1st degree injury

Hospital: extensive area of 1st degree and all 2nd, 3rd, 4th degree

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40
Q

What is hypothermia defined as? What methods of acquiring temperature are valid?

A

Defined as a core body temp < 35°C (< 95°F)

By rectal, bladder or esophageal thermometer

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41
Q

What are secondary causes of hypothermia?

A

Burns
hypoglycemia
hypothyroidism
hypoadrenalism
hypopituitarism
CNS dysfunction
sepsis
drug intoxication
trauma
Impaired shivering

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42
Q

What persons are at risk of hypothermia?

A

advanced or very young age
malnutrition
physical exhaustion
neuromuscular disease

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43
Q

What are the 4 stages of hypothermia? Draw the chart

A
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44
Q

______ is the key to diagnosing hypothermia. ______ progress with decrease in temperature

A

low core body temp

Cardiac arrhythmias get worse the lower the body temp

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45
Q

What will the K leave do in both mild and severe hypothermia? ______ will be elevated with cell death

A

hypokalemia with mild HT, hyperkalemia with severe HT results from cell death/ARF

lactic acid will be elevated with cell death

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46
Q

What is the treatment for mild hypothermia?

A

Place in warm environment - room temp at or above 28°C (82°F)

Encourage active movement

Warm oral sugary drinks

If significant trauma, comorbidities or suspected secondary hypothermia treat as Moderate( HT II)

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47
Q

What is the treatment for moderate hypothermia?

A

Rewarming: warm environment with chemical, electrical, or forced air heating packs or blankets

Start warm IV fluids

Full-body insulation, horizontal position, and immobilization

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48
Q

What is the treatment for severe hypothermia?

A

Airway management likely needed

Sinus bradycardia, a. fib and a. flutter will resolve with rewarming

V fib will not respond to therapy until pt is rewarmed

Rewarming: external heating device (as in HTII), warm IV fluids

**Preferred treatment is rewarming via ECMO, if available, due to the high risk of cardiac arrest

consider coma cocktail

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49
Q

What does the AHA recommend with regards to defibrillation and severe hypothermia?

A

AHA recommends one defibrillation attempt prior to rewarming

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50
Q

What is in the “coma cocktail?”

A

dextrose 50 ml IV, thiamine 100 mg IV/IM, naloxone 2 g IV

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51
Q

What is the disposition for hypothermia? What is the textbook answer?

A

in the real world, everyone gets admitted!!

criteria for disposition:
No comorbidities
No AMS
Presenting core temp >34°C (93.2°F)

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52
Q

What am I? What size is the lesion usually?

A

bee sting

occasionally lesion will be > 5 cm, most of the time LESS

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53
Q

What am I? When do the pustules resolve?

A

fire ant sting

sterile pustule, evolves of 6-24 h

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54
Q

When will stings usually have a systemic/toxic reaction? Where does it usually itch? When do symptoms usually subside within?

A

more common with > 50 stings

N/V/D with urticarial lesions distant from site of sting

within 48 hours

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55
Q

If the pt is going to have an anaphylactic reaction, when is it going to occur? When are labs indicated?

A

Occurs within 6 h (most within 15 min)

Indicated only for systemic and anaphylactic reactions

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56
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylactic shock due to sting?

A

Intubation if needed

Epinephrine 1:1000

IV methylprednisolone, diphenhydramine, famotidine

nebulized albuterold for bronchospams

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57
Q

What is the tx for localized reaction to a sting? Systemic but non-anaphylaxis reaction?

A

Oral diphenhydramine

Oral pain control: NSAID, acetaminophen (Tylenol)
_______

IV methylprednisolone, diphenhydramine, famotidine

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58
Q

What is the wound management tx in a sting? When should you treat the wound?

A

Remove stinger with scraping technique, ice and elevation. update tetanus

do NOT delay treatment of systemic reactions to care for the wound

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59
Q

When should you admit for a sting?

A

admit children
elderly
comorbidities
50 or more stings
prolonged reaction

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60
Q

What is the disposition for a healthy pt who has a sting? What is the highlighted one?

A

observe for 6 hours, if no rebound symptoms, repeat labs before discharge
Rx EpiPen
f/u with allergist

61
Q

______ is the only systemically toxic scorpion in the US. Where is it found?

A

Bark Scorpion

southwestern US

62
Q

What is the presentation for a scorpion sting? What is the PE sign?

A

Sting is painful without initial erythema/swelling

Exquisite pain with light percussion “tap sign”

63
Q

muscle spasms, cranial nerve dysfunction, roving eye movement, diplopia, difficulty swallowing, hypersalivation
tachycardia, HTN, pulmonary edema, and cardiogenic shock

What am I?
What is the symptomatic tx?

A

scorpion sting

Oral or IV pain medication
Benzodiazepine for motor control

64
Q

What is the tx for a severe scorpion sting?

A

Cardiac monitoring and IV access and fluids

Antivenom (Anascorp)

65
Q

What are the SE of Antivenom (Anascorp)?

A

vomiting, pyrexia, rash, nausea, and pruritus

66
Q

How can you identify a pit viper based on appearance? What are the 3? Their venom is _______

A

Large triangle shaped head with a heat sensitive depression “pit” between their eyes

Rattlesnakes, copperheads, water moccasin

venom is cytotoxic

67
Q

What is the hallmark presentation of a pit viper bite? What is the timing?

A

fang marks with pain, edema, hemorrhage and necrosis around the bite and extending out from the bite if severe envenomation

usually within 30 minutes but may be delayed up to 12 hours

68
Q

If no s/s after 12 hours of pit viper bite, what can you assume?

A

If no S/S after 12 h = dry bite

69
Q

What are the systemic s/s of a pit viper bite?

A

Nausea, vomiting

Hemolysis, thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy

Respiratory failure with CV instability and collapse

70
Q

What is the management of a pit viper bite?

A

call poison control!!!!! 1-800-222-1222

cardiac monitoring and IV access

labs

Immobilize biten extremity (similar to fracture tx)

Serial (30 min) wound evaluations and measure affected limb above and below bite and mark border of edema

assess for compartment syndrome

+/- antivenom (CroFab)

update tetanus if needed

71
Q

What does EBM say about applying constriction bands after a snake bite?

A

Remove any constriction band applied proximal to bite

EBM doesn’t support this as being effective

72
Q

When should you give antivenom in a pit viper bite?

A

Compare severity of envenomation to SE of antivenom

do NOT need to give it every time, only if there is EXTENSIVE swelling

73
Q

What are the MC SE of antivenom?

A

urticaria, rash, nausea, pruritus and back pain

hypersensitivity reaction

recurrent coagulopathy

74
Q

What is the disposition for pit viper bites?

A

Observe in ER for 8-12 hours - d/c home if no local progression and all labs are WNL

Admit (ICU) for severe reaction and those receiving antivenom

75
Q

High altitude sickness is commonly seen at elevations at or higher than ______. Why?

A

at or >1500 m (4800 ft)

decreased partial pressures of oxygen (Po2) at higher elevations leads to hypoxia

76
Q

What are the bodies 4 physiological responses to hypoxia caused by high altitude?

A
  1. increased RR
  2. renal excretion of HCO3¹
  3. vascular changes²
  4. increasing the blood’s oxygen carrying capacity
77
Q

HA plus anorexia, N/V, weakness, fatigue, dizziness, light-headed, fluid-retention, insomnia, oliguria, dyspnea, altered mental status

What am I?
What are the 2 complications if left untreated?

A

acute mountain sickness

High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)
High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)

78
Q

When do symptoms of acute mountain sickness start? What do the s/s closely resemble?

A

Symptoms occur within 48 hours of rapid ascent

Symptoms resembling a “hangover”

79
Q

What is the management for acute mountain sickness?

A

descend to lower elevation

tx symptoms:
low-flow oxygen
acetaminophen (Tylenol) or NSAID for HA
ondansetron (Zofran) for N/V

80
Q

in acute mountain sickness, a decent of ______ can provide prompt relief. In a mild presentation, when can you start to see improvement of symptoms after ascent?

A

300-1000 m

improvement in 12-36 hours after cessation of ascent

81
Q

What is the treatment for moderate presentation of acute mountain sickness?

A

hyperbaric oxygen therapy if available

acetazolamide plus dexamethasone until symptoms resolve

82
Q

_______ can be used in prevention of Acute Mountain Sickness

A

acetazolamide

83
Q

What is the disposition for acute mountain sickness? What is the pt education?

A

Discharge home if good response to intervention

Pt education:

avoid rapid ascents, overexertion, alcohol and respiratory depressants

use acetazolamide as prophylaxis
start 1 day prior to ascent and continue for 2 days after reaching highest altitude

84
Q

What is the underlying cause of High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)?

A

Hypoxic vasoconstriction and elevated right heart pressures results in noncardiogenic pulmonary edema caused from untreated acute mountain sickness

85
Q

______ is the MC cause of death in high altitude sickness and can be fatal within ____ of onset. What altitude is it associated with?

A

High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)

hours

can occur in as little as a 2400 m (8000 ft) ascension

86
Q

**When does High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) typically start? **What is the first symptom noticed?

A

day 2-4 after ascent

Decreased exercise capacity is the first symptom noticed

87
Q

dyspnea at rest, cough, rales, tachypnea, weakness, decreased performance, chest tightness, tachycardia, signs of pulmonary HTN

_____ must be present in order to diagnose ______

A

2 to diagnose High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)

88
Q

**What is the treatment of choice for High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)?

A

Immediate descent is the treatment of choice

and AVOID excessive exertion during descent

89
Q

What is the management of HAPE?

A

Supplemental O2 to keep O2 saturation > 90 %

Immediate descent

Hyperbaric treatment if descent isn’t possible

90
Q

How long should you continue the O2 in severe HAPE cases? What is the treatment for HAPE in the field?

A

continue O2 for 72 hours after decent in severe cases

Pharmacologic pulmonary vasodilation: Sildenafil, tadalafil, nifedipine

91
Q

When can you discharge a HAPE pt?

A

O2 on room air is maintained > 90%
symptoms resolve
CXR has improved

must have all 3 to go home

92
Q

_____ is the end-stage manifestation of AMS or HAPE. What is the clinical presentation?

A

High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)

history consistent with AMS
altered mental status, ataxia, stupor, coma
signs of ICP: retinal hemorrhage, papilledema

93
Q

Should order _____ in HACE. What will it show?

A

MRI

reveals cerebral edema

94
Q

What is the tx for HACE?

95
Q

Why are near drowning events bad? What 2 things does even minimal water aspiration lead to?

A

water washes out surfactant resulting in diminished gas exchange, ventilation perfusion mismatch and hypoxia

pum injury and ARDS

96
Q

When can ARDS occur after a near drowning event?

A

ARDS can occur up to 6-24 hours after aspiration

97
Q

What is the GCS cutoff that would change the treatment plan in a near drowning? O2 saturation?

A

GCS of 13

O2 of 95

98
Q

Look at this algorithm again. What is the treatment for a pt who has a GCS score over 13+ and O2 95+?

A

purple boxes

99
Q

Look at this algorithm again. What is the treatment for a pt who has a GCS score lower than 13 and O2 lower than 95?

A

green boxes

100
Q

Most fire-related deaths are due to ______. What are the 3 mechanisms of injury for inhalation injury?

A

smoke inhalation

Thermal injury
Inhalation of particulate matter
Inhalation of toxic gases

101
Q

_____ is inhalation of heat and affects the ______ which leads to ______

A

thermal injury

upper airway

acute airway compromise

102
Q

_______ results in bronchospasm and edema

A

inhalation of particulate matter

103
Q

_______ should be suspected in all fire inhalation injuries. ______ in burned wood, silk, polyurethane and vinyl

A

carbon monoxide

hydrogen cyanide

104
Q

What is the management of an inhalation injury?

A

Humidified O2 (100%) via facemask

Prompt ET intubation

Bronchodilators

Pulmonary toilet

105
Q

suctioning of the airways, chest physiotherapy, nasotracheal suction, bronchoscopy, incentive spirometry and use of analgesics (pain medications) that do not inhibit breathing, coughing, percussion, prone positioning to promoting drainage of secretions

These are all examples of ______

A

pulmonary toilet

106
Q

Why is carbon monoxide poisoning so bad for the pt? How much affinity?

A

Displaces O2 from hemoglobin = tissue hypoxia

CO has an affinity for hgb that is 260 times greater than O2

107
Q

Flu-like symptoms, HA, dizziness, N/V, DOE, irritability, fatigue, vision changes, tachycardia, confusion, lethargy, syncope, convulsions, coma
Exposure to gas heat or smoke inhalation
Multiple pts with same presentation from same residence

What am I?
What is the most reliable test?
**What is the most reliable lab? Should also get ______

A

carbon monoxide poisoning

CO-oximetry - most reliable

**carboxyhemoglobin level - elevate

should also get ABG

108
Q

What is the management for carbon monoxide poisoning? Should you wait on testing? What if the poisoning is severe?

A

HIGH flow O2 via non-rebreather or ET intubation

Do NOT wait for confirmation testing!

Hyperbaric O2 therapy for severe poisoning

109
Q

What is the disposition for carbon monoxide poisoning? Give asymptomatic, moderate and severe symptoms

110
Q

What are the 3 MC causes of thermal burns? What are the 3 ways to classify the % of body surface area affected?

A

scalding
direct thermal
flame burns

rule of 9s
Lund and Browder
Palmar Method

111
Q

What is the rule of 9s? Draw the human picture. When is it used?

A

quick and easy and used for 2nd and 3rd degree burns

Note the head is a total of 9
(4.5 on front and 4.5 on back)

112
Q

When is the Lund and Browder method used to estimate burns? Draw the human

A

more accurate for infants and children

provides estimates of BSA based upon age

113
Q

What is the Palmar Method for estimating burns? When is it used?

A

back of patients hand is 1% of BSA

used for small burns

114
Q

Describe the differences between first and fourth degree burns. Include examples and how it will present

115
Q

What degree?

A

superficial

116
Q

What degree?

A

superficial partial

117
Q

What degree?

A

deep partial

118
Q

What degree?

A

Full-thickness

119
Q

What is the treatment for a thermal burn?

A

AND

IV LR in the unburned area using Parkland Formula to determine fluid amount

labs

imaging: CXR and EKG

wound care of burns

120
Q

**What is the Parkland formula? **What is the equation?

A

used to determine the amount of fluids needed to give a burn pt

using LACTATED RINGERS

121
Q

What are the complications from a thermal burn?

A

inhalation injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, bacterial super-infection, sepsis, and multiorgan failure

122
Q

What is the managment for a MINOR burn?

A

Cleaned with mild soap and water

Large bullae (>2 cm) or those over mobile joints
-> Drain or debride

Apply topical 1% silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

discharge home with PCP f/u

123
Q

What is the treatment for a moderate/severe burn?

A

Cover with dry sterile sheet

Admit
moderate burns - hospital
severe burns - burn center

Update tetanus as indicated

124
Q

What is super important to identify early in the treatment of chemical burns?

A

what the chemical was!! was it acidic or alkali?

125
Q

_______ burns results in a coagulation necrosis leading to eschar formation limiting extent of damage. Usually, partial-thickness with erythema & erosion

A

Acid burns

126
Q

_______ burns results in a liquefaction necrosis resulting in deeper damage. Usually full-thickness, appear pale, and feel leathery & slippery

A

Alkali burns

127
Q

What is the management of chemical burns?

128
Q

What are the 2 classifications of an electrical injury?

A

High voltage (>1000 V): power lines

Low voltage (<1000 V): house things (think children)

129
Q

What are the 3 types of mechanisms of injury for an electrical injury?

A

Direct tissue damage (electrical energy)

Thermal damage (heat created)

Mechanical injury (fall or tetanic muscle contraction)

130
Q

When someone has a direct tissue damage electrical injury, what should you think?

A

Cardiac dysrhythmias and arrest, seizure, LOC

131
Q

When someone has a thermal damage from an electrical injury, what should you think?

A

Severe burns! Size of skin injury does NOT correlate with internal injury

concern for rhabdo

132
Q

What is the management for electrical injury?

133
Q

What is the disposition for an electrical injury? **What is important to note?

A

Discharge if: low voltage injury, asymptomatic, must have normal PE and EKG

Admit all others

134
Q

What improves survival rates in lightning strike injuries?

A

lightning most often flashes over skin - improves survival

fatal if lightning travels through the body

135
Q

_____ is the MC immediate cause of death in lightning injury? _______ is a pathognomonic but transient finding

A

cardiac arrest

Feathering or fern-shaped burns:

136
Q

What are the organ systems most at risk with a lightning injury?

A

brain: LOC, confusion and amneisa

rupture of TM

renal: deep tissue injury, myoglobinuria and renal failure with “through body” injury

cardio: dysrhythmias

137
Q

What is the tx for a lightning injury?

A

tx the same as an electrical injury

138
Q

_______ complications associated with changes in environmental ambient pressure and with breathing compressed gases. What are 2 examples?

A

dysbarism

barotrauma
decompression sickness

Underwater diving, aircraft cabin decompression, explosions or blasts

139
Q

Why does barotrauma occur?

A

occurs when gas-filled cavities of the body contract or expand with pressure changes

140
Q

What are the 3 options for barotrauma of descent?

A

Middle ear barotrauma

Inner ear barotrauma

Sinus ostia occlusion

141
Q

What does middle ear barotrauma lead to? What is the tx?

A

“barotitis media” - pressure in the middle ear leads to rupture or bleeding of TM

Middle ear - decongestants and analgesics; refer to ENT if TM rupture occurs

142
Q

What does inner ear barotrauma lead to? What is the tx?

A

valsalva during equalization can rupture the round or oval window leading to tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo

Inner ear - bed rest with head upright, ENT consult

143
Q

What does sinus ostia occlusion lead to?

A

during descent can lead to bleeding from the sinus cavity

144
Q

What happens during decompression sickness? What 2 populations are at risk?

A

Results from a release of nitrogen gas bubbles from the plasma into tissues during ascent

Occurs in divers who exceed the dive limits for time & depth and in unpressurized flights

145
Q

What are the 2 types of decompression sickness?

A

Type 1: minor symptom complex

Type 2: cardiorespiratory or neurologic symptoms

146
Q

Describe the s/s of decompression sickness type 1? Where are the 2 MC places?

A

Deep, aching pain in large joints and extremities

MC elbows and shoulders

147
Q

Describe the s/s of type 2 decompression sickness. _____ are common in scuba divers. ______ can be seen in high altitude flights

A

cardiorespiratory or neurologic symptoms

Fatigue, ataxia, spinal paralysis, vertigo, visual or speech disturbance, cognitive deficits

Spinal cord embolism - scuba divers

High-altitude flight - cerebral gas embolism (think air force pilots)

148
Q

What is the tx for decompression sickness?

A

Oxygen, 100% by mask for at least 2 hours

Crystalloid IV fluids to maintain hydration

Recompression therapy using a hyperbaric oxygen chamber